GO #2 Flashcards

(146 cards)

1
Q

What is prohibited regarding the use of firearms by department members?

A

The use of firearms is prohibited in several ways, including firing warning shots, firing at persons threatening only themselves, firing solely in defense of property, and firing into crowds.

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2
Q

What situations do not apply to the firearm discharge directive?

A

The directive does not apply to firearm discharges during training, practice at ranges, ballistic examinations, or licensed hunting activities.

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3
Q

What precautions should sworn members take before discharging a firearm?

A

Members should consider their surroundings, identify the appropriate target, and issue verbal warnings consistent with Force Mitigation principles.

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4
Q

What are the mandatory testing requirements after a firearm discharge?

A

Members involved in a discharge must submit to alcohol and drug testing, and refusal will result in administrative charges.

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5
Q

What is the duration of the administrative duty assignment after a firearm discharge?

A

Members will be placed on administrative duty for a minimum of thirty days following a firearm discharge incident.

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6
Q

What must be completed before returning to regular duties after a firearm discharge?

A

Members must complete thirty days of administrative duty, Traumatic Incident Stress Management Program requirements, critical incident training, and any other mandated training.

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7
Q

When is it authorized to use a Taser?

A

A Taser is an authorized force option against an assailant when the person is using or threatening to use force likely to cause physical injury.

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8
Q

What factors must be considered when determining Taser use?

A

Factors include the threat presented by the person, threat of self-harm, availability of other force options, likely outcome of Taser use, risk of injury, the person’s condition, and seriousness of the offense.

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9
Q

What are the restrictions on Taser use in schools?

A

Tasers are strongly discouraged in schools and on students unless deemed immediately necessary based on the totality of circumstances.

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10
Q

What environments should Tasers not be used in?

A

Tasers should not be used in environments with flammable, volatile, or explosive materials.

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11
Q

Who is authorized to remove Taser barbs from a person?

A

Only trained medical personnel may remove Taser probes from a person’s flesh.

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12
Q

Is drive stunning allowed?

A

Drive stunning is prohibited unless the person is defined as an assailant and other force options are ineffective.

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13
Q

What is the policy on Taser use against handcuffed individuals?

A

Tasers should not be used against fully restrained individuals unless they are defined as an assailant and other options are ineffective.

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14
Q

What circumstances increase the risk of serious injury from Taser use?

A

Circumstances include being elevated, unstable, at risk of falling, impaired reflexes, or in motion.

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15
Q

What must be justified for each Taser application?

A

Each Taser application must be individually justified and documented as a separate use of force.

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16
Q

What should members do after discharging a Taser?

A

Members must ensure the person can breathe, avoid restraining above the shoulders, request medical aid if necessary, and complete a Tactical Response Report.

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17
Q

What responsibilities does the reviewing supervisor have when notified of a Taser discharge?

A

The reviewing supervisor must respond to the scene, ensure the scene is processed correctly, and confirm notifications have been made.

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18
Q

What actions must the investigating supervisor take after a Taser discharge?

A

The investigating supervisor must ensure a higher-ranked supervisor responds, notify COPA, download Taser discharge data, and manage evidence.

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19
Q

What evidence must be inventoried from the of a Taser discharge?

A

All evidence must include the discharged probes, used cartridge(s), and a copy of the Taser discharge data sheet.

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20
Q

How should the discharged probes be handled after a taser discharge?

A

Detach the probes from the wires and insert them, pointed ends first, back into the cartridge.

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21
Q

What must the investigating supervisor ensure regarding the TRR?

A

Ensure all attachments are included in the TRR, including the Taser discharge data.

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22
Q

What should be done with the expended cartridge after a taser discharge?

A

Replace it from the district/unit supply. Replacement cartridges may be requested from the Taser Repair Center when needed.

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23
Q

What is COPA’s responsibility in reportable use of force incidents?

A

COPA will be exclusively responsible for recommending disciplinary action relating to the incident.

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24
Q

What tool does the investigating supervisor of a TRR use for after-action support recommendations?

A

The investigating supervisor will access the ‘TRR Debriefing Point Dashboard’ to review previous debriefing points.

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25
What is TRED's function?
TRED functions in an after-action-review capacity for reportable uses of force.
26
What defines a Level 1 reportable use of force?
Level 1 reportable use of force is any force used by a Department member to overcome active resistance that does not result in injury or complaint of injury.
27
What defines a Level 2 reportable use of force?
Level 2 reportable use of force includes any force that causes injury or complaint of injury but does not rise to Level 3.
28
What are examples of Level 2 reportable uses of force?
Examples include reportable force against restrained individuals, impact weapon strikes, and use of chemical weapons. ## Footnote Level 2 uses of force include Tasers, impact munitions, and unintentional firearm discharges that do not involve injury to a person.
29
What incidents does TRED review?
TRED reviews any Level 1 or Level 2 reportable use of force associated with a foot pursuit.
30
What is the goal of the Chicago Police Department regarding eluding suspects?
To ensure Department members consider the need for immediate apprehension of an eluding suspect and the requirement to protect the public from the danger created by eluding offenders.
31
Will the Department discipline members for terminating a motor vehicle pursuit?
No, the Department will not discipline any member for terminating a motor vehicle pursuit.
32
What constitutes fleeing or attempting to elude a peace officer?
When a driver, given a visual or audible signal by a peace officer, wilfully fails to obey, increases speed, extinguishes lights, or otherwise flees.
33
What actions define eluding without a motor vehicle pursuit?
Eluding exists when a driver, after being signaled to stop, increases speed, takes evasive actions, or refuses to stop.
34
What should a Department member do if an eluding incident occurs?
Immediately disengage from the eluding vehicle, deactivate emergency equipment, notify the OEMC zone dispatcher, and complete a CLEAR Eluding Vehicle Incident Report.
35
What is the balancing test for initiating a motor vehicle pursuit?
The necessity to immediately apprehend the fleeing suspect must outweigh the level of inherent danger created by the pursuit.
36
What offenses prohibit engaging in a motor vehicle pursuit?
Traffic offenses (other than DUI) and theft (including possession of stolen vehicles).
37
What are the supervisory responsibilities during a motor vehicle pursuit?
Supervisors must continuously monitor the radio to ensure pursuits are conducted in accordance with the directive.
38
What information must be provided to the OEMC dispatcher when initiating a pursuit?
Radio-call identification number, reason for pursuit, location, speed, direction of travel, vehicle description, number of occupants, and any other relevant information.
39
What should the secondary pursuit unit do?
Maintain a safe distance behind the primary unit and be ready to render backup assistance.
40
What happens if the primary pursuit unit becomes disabled?
The secondary pursuit unit will become the primary pursuit unit.
41
When must a pursuit to be terminated?
1. An involved Department member determines that the pursuit no longer conforms to the balancing test or other restrictions. 2. An order to terminate the pursuit is given by a supervisor. 3. A pursued vehicle or pursuing Department vehicle is involved in a traffic crash with a probability of personal injury. 4. Audio communication between the OEMC and the pursuing vehicle is lost. 5. The primary pursuit unit loses the vehicle being pursued and the secondary pursuit unit cannot reasonably assume the primary pursuit unit's duties.
42
What are the responsibilities of members engaged in a pursuit upon termination?
Members will: 1. Notify OEMC of their location and remain there until directed otherwise. 2. If the primary pursuit unit, obtain a Pursuit Tracking Number and submit a CLEAR Pursuit Report. 3. If not the primary pursuit unit, complete a Traffic Pursuit Supplemental Report. 4. Ensure the in-car camera video is correctly labeled and saved.
43
What should the assigned supervisor do after a pursuit termination?
The supervisor will: 1. Ensure the OEMC dispatcher simulcasted the termination information. 2. Proceed to the termination point and take control of the scene. 3. Ensure medical attention is requested for any injured persons. 4. Remove occupants from the pursued vehicle for further investigation. 5. Order non-involved members to return to normal duties. 6. Ensure reports are completed and submitted.
44
What is Priority 0 in the dispatch priority protocol?
10-1, police or fire. Emergency vehicle operation is justified.
45
What is Priority 1 in the dispatch priority protocol?
Immediate Dispatch. Emergency vehicle operation is justified.
46
What is Priority 2 in the dispatch priority protocol?
Rapid Dispatch. Emergency vehicle operation is discretionary.
47
What is Priority 3 and in the dispatch priority protocol?
Routine Dispatch. Emergency vehicle operation is prohibited.
48
What is Priority 4 in the dispatch priority protocol?
Administrative Dispatch. Emergency vehicle operation is prohibited.
49
How should a marked vehicle operator proceed through intersections?
Only after determining it is reasonable and safe to proceed.
50
Who coordinates activities at the scene of firearm discharge and officer-involved death incidents?
The designated exempt-level incident commander, Bureau of Detectives Area supervisor, IRT supervisor, and COPA personnel will confer and coordinate.
51
What does the designated exempt-level incident commander oversee?
They oversee the Department's on-scene investigative responsibilities into non-Department members' criminal conduct and officer-involved death or firearm discharge incidents.
52
Who responds to firearm discharge incidents solely for animal deterrence?
The district executive officer (XO) of the district of occurrence will respond and assume command.
53
What happens when the involved member is the same rank or higher than the incident commander?
The designated exempt-level incident commander will assume the investigating command personnel responsibilities.
54
What is the role of the Incident Response Team?
They conduct the Department's investigation into the underlying criminal conduct of non-Department members and officer-involved death incidents.
55
What is the primary responsibility of COPA in concurrent investigations?
COPA has primary responsibility for investigating the actions of Department members related to firearm discharge or officer-involved death.
56
What should involved members do immediately after a firearm discharge or officer-involved death incident?
Request medical attention for the injured and provide life-saving aid consistent with their Department training until medical professionals arrive on scene.
57
involved members needing medical treatment after a fireams dicharge incident will..
Any involved member will seek such treatment and then confer with the designated exempt-level incident commander.
58
What should involved members do with their recording equipment after a firearm discharge incident
They must not deactivate their activated Department-issued recording equipment until directed by an on-scene supervisor.
59
What should be done with firearms after a firearm discharge incident?
Ensure the firearm remains holstered and secured until submitted to Forensic Services Division personnel.
60
What is required of members during a public safety investigation?
Involved members must cooperate by providing oral responses to public safety questions regarding injuries, weapon discharges, and other relevant information.
61
What must involved members not do with their camera videos after a weapons discharge incident?
They must not view their in-car or body-worn camera videos until authorized by an on-scene supervisor.
62
What must reviewing supervisors ensure regarding witness members during a Public Safety Investigation?
Ensure witnesses remain separate from involved members and are available for on-scene interviews.
63
What is the protocol for handling firearms in firearm-discharge incidents?
No member of any rank other than Forensics Services Division personnel should handle, inspect, unload, or tamper with the involved member's firearm when feasible.
64
What should be done if the involved member is injured and their firearm is secured?
The responding supervisor will take possession of the firearm and duty belt from the securing member and ensure that the firearm remains holstered and secured.
65
When is it required to obtain a Universal (U) Number from COPA?
When a Department member has discharged a firearm and another person is injured or killed.
66
What is the justification for engaging in a Foot Pursuit?
The mere act of flight alone by a person does not justify a Foot Pursuit. Department members cannot base an investigatory stop solely on a person's response to police presence.
67
What is the primary consideration when determining a Foot Pursuit?
The safety of Department members, the public, and the person being pursued is the primary consideration.
68
What is prohibited regarding the use of force during a Foot Pursuit?
Department members are prohibited from using force to punish individuals for fleeing, resisting arrest, or assaulting a Department member after a Foot Pursuit is discontinued.
69
What is Partner Splitting?
Partner Splitting occurs when distance or obstacles separate partners, hindering their ability to assist during a Foot Pursuit.
70
What is Reasonable Articulable Suspicion (RAS)?
RAS is a well-founded suspicion based on specific, objective facts that a person has committed, is committing, or is about to commit a crime.
71
What risks are associated with Foot Pursuits?
Foot Pursuits carry inherent risks to Department members, the public, and the person being pursued, potentially leading to injury or hazards.
72
When can Department members engage in a Foot Pursuit?
Department members may engage in a Foot Pursuit if there is a valid law enforcement need to detain the person that outweighs the safety risks.
73
What examples of offenses permit Foot Pursuits?
Examples include aggravated assault, battery, and driving under the influence.
74
What examples of offenses prohibit Foot Pursuits?
Examples include business license offenses, parking violations, and Class B or C misdemeanors.
75
What should Department members consider when deciding to pursue?
Department members should weigh the seriousness of the offense against the need to apprehend and the safety of themselves and the public.
76
When can Department members engage in Partner Splitting?
Department members will not engage in Partner Splitting unless necessary for safety or protection.
77
When should a supervisor discontinue a Foot Pursuit?
When the pursuit lacks lawful purpose, poses excessive risk, or is not in compliance with policy.
78
What must a supervisor do upon apprehension of the person being pursued?
Proceed to the location, ensure medical attention for injuries, and complete necessary reports.
79
What is the role of the watch operations lieutenant during incident review of a foot pursuit?
Review and complete the Foot Pursuit Watch Operations Lieutenant Review for all pursuits associated with reportable uses of force or arrests.
80
What should the watch operations lieutenant evaluate during reviews of a foot pursuit?
Evaluate compliance with policy, opportunities for de-escalation, and tactics used during the pursuit.
81
What is the timeline for completing the review of a Foot Pursuit?
The review must be completed within 48 hours unless an extension is approved.
82
What report is required for a foot pursuit?
A Foot/Bicycle Pursuit Report ## Footnote A report is NOT required if the member is merely assisting without pursuing or involved only in containment or detention.
83
What additional reports must pursuing Department members document the Foot Pursuit on?
Pursuing members will document the Foot Pursuit on all appropriate Department reports, including: 1. Tactical Response Report for reportable uses of force. 2. OEMC recordation of firearm pointing incidents. 3. The appropriate case report.
84
What does radio silence by a supervisor imply?
Consent with the dispatcher's assignment of a unit to a call for service.
85
What is the purpose of a Public Safety Briefing?
Conducted anytime a Department member is involved in a firearm discharge or officer-involved death incident.
86
Who oversees the crime scene until a detective arrives?
Bureau of Patrol supervisors are responsible for overseeing the investigation, protection, and processing of the entire crime scene.
87
What is the responsibility of the highest ranking Bureau of Patrol supervisor after a detective arrives?
To oversee the protection of the outer perimeter formed by yellow barrier tape.
88
What is the responsibility of the highest ranking Bureau of Detectives member on the scene?
To oversee the protection and processing of the inner perimeter formed by red barrier tape.
89
What are the access rules for the inner perimeter formed by red barrier tape?
Admittance is permitted only to render aid, for those investigating the crime, processing evidence, or with approval from authorized personnel.
90
What Supreme Court case established the requirement to advise individuals of their rights during custodial interrogations?
Miranda v. Arizona, 384 U.S. 436 (1966) ## Footnote This case is foundational for the Miranda rights.
91
Which case confirmed that Miranda applies to misdemeanors?
Berkemer v. McCarty, 468 U.S. 420 (1984) ## Footnote Routine traffic stops do not require Miranda warnings.
92
What constitutes a valid waiver of rights?
An individual may waive their rights if the waiver is made voluntarily, knowingly, and intelligently.
93
What should happen if a lawyer appears during questioning?
The individual will be informed and given an opportunity to have the lawyer present during subsequent questioning.
94
What is the time period limitation for subsequent interrogations after asserting the right to an attorney?
Members may attempt to question the individual after a period of fourteen days has expired from their release from custody.
95
What is the requirement for general on-the-scene questioning?
A person need not be advised of their rights if they have not been taken into custody or become the focus of the investigation.
96
What should Department members do to prevent further abuse during an initial response during domestic incidents?
They should restore order, identify and secure weapons, and determine if medical assistance is needed.
97
What should officers do if a Chicago Police Department member is involved in a domestic incident?
The responding member will request a higher-ranking member to be assigned as the investigating supervisor.
98
What should officers do if a victim or offender speaks a foreign language?
Request a foreign language or sign language/oral interpreter.
99
What is the preferred response if there is probable cause for domestic violence?
The preferred response is the arrest of the offender.
100
Can a victim's refusal to sign a complaint defeat probable cause to arrest?
No, it does not defeat probable cause.
101
What is mandatory arrest under Department policy?
Mandatory arrest is required for Violation of an Order of Protection and Violation of Bail Bond.
102
What should a Department member do when encountering a respondent in an unserved Order of Protection?
A field supervisor will be called to serve the respondent via the short form.
103
What offenses require mandatory arrest according to Department policy?
Violation of an Order of Protection (720 ILCS 5/12-30) and Violation of Bail Bond (725 ILCS 5/110-10d).
104
How can officers verify the existence of an order of protection?
By checking LEADS, requesting the OEMC dispatcher to check LEADS, verbal admission by the respondent, or once the short form is served.
105
What must officers verify when an order of protection exists?
That the order has not expired, the respondent has been served, and the alleged violation is enforceable by arrest.
106
What happens if probable cause exists for a Violation of an Order of Protection?
The respondent will be arrested if present, regardless of the petitioner's wishes.
107
Can a petitioner waive an order of protection?
No, only a judge can revoke or modify an order of protection.
108
What should officers do when presented with conflicting orders of protection?
The first order issued takes precedence.
109
What is the full faith and credit for foreign orders of protection?
Orders of protection from other jurisdictions must be enforced in Illinois if valid.
110
What is the policy regarding the enforcement of international orders?
Members will not enforce international orders, any order issued outside the country.
111
What steps should be taken for victims who are blind or visually impaired?
Inform the victim about the DIN in braille, notify a supervisor, and provide both braille and non-braille DINs.
112
Who ensures the DIN (Braille Version) forms are secured and documented on the Watch Incident Log?
The watch operations lieutenant.
113
Who should a sworn Department member notify when assigned to a preliminary investigation of a hate incident?
Notify their immediate field supervisor, the watch operations lieutenant, the appropriate Bureau of Detectives Area, and the Hate Crimes team.
114
What is the role of the Hate Crimes team during a preliminary investigation?
Support the preliminary investigation by assisting in identifying acts that could constitute elements of a hate crime.
115
What is the responsibility of the Area Detectives supervisor regarding hate incidents?
Assign a detective to conduct a timely and comprehensive follow-up investigation.
116
What is a Type 'A' crash?
No Injury/Drive Away.
117
What is a Type 'B' crash?
A crash that involves injury, death, and/or a vehicle was towed from the scene due to damage caused by the crash.
118
What should parties involved in a Type 'A' crash do?
They will be directed to remove vehicles safely, exchange information, and go to the nearest district station to make a report unless certain conditions apply.
119
What are the conditions that prevent parties from going to the nearest district station after a Type 'A' crash?
Conditions include a disturbance at the crash scene, drivers under the influence, or circumstances warranting dispatching a field unit.
120
What is the procedure for hit and run crashes involving a fatality or life threatening injury?
The investigating member will request the OEMC dispatcher to notify MAIU and request the assignment of a MAIU team immediately.
121
What are the components of the SFST?
The components are: 1. Horizontal Gaze Nystagmus (HGN) test, 2. Walk and Turn test, 3. One Leg Stand test.
122
Is the Finger to Nose test a component of the SFST?
No, it is not considered a component of the SFST but may be used and documented.
123
Where is an arrestee normally transported for initial processing?
The arrestee will normally be transported to the district of arrest for initial processing.
124
What must be documented if an Investigatory Stop Report (ISR) is required?
An ISR will be completed consistent with the Department directive titled 'Investigatory Stop System.'
125
What actions should be taken if a detainee escapes during transportation?
Notify the district station supervisor, OEMC, CPIC, COPA, and document the incident on the appropriate case report/Supplemental Report.
126
What must be done if an arrestee is allowed to make telephone calls?
The arrestee must be allowed to make three telephone calls free of charge as soon as possible but no later than three hours after arrival.
127
What happens if an arrestee is transferred to a new place of custody regarding arrestee phone calls
The right to make three telephone calls is renewed and must be given as soon as possible but no later than three hours after arrival.
128
Who is responsible for the safety and security of arrestees at a facility?
The station supervisor of the facility is responsible for the safety and security of arrestees.
129
What must the watch operations lieutenant (WOL) do upon receiving an arrest report?
The WOL will review all required arrest documentation and approve initial probable cause or release arrestees without charging.
130
A subject may be released without seeking approval of charges with the approval of who?
The Watch Operations Lieutenant (WOL), and this will be documented in a CLEAR Automated Arrest Report.
131
How are adult female arrestees processed when transported to a district with a male-only holding facility?
They will be given priority over adult males for fingerprinting and photographing. ## Footnote Juvenile arrestees will be given priority over adult arrestees for the completion of the booking process.
132
What happens if an adult female arrestee cannot be let to bail?
The watch operations lieutenant will ensure the transport of the arrestee to the designated female holding facility within a reasonable period of time.
133
How are adult TIGN arrestees transported?
They will be transported alone with a Department member of the same gender as their expressed gender identity.
134
What is the priority for fingerprinting and photographing TIGN arrestees?
TIGN arrestees will be given priority over other arrestees remaining in the holding facility.
135
What must be completed if an arrestee is hospitalized?
A Hospital Run Sheet form will be completed regardless of the mode of transport.
136
What is the preferred handcuffing position for an arrestee?
Both hands behind the back and palms positioned outward, with handcuffs double-locked.
137
What should members do when removing an arrestee from a lockup facility?
They will handcuff the arrestee and apply leg irons above the ankles.
138
When can discretion be exercised in applying leg irons during removal?
When it would interfere with emergency medical treatment or during an emergency requiring expedient removal.
139
What is prohibited regarding the restraint of a person?
'hog-tying.'
140
What guidelines should be followed when conducting a strip search?
Discretion and good judgment will be used when conducting a strip search. The arrestee will not be required to remain unclothed any longer than is absolutely necessary.
141
Under what authority can a body cavity search be performed?
A search of any body cavity other than the mouth will be permitted only under the authority of a SEARCH WARRANT. The body cavity search will be performed under sanitary conditions either by or under the supervision of a physician licensed to practice medicine in the State of Illinois.
142
What is required for all strip searches regardless of location?
All strip searches, regardless of location, require written approval from the appropriate supervisor using the Report of Strip Search (CPD-11.521).
143
How can visitation with a legal representative occur?
Visitation may take place in person or via telephone in Department facilities equipped with on-site visitation areas.
144
What form is used to document visits from attorneys
An Attorney/711 Visitation Notification form (CPD-11.573) will be used for adults.
145
What rights do juveniles have regarding attorney visitation?
Juveniles have the right to an attorney visitation without needing parental consent.
146
What must the watch operations lieutenant document?
The watch operations lieutenant will document the information in the watch operations lieutenant comments section of the Arrest Report.