S.O #4 Flashcards

(78 cards)

1
Q

What does the Chicago Police Department prioritize in its policy regarding mental health-related incidents?

A

The sanctity of life and enhancing its response in all community encounters, including mental and behavioral health-related incidents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the role of the Crisis Intervention Team (CIT) Program?

A

Facilitate and act in coordination with partnerships between law enforcement, prosecutors, courts, designated mental health intake facilities, mental and behavioral health service providers and advocates, and the community.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the two main goals of the CIT Program?

A
  • Reinforce the safe and dignified treatment of persons experiencing a mental health crisis
  • Promote community-oriented solutions to assist individuals in crisis and reduce involvement with the criminal justice system.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is required for the CIT Program at the district level?

A

Sufficient, dedicated district-level resources consistent with the needs identified by the District Commander and the CIT Coordinator.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How many Certified CIT officers are maintained on duty?

A

A sufficient number of Certified CIT officers on duty on every watch of each district to respond to incidents involving individuals in crisis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What should Department members do when encountering individuals in crisis?

A

Utilize training to recognize and respond appropriately, using respectful terminology.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the CIT Program designed to improve?

A

The competency and capacity to effectively respond to individuals in crisis and de-escalate crises.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Who administers the CIT Program?

A

The Crisis Intervention Unit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What type of training does the CIT Program provide?

A
  • Basic CIT Training
  • Advanced CIT Training (youth, veterans)
  • Refresher trainings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the responsibilities of arresting officers regarding adherence to Department procedures?

A

Arresting officers must adhere to all Department procedures relative to the processing of arrestees and ensure there is a valid basis for charges placed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the requirement regarding a name check before charging an arrestee?

A

An arrestee must not be charged until a name check has been completed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Under what circumstances does the three-hour phone call requirement not apply?

A

If the arrestee is asleep, unconscious, incapacitated, or if exigent circumstances prevent timely compliance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What must be documented regarding an arrestee’s telephone calls?

A

The name of the person called, phone number called, date and time of the call, and the location where the call was made.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is required to attest to the accuracy of the CLEAR Automated Arrest System?

A

Entering a password for electronic signature or signing the affirmation statement in the presence of a deputy clerk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What must station supervisors ensure regarding phone calls for arrestees?

A

Arrestees must be allowed to make three phone calls free of charge as soon as possible, but no later than three hours after arrival.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What must be reviewed by station supervisors at the beginning of the booking process?

A

All Arrest Reports to ensure compliance with Department directives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When can an arrestee be charged?

A

When the booking process is complete and probable cause exists.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the maximum time an arrestee should be detained before appearing in court?

A

No more than 48 hours from the time of arrest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What must be determined when the Resisted Arrest box is checked on the Arrest Report?

A

Whether the arrestee’s actions classify as passive resister, active resister, or assailant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How often must station supervisors inspect the lockup and prisoners?

A

At least four times during the tour of duty.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What must be sought when a charged arrestee is hospitalized?

A

A mittimus to remand the arrestee to custody.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What should be done if an arrestee is refused transfer to an outside holding facility due to illness?

A

Transport the arrestee to the nearest approved medical facility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the responsibility of the station supervisor regarding signatures on arrest reports?

A

Ensure required signatures are entered in the automated system or on the affirmation statement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What must be verified for an arrestee in custody on a warrant?

A

That the arrestee and the person wanted on the warrant are the same person.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the policy of the Chicago Police Department regarding the holding of arrestees?
To hold all arrestees until the completion of the identification process
26
List the three conditions that must be met when waiving fingerprint results for an arrestee.
* Not arrested for a felony or upgradeable to a felony * Ready to post bond * Possesses sufficient personal identification
27
What must station supervisors ensure regarding the arrestee's status before waiving fingerprint results?
It is reasonably certain that the arrestee is not wanted for another offense or Investigative Alert
28
Where should the justification for waiving fingerprint results be described?
In the 'Watch Commander Comments' section of the Arrest Report application
29
What must be obtained whenever an arrestee is released without charging?
A Central Booking (CB) number
30
What should the station supervisor describe in the 'Reason For Release Without Charge' section of the Arrest Report application?
The justification and the times for the decision and release
31
What type of interim clothing is provided for a prisoner in a lockup facility?
A blue 'paper gown'.
32
What type of interim clothing is provided for a prisoner being transported to court?
A white 'paper coverall'.
33
How often must district station supervisors conduct thorough inspections of the lockups and arrestees?
At least four times per tour ## Footnote Inspections must be documented in the Daily Prisoner Log Record (CPD-21.975).
34
What happens when a central booking (CB) number is obtained for adults and juveniles ten years of age or older?
Fingerprints and photographs will be taken
35
Are arrestees fingerprinted when released without charging?
No, unless the process was completed prior to release
36
What must be done if an arrestee's fingerprints are unreadable?
The fingerprints will be redlined
37
What must be included in court documents if the arrestee is charged with a quasi-criminal or misdemeanor offense?
Copies of the LEADS printout and the Redline Notification form
38
What is the purpose of the Field Pretrial Release Conditions form (CPD-21.255)?
It operates as a notice to appear and a conditions of release document for Pretrial Fairness Act—Field Release by Citation incidents.
39
What does the District Pretrial Release Conditions form (CPD-21.256) replace?
It replaces all bonds used previously to release charged individuals from the district.
40
What is the timeframe for traffic offense court dates?
14-60 days from issuance or arrest to court date or 30-45 days from issuance for Cook County Civil Law Citations.
41
What is the court date timeframe for non-narcotic felonies?
7 days after the date of arrest.
42
What is the timeframe for narcotic felonies regarding court dates?
21 days after the date of arrest.
43
What are some common Class B and C Misdemeanor PFA-eligible offenses?
* Criminal Trespass to Land * Assault—Simple * Disorderly Conduct—Breach of Peace * Theft Lost/Mislaid Property < $500
44
What is one requirement for a person to be eligible for the Pretrial Fairness Act—Field Release by Citation?
The person must be 18 years of age or older.
45
What can disqualify a person from Pretrial Fairness Act—Field Release by Citation?
Having an active serviceable arrest warrant from any jurisdiction.
46
What happens if an arrestee qualifies for a Pretrial Fairness Act—District Release?
The arrestee will be released from the district using a District Pretrial Release Conditions form (CPD-21.256).
47
What is the role of the watch operations lieutenant (WOL) in the Pretrial Fairness Act—District Release process?
The WOL will: * Follow applicable procedures for processing * Ensure incident reports are completed * Review each event for appropriate charge and probable cause * Determine eligibility for Narcotics Arrest Diversion Program * Ensure Misdemeanor or Felony Complaint forms are completed * Complete the booking process * Determine disqualifying factors for District Release
48
When can a District Pretrial Release Conditions form be issued at a medical facility?
The WOL will determine if the form can be issued when an arrestee charged with an offense requiring the Pretrial Fairness Act is taken to a medical facility for treatment.
49
What is the time frame within which an arrested person must be charged with a felony, except for specific cases?
Within six (6) hours of arrest ## Footnote Excludes felony narcotics cases and syndicated gambling cases made by members of the Bureau of Organized Crime.
50
In what situation must a juvenile in custody be charged as an adult?
When offenses are committed that require adult charges
51
What is defined as 'serious injury' for the purposes of this directive?
Injury requiring hospital admission ## Footnote Does not include emergency room first aid or hospitalization from a motor vehicle crash.
52
Who should be contacted for assistance in securing search warrants or arrest warrants?
The Felony Review Unit
53
What is not required in narcotic cases?
The felony-review process
54
What must the station supervisor ensure when felony charges are sought?
Appropriate notification to the assistant state's attorney
55
What happens if felony charges are not approved by an assistant state's attorney?
The decision may be overruled by the appropriate area commander or deputy chief
56
Who will be consulted for consultation and determination if there is a disagreement on charges?
The appropriate area commander or area deputy chief
57
What age must a juvenile be to be processed as an adult for certain offenses?
A juvenile must be at least 16 years of age at the time an alleged offense is committed.
58
What offenses will cause a juvenile to be processed as an adult?
1. First Degree Murder (720 ILCS 5/9-1); 2. Aggravated Criminal Sexual Assault (720 ILCS 5/12-14); 3. Aggravated Battery with a firearm where the minor personally discharged a firearm.
59
What additional offenses can lead to a juvenile being charged as an adult?
1. Escape; failure to report to a penal institution [720 ILCS 5/31-6(a)]; 2. Violation of bail bond (720 ILCS 5/32-10).
60
What is the goal of the Youth Intervention Pathways—Pilot Program?
To reduce the harms of the justice system for juveniles arrested in Chicago by promoting diversion opportunities, station adjustments, and connecting them to supportive family and social services.
61
What is the policy of the Department regarding arrestees?
To charge an arrestee to the fullest extent of the law that the facts of the case warrant
62
What determines if a felony upgrade is possible at the time of arrest?
The arrestee's criminal history
63
Which directive should be referred to for processing violations of unlawful use of weapons?
Unlawful Use of Weapons Arrests
64
Which directive should be referred to for processing violations of the Firearm Concealed Carry Act?
Firearm Concealed Carry Act
65
Where can an arrestee's registration status be checked?
Via the Hot Desk computer system
66
What does the unlawful possession of a firearm in a vehicle include?
Any motor vehicle that contains a firearm carried or possessed in violation of applicable laws
67
True or False: A valid CCL protects individuals from being charged under all UUW statutes.
False
68
What must a CCL licensee do if their license is revoked, suspended, or denied?
They must surrender their concealed carry license to the local law enforcement agency within 48 hours of receiving notice.
69
What should district desk personnel do upon receiving a revoked CCL License?
Place the surrendered CCL License into a plain white envelope, seal it, address it as indicated, and forward it to the Police Document Section for delivery to the ISP.
70
What is the statutory requirement outlined in the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act regarding individuals posing a clear and present danger?
A law enforcement official or school administrator must notify the Department of State Police within 24 hours of determining that a person poses a clear and present danger.
71
Who is protected from liability under the Firearm Owners Identification Act when making a determination of clear and present danger?
Physicians, clinical psychologists, qualified examiners, law enforcement officials, or school administrators.
72
Fill in the blank: A person who poses a clear and present danger is defined as one who _______.
[communicates a serious threat of physical violence, poses a clear and imminent risk of serious physical injury, or demonstrates threatening behavior]
73
What must sworn Department members do to obtain a temporary password for the ISP portal?
Call the Crime Prevention and Information Center (CPIC) to obtain a temporary 'Password'.
74
What should be included in the narrative section of the 'Individual' field in the Clear and Present Danger Report?
* Facts supporting the determination * Specific relevant behaviors or statements * Witness identification * Documentation of audio or video recordings
75
What should sworn Department members do with all documents related to the clear and present danger incident?
Upload them to the ISP portal.
76
What happens after a sworn Department member submits a 'Clear and Present Danger Report'?
It is reviewed by multiple levels at ISP before being 'affirmed'.
77
True or False: Firearms must be seized from individuals identified as posing a clear and present danger.
True
78
What should be done if a Department case report is not prepared during an encounter with an individual posing a clear and present danger?
Complete a General Offense case report using UCR code 5081.