Module 10 Flashcards

(128 cards)

1
Q

___% of the cell in heart are specialized for electrical activityconduction

A

1

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2
Q

What is the pacemaker of the heart ?

A

SA node

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3
Q

What is the electrical relay station of the heart ?

A

AV node

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4
Q

What is the main transmission line of the heart ?

A

Bundle of His

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5
Q

Purkinjie fibers distribute_________to_________

A

electrical signals to ventricular cells

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6
Q
  • Omega_____can be pro inflammatory
  • Omega_____is anti inflammatory
A
  • 6
  • 3
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7
Q

(Saturated/Unsaturated) fats are more healthy

A

Unsaturated

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8
Q

What form a micelle in digestion

A

products from fat digestion & bile acids

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9
Q

What is the fxn of chylomicrons ?

A

Act as lipid transporting particles

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10
Q

T/F, smoking is a risk factor for dvlping artheroscelorosis

A

T

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11
Q

Cholesterol absorption is hindered by__________content

A

high fiber

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12
Q

Transient constant influx of _____ions cause the myocyte to contract

A

K+

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13
Q

(Atrial/Ventricular) tachycardia is more common ?

A

Atrial

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14
Q

What is the complication of atrial tachycardia ?

A

Clots may form & get pumped out > stroke

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15
Q

(Atrial/Ventricular) tachycardia is more life threatening ?

A

Ventricular

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16
Q

What does Digoxin inhibit ?

A

Na/K ATPase

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17
Q

T/F, Digoxin has a wide therapeutic index ?

A

F, narrow

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18
Q

What 3 classes of drugs to avoid when using digoxin

A
  1. NSAIDS
  2. Macrolides ab
  3. Tetracycline ab
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19
Q

Angine is chest pain due to___________

A

Reduced blood flow

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20
Q

Nitrate drugs are metabolised into_________

A

Nitric Oxide

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21
Q

What drugs are 1st line therapy to high cholesterol

A

Statins

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22
Q

What drug is commonly added if statin is not adequate ?

A

Ezetimibe

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23
Q

Acute Rheumatic Fever is an acute often recurrent, immunological inflammatory disorder which potentially follows_______or_________

A

systemic infection or upper respiratory infection

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24
Q

(Endo/Myo/Pericarditis) pose the greatest significance because_________

A

Endocarditis, it is a precursor to heart failure

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25
Most of the rheumatic endocarditis happen on which side of heart ?
Left
26
Rhematic endocarditis is host response to_____________
bacterial vegetation
27
Which streptococcus species can cause endocarditis ?
Strep Pyogenes & Mutans
28
What specie can cause strep throat ?
Strep pyogenes
29
What is the difference between endocarditis & rheumatic fever (RF) ?
Both affect the heart. Endocarditis is infection of the endocardium while RF is immunological inflammatory disorder following systemic infection (i.e. oral infection)
30
What could digoxin be used to treat ?
heart failure w/ atrial fibrillation
31
50% of septic shock is caused by which 2 bacterias
E. Coli/ K pneumoniae
32
- Strep contributes to_______% of sepsis - Staph contributes to_______% of sepsis
- 20 - 20
33
amoxicillin is a (long/short) acting antibiotics
short
34
Bacteraemia asso w/ dental procedures usually involves which group of streptococci
Viridans
35
If patient is taking long term benzathine benzylPENICILLIN for prevention of RF, what ab is appropriate for endocarditis prophylaxis ?
Amoxicillin
36
If patient is taking long term Beta-Lactam for prevention of RF, what ab is appropriate for endocarditis prophylaxis ?
Non beta-lactam ab (e.g., clindamycin)
37
what does having more p waves than qrs waves imply
Heart block
38
what does having more qra waves than p waves imply
ventricular cells contracting on their own
39
What are the 2 underlying mechanisms for arrhythmias ?
1. Ectopic automaticity (myocytes become pace makers) 2. Re-entry events
40
List 2 tx for arrhymias
Beta blockers, K+ channel blockers
41
What are the 3 types of antibiotics therapy ?
Prophylaxis, Empirical therapy, Directed therapy
42
List 4 ways antibiotics can be classified
drug class, structure, mechanism of action, generation
43
__________of a healthy blood vessel help maintain smooth blood flow & prevent clotting in vessel
Confluent endothelium
44
Atrial depolarization occurs during____wave
P
45
What occur during T wave
ventricular Repolarization
46
What happens during QRS complex
ventricular depolarization & (atrial repolarization ?)
47
Metronidazole is effective against what bacteria
Strict anaerobes
48
Beta lactams are effective against what bacteria
Gram + cocci (inhibit peptidoglycan syn.)
49
Fluclox is taken (w/ or w/out) food ?
w/ out only
50
Metronidazole is taken (w/ or w/out) food ?
w/ only
51
what antibiotics should be avoided on patients w/ renal issues
Clindamycin, Lincomycin
52
What antibiotic has good alveolar bone penetration
Clindamycin
53
What antibiotic may lead to neurological side effect
Metronidazole (flagyl)
54
Thrombus occurs when______is exposed to the blood in the process of artherosclerosis
lipid-rich core of plaque
55
_________produced from metabolism of dietary choline & l-carnitine INHIBITS cholesterol metabolism & promotes atherosclerosis
TMAO
56
Which 2 drugs diminish the effect of RAA sys. and thus reducing the work required by heart to pump
ACEI/Sartan
57
What antibiotics inc the risk of prolonged QT interval ?
Macrolides
58
Using of lidocaine on patienta taking which antibiotic may lead to toxicity
Amiodarone (macrolide)
59
List 3 drugs used for Angina
1. Ca channel blocker (inc O2 availability) 2. Beta blockers (reduce SYMPATHETIC effects on heart) 3. Nitrates (relax vascular smooth muscle)
60
Which drug that can be used to treat angina has potentially fatal drug interaction w/ viagara
Nitrates
61
What is used for first aid in angina
Nitroglycerin spray/tablets
62
Statin has significant drug interactions w/ what antibiotics ?
Macrolides
63
- Aschoff Nodule is commonly found in what disease
- Rheumatic Fever/Carditis
64
What are 2 key characteristic of Anitschkow cell in Aschoff Nodule
Prominent nucleoli (Anitschkow cell) Aschoff multi-nucleated giant cells
65
T/F, giant cells are found in rheumatic endocarditis ?
T
66
Aortic regurgitation is a result of___________
cusp rigidity
67
A full glass of water is recommended to lower GI irritation with which ab
Clindamycin, Linomycin
68
What is the typical dose range for Clindamycins ?
300-600mg
69
What does statins inhibit ?
HMG-CoA reductase converting into mevalonate
70
Which segment of the ECG wave may be altered by combining certain classes of drugs, such as antiarrhythmics and macrolide antibiotics? ST segment PR interval PR segment QRS complex QT interval
QT interval
71
Fibrinous / haemorrhagic pericarditis is characterised by which of the following sequalae? Ischaemic heart disease Fibrin, mixed with small amounts of blood, into the pericardial space Valvular vegetations Valvular haemorrhage Collagen, mixed with small amounts of blood, into the pericardial space
Fibrin, mixed with small amounts of blood, into the pericardial space
72
All of the following are true regarding Omega-3 fats EXCEPT: They regulate blood clotting They reduce blood pressure They are essential They should be eaten no more than once per week They are the starting point for hormone manufacture
They should be eaten no more than once per week
73
Which statement below concerning Streptococcus pyogenes is false: S. pyogenes is a Gram positive coccus and is classified as a Group A Streptococcus. Bleeding during oral surgery can result in S. pyogenes entering the bloodstream. S. pyogenes can cause lysis of red blood cells. A throat infection by S. pyogenes cannot be misdiagnosed as a viral infection. An S. pyogenes infection of the tonsils can result areas of white pus.
A throat infection by S. pyogenes cannot be misdiagnosed as a viral infection.
74
Which of the following regarding modification of antibiotics for surgical prophylaxis is CORRECT? It is needed for patients currently taking long-term antibiotics for another indication It is always needed in patients who have recently received antibiotic therapy It is needed for patients who have recently received surgical prophylaxis It is needed for patients who have taken a short course of antibiotics within the previous 4 weeks It is needed for patients who have taken a short course of antibiotics within the previous 4 weeks and who are currently taking long-term antibiotics for another indication
It is needed for patients currently taking long-term antibiotics for another indication
75
Why are mono and polyunsaturated fats important to include in the diet: Their structure allows them to be tightly packed together to be solid at room temperature They are completely hydrogenated They raise triglyceride levels which protects against stroke They raise Low Density Lipoproteins (LDL’s) to protect against cardiovascular disease Can improve blood cholesterol profiles and regulate inflammation
Can improve blood cholesterol profiles and regulate inflammation
76
In the case of a normal heartbeat, depolarization stimulus arises in which of the following? Atrioventricular node (AV node) Bundle of His Endocardium Epicardium Sinoatrial node (SA node)
Sinoatrial node (SA node)
77
A man aged 53 suffered from weakness and fainting attacks for 2 years, and for 3 months prior to death showed generalised oedema and was diagnosed with recurrent rheumatic fever. Which of the following is TRUE on inspection of the impacted cardiac valve? Low blood pressure predominantly results in right-sided valve damage Vegetations are focused to muscle tissues surrounding the affected valve Evidence of fibrin, mixed with small amounts of blood Recurrent inflammation leads to endothelial ulceration on the valve surfaces Bacterial vegetation has grown over surface epithelial cells
Recurrent inflammation leads to endothelial ulceration on the valve surfaces
78
Which of the following drugs inhibits β-lactamase to enhance activity of amoxicillin? Azithromycin Clavulanic acid Digoxin Clindamycin Phenoxymethylpenicillin
Clavulanic acid
79
Which of the following about amoxicillin is INCORRECT: is a beta-lactam is effective against some Gram negative bacteria works by inhibiting protein synthesis is a broad spectrum antibiotic is bactericidal
works by inhibiting protein synthesis
80
What is the maximum dose of paracetamol for an adult over 24 hours?
4000mg
81
Which of the following is a complication occurring after infective endocarditis? Thinning of the chordae tendineae Valvular vegetations Diffuse proliferative glomerular nephritis Aortic vegetations Intracerebral haemorrhage
82
What is the most likely event immediately following the rupture of an unstable plaque? Depolarisation Endothelial dysfunction Non ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction Thrombosis Atherosclerosis
Thrombosis
83
What are the 3 types of ECG
Resting, Ambulatory, Stress
84
The resting potential of cardiomyocyte is ~______mV
-90
85
A slight delay between the P & the QRS sequence indicate_____degree heart block
First
86
ST segment depression can be found in what cardio disease ?
Angina
87
ST segment elevation can be found in what cardio disease ?
Myocardial Infarction
88
List 2 medications that could cause arrhythmias
Beta blocker, K+ channel blocker
89
Scaring of heart and cardiovascular conductive system can cause what cardio disease
Arrhythmias
90
Which of the following antibiotics is often recommended to be co-prescribed with amoxicillin to provide anaerobic coverage? Metronidazole Clindamycin Cefalexin Trimethoprim Flucloxacillin
Metronidazole
91
Subsequent to formation of vegetations on the chordae tendinaea of the mitral valve, which of the following is TRUE? Commonly enhances valve elasticity The mitral cusps become thinner and more flexible due to fibrosis Typically results in enhanced ejection fraction A high prevalence of adhesion and fusion of chordae tendinaea Lengthens the chordae tendinaea
A high prevalence of adhesion and fusion of chordae tendinaea
92
Which segment of the ECG wave may be altered by combining certain classes of drugs, such as antiarrhythmics and macrolide antibiotics? QRS complex ST segment PR segment PR interval QT interval
QT interval
93
Ventricular depolarization occurs in_____wave
R
94
Ventricular contraction occurs in_____wave
S
95
What is hypervolemia
Having too much blood
96
Which drug treat heart failure by slowing heart down and stop excessive stimulation
Beta blockers
97
Which drugs treat heart failure by reducing blood volume
Diuretics`
98
Sacubitril treats heart failure by____________
inhibiting an enzyme that is responsible for degrading vasoactive peptides (i.e. bradykinin)
99
Sacubitril must be co-administered w/_________
Sartan/ACEI
100
Which class of antibiotic inc. the risk of prolonged QT interval
Macrolides
101
What is angina
chest pain due to reduced blood flow
102
What is the definition of septic shock ?
Cardiovascular collapse due to septicaemia
103
The depolarization of_______node cause atrium to contract
SA
104
Anti-diarrheal meds should be avoided when taking which class of antibiotics
Lincosamides (i.e. clindamycin)
105
Which class of antibiotic should be avoided in patients w/ renal transplant/dz
Lincosamides (i.e. clindamycin)
106
Which antibiotic could cause metallic taste >
Metronidazole
107
Which aspect of plaque formation contributes most directly to the formation of the lipid core? Smooth muscle cell proliferation leading to plaque fibrous cap formation Thinning of the fibrous cap exposing the plaque to platelets and fibrin Apoptosis of macrophages leading to spilled lipids in the vessel wall Endothelial cell adhesion molecule expression and oxidation of LDL cholesterol Migration of leukocytes leading to increased cytokine secretion
Apoptosis of macrophages leading to spilled lipids in the vessel wall
108
Which segment of the ECG wave may be altered by combining certain classes of drugs, such as antiarrhythmics and macrolide antibiotics? PR segment QT interval ST segment QRS complex PR interval
QT interval
109
The MOST appropriate choice of infective endocarditis prophylaxis for an adult patient who cannot take medicines orally with a documented history of immediate severe hypersensitivity to penicillins is: Cefazolin 2 g intramuscularly 30 minutes before the procedure Clindamycin 600 mg orally 60 to 120 minutes before the procedure Cefalexin 2 g orally 60 minutes before the procedure Clindamycin 600 mg intravenously within the 120 minutes before the procedure Cefazolin 2 g intravenously within the 60 minutes before the procedure
Clindamycin 600 mg intravenously within the 120 minutes before the procedure
110
When a patient has risk factors including high blood pressure, smoking, and high blood glucose, this can cause damage to the endothelium. Which two events are most likely to occur as a result of endothelial dysfunction? Decreased blood flow and increased blood pressure Disruption of the smooth muscle cell proliferation and fibrous cap formation Decreased platelet aggregation and increased blood clotting Increased LDL cholesterol oxidation and immune cell infiltration Oversupply of oxygen and ischaemic damage
Increased LDL cholesterol oxidation and immune cell infiltration
111
What is the most likely event immediately following the rupture of an unstable plaque? Non ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction Depolarisation Thrombosis Atherosclerosis Endothelial dysfunction
Thrombosis
112
Which process form foam cell
macrophages digesting cholesterol & oxidized LDLs
113
What is the cause of STEMI myocardial infarction ?
Complete occlusion of coronary artery
114
What is the cause of non-STEMI myocardial infarction ?
Partial occlusion of coronary artery
115
Sacubitril must be co-administered w/____________
Valsartan & ACEI/Sartans
116
What is the definition of myocardial infarction
Lack of oxygen to cardiac tissue coz of blocked CORONARY artery > severe pain & potentially fatal
117
Fibrinous pericardial exudate containing hemorrhage can be seen in what condition
fibrinous haemorrhagic pericarditis
118
Aschoff nodule is a foci of_________
swollen eosinophilic collagen surrounded by lymphocytes
119
(tooth brushing & flossing/episodic dental tx) pose higher risk for infective endocarditis & prosthetic joint infection
tooth brushing & flossing
120
What are the 3 special patient groups for surgical prophylaxis ?
1. Pre-existing prothetic joint prothesis 2. pre-existing breast implant 3. patients w/ profound immune compromise
121
What is the drug of choice of infective endocarditis prophylaxis generally
amoxicillin 2g orally 60 min b4 procedure
122
The MOST appropriate choice of infective endocarditis prophylaxis for an adult patient who can take medicines orally with a documented history of severe hypersensitivity to penicillins is: Cefazolin 2 g intramuscularly 30 minutes before the procedure Clindamycin 600 mg orally 60 to 120 minutes before the procedure Cefalexin 2 g orally 60 minutes before the procedure Clindamycin 600 mg intravenously within the 120 minutes before the procedure Cefazolin 2 g intravenously within the 60 minutes before the procedure
Cefalexin 2 g orally 60 minutes before the procedure
123
Amoxicilin +_______will turn it into broad spectrum drug
clavulonate
124
Cefalexin is a_______spectrum antibiotic
moderate
125
Penicillin is a________spectrum antibiotic
Narrow
126
Which class of antibiotic is bacterioSTATIC
Lincosamides
127
Which of the following regarding modification of antibiotics for surgical prophylaxis is CORRECT? It is needed for patients who have taken a short course of antibiotics within the previous 4 weeks It is always needed in patients who have recently received antibiotic therapy It is needed for patients who have recently received surgical prophylaxis It is needed for patients who have taken a short course of antibiotics within the previous 4 weeks and who are currently taking long-term antibiotics for another indication It is needed for patients currently taking long-term antibiotics for another indication
It is needed for patients currently taking long-term antibiotics for another indication
128
Which of the following is NOT a consequence of rheumatic endocarditis? Aortic stenosis Aortic regurgitation Mitral regurgitation Aortic valve degeneration Myocardial infarction
Myocardial infarction