1
Q
HIV can be transmitted via____________
A
Blood & body fluid (semen,vaginal fluid)
2
Q
Hep B can be transmitted via______________
A
Blood & body fluid (semen, vaginal fluid, wound exudates)
2
Q
CMV can be transmitted via______________
A
Semen & breast milk
2
Q
Hep C can be transmitted via____________
A
Blood (incl. blood contaminated body fluid)
3
Q
HIV is a member of which family ?
A
retrovirus, ssRNA > require transcriptase
3
Q
HIV____is responsible for most of global AIDs infection
A
HIV-1
4
Q
- HIV primarily infect_______cells ?
- It can also infect what other cells ?
A
- CD4 + T cells
- macrophages & DCs
5
Q
When HIV virus replication is detectable in_________, this replication leads to___________
A
lymph node, viremia
6
Q
In HIV,_______is key in virus dissemination to other sites ?
A
Viremia
7
Q
In HIV infection, what leads to slow & progressive loss of T cells ?
A
Low-lv replication in lymphoid tissue
8
Q
How many yrs it takes for HIV to progress to AIDS w/out tx ?
A
8-10 yrs
8
Q
What are the 3 phases of HIV infection ?
A
- Acute
- Chronic
- Final (AIDS)
9
Q
- Which Hepatitis viruses are spread by fecal-oral route ?
- They cause (Acute/Chronic) hepatitis ?
A
- A & E
- Acute
10
Q
Hep B causes (Acute/Chronic) hepatitis ?
A
Chronic
11
Q
What kind of virus is Hep B ?
A
enveloped dsDNA virus
11
Q
Hep B virus has how many known genotypes ?
A
8
12
Q
_________% Hep B carrier die from liver disease ?
A
25-40%
13
Q
Which 2 antivirals can treat Hep B ?
A
Tenofovir & Entecavir
14
Q
What kind of virus is Hep C ?
A
enveloped (+) ssRNA virus
15
Q
Hep C has how many known genotypes ?
A
7
16
Q
Is sexual transmission common w/ Hep B
A
Yes
17
Q
Is sexual transmission common w/ Hep C
A
No
18
Q
Acute Hep C infection is usually (symptomatic/asymptomatic) ?
A
Asymptomatic
19
Q
______% of Hep C infected individuals spontaneously clear the virus ?
A
~30
20
What is the tx option for Hep C
DAAs
21
(Th1/Th2) cells activate macrophages ?
Th1
22
Pathology/Lesion is believed to be happening when (Th1/Th2) is predominant
Th2
23
T/F, Lesion only happens when Th2 is predominant ?
F, Th1 predominant could also lead to lesions
24
Hyper-polarisation of (Th1/Th2) means that you have severe disease ?
Either one
25
What are the 2 mechanisms antibodies use to protect the body from disease ?
Neutralising and binding
25
______is estimated to cause 70% of oropharyngeal cancers ?
HPV
25
Adjuvants can be classified into what types ?
Carrier adjuvants & immunostimulatory aduvants
26
Which type of vaccine has the worst durability of immunity ?
mRNA/DNA vax
26
Th1 cells stimulate (Cellular/Humoral) immune response ?
Cellular
26
Th2 cells stimulate (Cellular/Humoral) immune response ?
Humoral
27
Which type of vaccine can be dangerous to immunosuppressed individuals ?
Live/attenuated or inactive virus vax
28
Which type of vaccine elicit strong CELLULAR response ?
Recombinant virus vax
29
__________is the site where immunity is generated after vax injection ?
Lymph node
30
Humoral immunity invovles (Abs/T cells)
Abs
31
________take up the antigens/adjuvants of Vaccines after injection
Dendritic cells ?
32
What happens next after antigens/adjuvants are taken up after injection ?
They are presented to naive B & T cells by DCs
33
(Halogens/Iodine Compounds) are more irritating
Halogens
34
What chemicals can be used as root canal irrigation agents in dentistry ?
Bisguanides & Halogens (i.e. Sodium Hypochlorite)
35
What drugs should be avoided when taking (Val)ganciclovir ?
Nephrotoxic drugs
36
_______% of chronic hep B lead to liver cirrhosis ?
~30
37
A combination therapy of multiple drugs are used for the tx of Hep____
C
38
__________can indicate a late phase of Chronic Hep B infection ?
HBeAg -ve
39
Can subsequent Hep C infections be determined by antibody test ?
No, Antibody test only shows if an individual has ever been exposed to Hep C
40
Which Hep infection would NOT lead to HCC (Hepatocellular carcinoma)
A,E
41
Vaccine prevention is not available to which Hep infections ?
C, D (Hep B prevention would prevent it), E
42
Which of the following virus does not belong in the herpes family?
Epstein-Barr virus
Kaposi's sarcoma virus
Roseolovirus
Mumps virus
Varicella zoster virus
Mumps virus
43
Which of the following serological markers is indicative of active infection with hepatitis B virus?
Hepatitis B e Antigen
Hepatitis B core Antigen
Hepatitis B surface Antigen
Hepatitis B surface Antibody
Hepatitis B core Antibody
Hepatitis B surface Antigen ?
44
Which of the following infectious agents can induce raised purple lesions at extraoral and intraroral sites in AIDS patients?
Human papilloma virus
Epstein-Barr virus
Kaposi's sarcoma virus
Coxsackie viruses
Varicella zoster virus)
Kaposi's sarcoma virus
45
The hepatitis B viral capsid rapidly dissociates within the cytoplasm to release the viral DNA and DNA polymerase. This process is called __ of the viral replication cycle.
assembly
uncoating
attachment
penetration
release
uncoating
46
Which of the following statements about vaccine formulations is true?
Any virus that people commonly have immunity to can be used as a vector for a recombinant virus vaccine.
Live/attenuated virus vaccines elicit the longest immunity so will be best for everyone.
mRNA vaccines might integrate into the host’s DNA and change their genetic code
Protein sub-unit vaccines will not be very immunogenic without an adjuvant.
Protein sub-unit vaccines sometimes give people a mild dose of the disease.
Protein sub-unit vaccines will not be very immunogenic without an adjuvant.
47
Regarding the clinical expression of leishmaniasis, these statements are correct, except:
The parasite can elicit ulcerated lesions in the face, marginal gingiva, palate, and labial mucosa
IFN-gamma and TNF producing Th1 cells, as well as cytotoxic CD8+ cells lead to tissue destruction
An anergic status of T cells never causes lesions
Numerous Th17 and PMN can lead to exacerbated inflammation
Orofacial lesions contain numerous macrophages
An anergic status of T cells never causes lesions
48
(Val)aciclovir treat what conditions
HSV, VZV
48
In Hep____, symptoms often start late when liver damage has already occured
C
48
(Val)ganciclovir treats what conditions
CMV, HSV, EBV, VZV, Hep B
49
________is an AIDS-defining illness caused by HHV-8 (Human Herpes Virus 8)
Kaposi Sarcoma
50
Which Human papilloma virus subtypes are responsible for most oropharyngeal and cervical cancers
16, 18
51
Hantavirus is transmitted via________
urine
52
Post exposure prophylaxis for hep b should be done within________
24 hrs
53
Post exposure prophylaxis for HIV should be done within_______
72 hours
54
Tx for HIV typically involves combination of what ARVs
2 NRTIs + a third active drug
55
List 5 classes of ARV drugs
NRTI, NNRTI, Viral Protease inhibitor, Fusion inhibitor, Integrase inhibitors, Entry inhibitor
56
In the process of autoclaving:
Dry goods must be autoclaved separately from liquid goods.
All items must be autoclaved separately.
Dry goods must be autoclaved together with liquid goods.
Autoclave tape cannot be used on liquid goods because it will get wet.
Dry goods cannot be autoclaved and must be heat sterilised.
Dry goods must be autoclaved separately from liquid goods.
57
Where does the Epstein Barr virus hide in the body during its dormancy?
Macrophage
Neurons
Endothelial cells
Platelets
B cells
B cells
58
ADCL (Anergic Diffuse Cutaneous Leishmaniasis) is seen when Th____predominant
2
59
MCL (Muco-cutaneous Leishmanisis) is seen when Th____predominant
1
60
(Val)aciclovir dosage:
- Tx =____________
- Prophylaxis =_____________
- Oral 400-800mg or IV 5-10mg/kg every 8hr for 5-14 days
- Oral 400mg, twice daily
61
(Val)ganciclovir dosage:
- Tx =____________
- Prophylaxis =_____________
- Oral 900mg or IV 5mg/kg TWICE daily for 14-21 days
- Oral 900mg or IV 5mg/kg ONCES daily
62
Hep B symptoms starts_______after catching
2-3 m.o.
63
What is the diagnosis for CMV ?
Blood test
64
What is the diagnosis for HSV ?
PCR, sample taken from the sore
65
What is the diagnosis for Hep B ?
blood test (antibodies, antigens), PCR, contact with Hep B+
66
What is the diagnosis for Hep C ?
2 blood tests (Antibody, RNA)
67
What is diagnosis for HIV ?
Screening test (high sensitivity): Blood test (antibodies, antigens), ELISA
Confirmatory test (high specificity): Western-blot, second rapid test, supplementary tests (HIV-2 diff., Ag p24, direct detection), PCR
68
What is the fxn of protease of HIV virus ?
New virus formation
69
Rilpivirine should NOT be used when
CD4 cell counts < 200/mm3,
HIV RNA > 100 000 copies/mL
70
Abacavir should NOT be used when
HLA-B*5701 positve/unknown
71
- Post exposure prophylaxis for HIV lasts_____days
- It is usually done by a combination of______drugs
- 28
- 2 to 3 ARV drugs
72
- In Leishmaniasis: IFN-gamma, TNF producing Th1 cells & CD8+ cells can lead to________
- (Th1/Th2) predominates MCL
- tissue destruction
- Th1
73
- In leishmaniasis, numerous Th17 & PWN lead to________
exacerbated inflammation
74
(monocytes/neutrophils) are more effective @ killing Leishmania parasites
monocytes
75
Is vaccine available for HPV
Yes
76
- What is the tx for syphilis
- What is the diagnosis for syphilis
- Penicillin
- PCR, dark field microscopy
77
What is the incubation period of syphilis ?
9-90 days
78
Is chancre painful or painless ?
painless usually
79
- What are the sites for chlamydia ?
- What is the clin. feature ?
- Male urethra, cervix, anal, throat
- Discharge
80
- What is the diagnosis for chlamydia ?
- What is the tx ?
- PCR
- Doxycycline 100mg for 7 days OR Azithromycin 1g single dose
81
- What are the sites for gonorrhoea ?
- What is the clin. feature ?
- Male urethra, cervix, anal canal, throat
- Discharge, sore throat
82
- What is the diagnosis for gonorrhoea ?
- What is the tx ?
- PCR, gramstain & culture
- Ceftriaxone 500mg + Azithrymycin 1g (2g for pharyngeal infections)
83
Anogenital carcinoma is commonly caused by________
HPV 16, 18
84
Which antiseptics work on cell wall ?
Bisguanides (chlorhexidine)
85
Which antiseptics work on cell membrane ?
Phenols, Alcohols, QACS
86
Which antiseptics work on cytoplasm and cause DNA damage ?
Peroxygens, Halogens, Metals
87
- List an example of Bisphenols antiseptic
- List 2 examples of phenolic compounds
- Triclosan
- Thymol, Chlorocresol
88
What are QACs used for ?
Antiseptics, food processing, preservative (eyedrops), mouthwashes (inactivate virus)
89
Sodium hypochlorite belongs to which group of antiseptics
Halogens
90
What do vaccine trails test for
- Phase 1____
- Phase 2____
- Phase 3____
- Phase 4____
- Safety (dose range, side effects)
- Immunogenicity (no. of doses, side effects)
- Efficacy (protection, rare side effects)
- Safety Monitoring, (post-market surveillance, rare side effects)
91
Pre-clin. trai;s of vaccine take place in__________
animal & human tissue models
DMD 1
flashcards
Decks in class (27)
# Cards
-
Tooth Morph56
-
Module 1117
-
Module 2142
-
Module 3141
-
Cariology165
-
Module 4123
-
Module 5136
-
Module 6152
-
Perio43
-
Module 7140
-
Module 8102
-
Nutrition75
-
Prosthodontics100
-
Module 9105
-
Anatomy123
-
Module 10128
-
Module 1199
-
Module 12122
-
Tooth morph sem 210
-
Module 1366
-
Nutrition Sem 229
-
Perio114
-
Tooth con theory59
-
Module 14119
-
Module 15105
-
Radiology13
-
Module 1622
