Module 14 Flashcards

(119 cards)

1
Q

T/F, blood is a connective tissue

A

T

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2
Q

plasma makes up______% of blood volume and red blood cell makes up______% of blood volume

A

58, 42

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3
Q

The largest protein component of blood is__________, which contributes ~____% of all blood protein

A

albumin, 55-60

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4
Q

Proteins in blood are mostly made up which organ ?

A

Liver

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5
Q
  • Haematopoiesis means_____________
  • It occurs in________
A
  • pdtion of blood
  • bone marrow
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6
Q

Haemostasis is the process to_____________

A

stop bleeding when injury occurs to blood vessel

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7
Q

(Haemophilia A/B) is more common and contribute to_______% of cases

A

Haemophilia A, 80-85

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8
Q

Fibrin is broken down by which enzyme during clot dissolution

A

Plasmin

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9
Q

Blood is a connective tissue made up of cellular elements suspended in an_______________called plasma

A

Extracellular Fluid matrix

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10
Q

T/F, plasma act as a buffer between cell and external enviorn.

A

T

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11
Q

A 70kh person has ~5L of blood. ___L of which are cells & ___L of which are plasma

A

2, 3

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12
Q

Is protein considered a major component of blood ?

A

Yes

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13
Q

The blood is____% water &______% protein

A

92, 7

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14
Q

____________create high osmotic pressure, which is important for fluid mvmt out of tissues to counter fluid mvmt into tissues by blood pressure

A

Albumins

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15
Q
  • Does RBC has nucleus
  • Does EBC has organelles
A
  • No
  • No
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16
Q
  • Does platelets have nucleus
  • Does platelets have organelles
A
  • No
  • Yes (mitochondria, smooth ER, vesicles)
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17
Q

A RBC normally lives in the blood for______months

A

4

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18
Q

Main component of RBC is__________

A

haemoglobin

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19
Q

What are the 3 subtypes of lymphocytes

A

B, T, NK cells

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20
Q

Monocytes have (high/low) abundance and (long/short) life spans

A

low, long

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21
Q

Neutrophils have (high/low) abundance and (long/short) lifespan

A

high, short

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22
Q

__________is the most abundant out of the 5 WBC

A

Neutrophils

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23
Q

Which WBC can release pyogens to cause fever

A

neutrophils

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24
Q

The lifespan of platelets in blood is about________days

A

7-10

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25
Erythropoiesis (pdtion of RBC) is controlled by which glycoprotein
EPO (erythropoietin)
26
EPO (erythropoietin) is produced in which organ
kidney
27
What are the 3 steps of haemostasis
(Primary haemostasis) 1. Vasoconstriction 2. Formation of Platelet Plug (Secondary haemostasis) 3. Coagulation
28
Exposed_______binds & activates platelets
Collagen
29
Coagulation is the result of conversion of fibrinogen into_______
fibrin
30
- What are the 3 coagulation pathways
- Extrinsic, intrinsic, common
31
Which factor is affected in Haemophilia A
III
32
Which factor is affected in Haemophilia B
IX
33
- What are the symptoms of Haemophilia A - What are the symptoms of Haemophilia B
- Bleeding, unstable clots - Bleeding
34
In clot dissolution, plasminogen is converted to Plasmin by________
tPA
35
The structural component of blood vessel endothelium
Heparan Sulfate (A glycocalyx)
36
Thrombosis is the_________formation of blood clots
pathological (uncontrolled or excessive)
37
Embolism are blood clots that___________________
break off & lodge downwards & results in further problems
38
(Arterial/Venous) embolism can cause a stroke
Arterial
39
Arterial thrombosis is also known as (white/red) clot
white
40
Venous thrombosis is also known as (white/red) clot
red
41
Give an example of vitamin K antagonist anticoagulant
Warfarin
42
Dabigatran is a_____________inhibitor
Direct thrombin
43
Patients need to stop taking warfarin________days before a procedure
5
44
Patients need to stop taking NOAC_________hours before procedure
24-72
45
Patients need to stop taking antiplatelets_________days before procedure
5-7
46
When is tranexanic acid 4.8% mouthwash used
- Apply topically just b4 surgery - Home use for 2 days after procedure
47
- Tranexamic acid 4.8% mouthwash is an anti________agent - Its fxn is to stabilize_________
- Antifibrinolytic - blood clot
48
Where does B cell mature
bone marrow
49
What does megakaryocyte produce
Platelet (thrombocyte)
50
Which part of lymph node contains predominantly T cells
Cortical region
51
What does megakaryocyte produce
Platelet (thrombocyte)
52
Most of the lymphoma are of (B/T) cell
B
53
Mycosis fungoides is a type of____________lymphoma
cutaneous T cell
54
T/F, cancer including leukemia & lymphoma is a clonal disorder
T
55
(Kappa/Lambda) lightchain is likely malignancy & is resistant to apoptosis
Lambda
56
Indolent has a median survival of______years
8
57
Aggressive/highly aggressive lymphoma has a mortality rate of_______% in 2 years
50
58
Bone pain is a symptom of (Acute/Chronic) Leukemia
Acute
59
Acute Leukemia is a clonal disorder arise from hematopoietic progenitors, it usually dvlp at either which 2 pathways
lymphoid, myeloid
60
Acute leukemia is characterized by the accumulation of____________cells
immature blastic
61
More blast cell will be seen in (Acute/Chronic) leukemia
Acute
62
Chronic leukemia results from____________transformation of haematopoietic stem cell
neoplastic
63
Acute Myeloblastic Leukemia: - Neutrophils count (higher/lower/normal) - Platelets count (higher/lower/normal)
- lower - lower
64
Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia: - Neutrophils count (higher/lower/normal) - Platelets count (higher/lower/normal)
- normal ? - lower
65
Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia can be caused by_________gene mutation
somatic
66
Anaemia is a symptom of (acute/chronic) leukemia
both
67
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia can be caused by an inc. in which anti-apoptosis protein ?
bcl-2
68
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia can be caused by gene mutation in which 2 tumor suppressor
ATM & p53
69
Blood monoclonal B-lymphocyte population of >_______ persisting at least 4 weeks will lead to the diagnosis of Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia
5 X 10^9
70
Imatinib can be a tx option for which kind of leukemia
Chronic Myeloid Leukemia
71
________mutant is not responsive to either dasatinib or nilotinib
T315I
72
What is the most common cancer in kidney & liver transplantation due to long term immunosuppressive regimens following transplant
Skin
73
(B/T) cells are central to the process of transplantation rejection thru__________recognition of foreign antigens
T, allorecognition
74
What are the 3 types of T cell activation signals
1. Antigen specific 2. Antigen non specific 3. Cytokine stimulation
75
- Chronic Myeloid Leukemia can be caused by translocation of chromosomal material between chromosomes_____&_____ - This translocation results in the formation of a new hybrid gene known as_________
- 9, 12 - BCR-ABL
76
A 46 year old female presents to the clinic for wisdom tooth removal. She had stroke 2 years ago and currently under apixaban treatment. What is Apixaban? Factor X inhibitor von Willebrand Factor inhibitor Vitamin K agonist Activated Factor X inhibitor Vitamin K antagonist
Activated Factor X inhibitor
77
All of the following statements concerning haemophilia are true, EXCEPT? Prone to have an excessive bleeding from minor cuts The majority of people afflicted with haemophilia have Type A and are under the age of 25 Bleeding time is abnormally prolonged Haemophilia A and B are inherited as a sex-linked recessive trait by which males are affected and females are carriers Chronic complications include impaired renal function and osteoarthritis
Bleeding time is abnormally prolonged
78
A 28 years old female patient presented in the dental clinic with generalised diffused haemorrhagic enlargement of the gingiva. The patient was pale. On examination, the patient had mucosal pallor and multiple petechiae on the palate. Significant splenic enlargement was also noticed. The patient disclosed persistent low grade fever for 1 months and experienced pain in the right hip for 2 months. Which of the following diagnoses is the MOST LIKELY? Nifedipine induced gingival overgrowth Linear gingival erythema Acute myeloid leukaemia von Willebrand's disease Plaque induced gingivitis
Acute myeloid leukaemia
79
What is the primary role of thrombin? Activating platelet receptor VI Converting fibrinogen to fibrin Activating tissue factor Activating neutrophils Converting FXII to FXIIa
Converting fibrinogen to fibrin
80
Which of the following anticoagulants is impacted by Vitamin K intake? Fondaparinux Dabigatran Apixaban Warfarin Rivaroxaban
Warfarin
81
Platelet adhesion to collagen requires the presence of adequate functional Fibrin and plasminogen Thrombin and plasmin von Willebrand factor and glycoprotein Ib Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa and ADP Fibrinogen and thrombin
von Willebrand factor and glycoprotein Ib
82
Erythrocytes are not fully functional cells and contain no nucleus. How can they still perform their function of transporting gasses round the body? They contain mitochondria to store energy and transport gases They have thin membranes and flexible cytoskeletons They express a large number of receptors on their surface They have a life span of 1-2 days so do not need a nucleus as turnover is high They migrate by exposure to cytokine gradients
They have thin membranes and flexible cytoskeletons
83
What triggers EPO release ?
Hypoxia
84
What is the rate limiting step of erythropoiesis
Enucleation: nucleus pinch off & phagocytosed by bone marrow macrophages
85
Nucleus shrink from 20um to_____um in erythropoiesis
7um
86
Growth & maturation of megakaryocytes are regulated by_______
TPO
87
Haematopoesis occur in ALL bones in the body until what age
5
88
von Willebrand factor is activated by________
high shear
89
What does Aspirin block ?
COX 1
90
Warfarin blocks vitamin____
K
91
What factors does warfarin inhibt
2, 7a, 9, 10
92
What factors does direct oral coagulants inhibit
2a, 10a
93
Which 2 anticoagulants are injected
heparin, fondaparinux
94
Which 3 anticoagulants inhibit factor 10a
Apixaban, Rivaroxaban, Fondaparinux
95
What factors does heparin inhibit
2a, 10a
96
T/F, aspirin is antiplatelet
T
97
Which of the following is the most likely cause of an anaemia with a normal mean cell volume and inappropriately low reticulocyte count? Blood loss Pernicious anaemia Iron deficiency Chronic renal failure Haemolytic anaemia
Chronic renal failure
98
Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells which can be found during the erythropoiesis procedure. Which of the following function can still be found in the reticulocyte? RNA synthesis DNA synthesis Mitosis Protein synthesis Meiosis
Protein synthesis
99
Which of the following statements is most correct with regards to neutrophils? They have a large single nucleus They release histamine and have a long life span They are associated with allergic reactions They are granulocytes that can phagocytose pathogens They are precursors to macrophages
They are granulocytes that can phagocytose pathogens
100
The dentist extracts the remaining teeth for the patient. The following measures could be considered to apply in order to control and prevent bleeding, EXCEPT: Extraction site packing with gelatin sponges Cepacaine (containing benzocaine) mouth rinse Biting on gauze Tranexamic acid mouth rinse Additional suturing
Cepacaine (containing benzocaine) mouth rinse
101
What is the first response of human body to raptured blood vessels? Vasodilation Platelet degranulation Intransic coagulation cascade activation Extrinsic coagulation cascade activation Vascular spasm
Vascular spasm
102
Which of the following initiates the coagulation cascade when you rupture a blood vessel? Tissue factor Prekallikrein Plasmin Factor XII Thrombin
Tissue factor
103
Which combination of factors results in the formation of a white thrombus? Platelet aggregation under low blood flow conditions Platelet aggregation under elevated shear blood flow conditions Leukocyte aggregation under low blood flow conditions Coagulation under low blood flow conditions Coagulation under elevated shear blood flow conditions
Platelet aggregation under low blood flow conditions
104
Which of the following statements best describes the mechanism of action of clopidogrel in platelet inhibition? Clopidogrel directly inhibits thrombin, preventing fibrin formation Clopidogrel inhibits the P2Y12 receptor, decreasing ADP-mediated platelet aggregation Clopidogrel inhibits cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1) to reduce thromboxane A2 production Clopidogrel acts as a vitamin K antagonist, decreasing the synthesis of clotting factors Clopidogrel inhibits the tissue factor pathway, blocking the initiation of coagulation
Clopidogrel inhibits the P2Y12 receptor, decreasing ADP-mediated platelet aggregation
105
Which immunosuppressive drug deplete B cells
rituximab
106
Which immunosuppressive drug inhibits TNF
ethanercept
107
Which immunosuppressive drug inhibits IL-6
tocilizumon
108
Which immunosuppressive drug inhibits B-cell-T-cell interaction
alemtuzumab
109
CD4+CD25+Foxp3+ develope in__________
thymus
110
A 69-year old lady visited the oral health clinic with the medical history of anaemia. She brought the medical examination results with her. Which of the following laboratory finding is associated with her anaemic condition? High white blood cells count Low Vit K level Shorten thrombin time Low Cobalamin level Increased bleeding time
Low Cobalamin level
111
Which of the following statements is the most correct about the bone marrow? Platelets bud off from monocytes into the blood vessels in the bone marrow It is the major site for RBC, WBC and platelet production in adults Only long bones are sites for haematopoiesis in the embryo It is a major source of immunoglobulins It contains coagulation factors that regulate haematopoiesis
It is the major site for RBC, WBC and platelet production in adults
112
There are several therapeutic strategies to prolong allograft survival or induce the tolerance of allografts, which strategy most likely involves central and peripheral deletional mechanisms as well as Treg regulation. Bone marrow cell transplantation for induction of kidney graft tolerance. Using IL-2/anti-IL-2 antibody complexes to induce Foxp3+ Tregs expansion and prolong allograft survival. Depletion of alloreactive T cells Blockades of the CD40-CD40L co-stimulatory pathway by anti-CD154 mAb to induce donor graft tolerance. Using CTLA-4 Ig/Fc to block the B7-CD28 co-stimulatory pathway for induction donor graft tolerance.
Bone marrow cell transplantation for induction of kidney graft tolerance.
113
What is the median age of onset of chronic lymphocytic leukemia
65
114
Which statement is correct with regards to the similarities/differences between haemostasis and thrombosis? vWF binding to platelets under high flow occurs in both haemostasis and thrombosis Only haemostasis occurs in response to stenosed vessels Fibrinogen allowing platelet-platelet aggregation can occur in both thrombosis and haemostasis Haemostasis and thrombosis both occur under high shear blood flow conditions Only thrombosis occurs in veins
Fibrinogen allowing platelet-platelet aggregation can occur in both thrombosis and haemostasis
115
Which of the following ions is involved in coagulation of blood? Fe3+ Fe2+ Ca2+ Na+ K+
Ca2+
116
If a patient has diarrhea, fluid loss would alter the relative amount of one of the cellular blood components. What resulting aspect of the blood would change and how? Haematocrit would increase Albumin would decrease Haematorcrit would decrease White blood cells would increase Buffy coat would increase
Haematocrit would increase
117
A 75-year old patient presents with multiple ecchymosis. He has had a joint infection two months ago and has been on broad spectrum antibiotics for 4 weeks. He lost his appetite recently and has poor nutrition diet. On investigation, his platelet count is normal, INR is prolonged, aPTT is prolonged. The MOST LIKELY diagnosis is Vitamin K deficiency Acute leukaemia Thrombocytopenia Haemophilia A Pernicious anaemia
Vitamin K deficiency
118
What would be elevated in the blood if a person had an allergic reaction? Basophils and eosinophils All granulocytes Monocytes and neutrophils Macrophages and moncytes B and T lymphocytes
Basophils and eosinophils
119
The T cell receptor (TCR) is a clonotypic antigen-specific receptor, that is critical to adaptive immune response, which of the following statement is generally considered as the most correct description? T cell activation only requires TCR recognises MHC-allo-peptide complex or allo MHC. TCR diversity is only due to V region diverse. TCR diversity is seen predominantly in the CDR3 region. TCR chain is diversity, but not TCR chain. All T cells in peripheral blood express the TCR complex.
TCR diversity is seen predominantly in the CDR3 region.