1
Q
A
Hairy Tongue
2
Q
Histopathologic feature of HPV
A
Koilocytes
3
Q
Primary, secondary, and tertiary syphilis lesions
A
primary: Chancre
secondary: maculopapular rash
tertiary: gumma
4
Q
HHV-3, 4, and 8
A
3 - Varicella Zoster Virus
4 - Epstein-Barr Virus
8 - Causes Kaposi Sarcoma
5
Q
Lesions associated with ____ do not cross the midline.
A
HHV-3 VZV
6
Q
HHV-3 lies dormant in the _____
A
geniculate ganglion
7
Q
When HHV-4 (EBV) is associated with HIV, it can cause _______
A
oral hairy leukoplakia
This lesion does not rub off
8
Q
A
Kaposi Sarcoma
9
Q
Benign skin warts on the hands and fingers associated with HPV
A
Verruca Vulgaris
10
Q
A
Condyloma Acuminatum
11
Q
Syphilis is caused by
A
the bacterium Treponema pallidum
12
Q
Can pseudomembranous candidiasis be wiped off?
A
yes
13
Q
A
14
Q
A
Lichen planus
15
Q
Lichen planus is a ______ mediated inflammatory disease
A
T-cell
16
Q
3 things associated with lichen planus
A
Wickham’s striae
desquamative gingivitis
civatte bodies
17
Q
Where are canker sores located?
A
Non-keratinized mucosal surfaces on the inner cheek, lips, tongue, or floor of the mouth
18
Q
Lichenoid reactions are associated with which condition?
A
Graft-versus-host disease
a common, sometimes severe complication of allogeneic stem cell transplants where donor immune cells (the graft) attack the recipient’s body (the host)
19
Q
SLE is a type ___ hypersensitivity reaction
A
3
20
Q
Erythema Multiforme is a type ___ hypersensitivity reaction
A
4
21
Q
Pemphigus Vulgaris is a/an _____ disease that targets ______
A
autoimmune
desmosomes
22
Q
Pemphigus Vulgaris presents with a _____ Nikolsky sign
A
Positive
23
Q
Histopathological sign of Pemphigus Vulgaris
A
Tzanck cells (acantholytic epithelial cells)
24
Q
______ confirms the presence of circulating autoantibodies in Pemphigus Vulgaris
A
Indirect immunofluoroescence
25
Pemphigus Vulgaris
26
Mucous Membrane Pemphigoid is a/an _____ disease that targets ______
autoimmune
hemidesmosomes
27
Mucous Membrane Pemphigoid presents with a _____ Nikolsky sign
Positive
28
_____ confirms sub-epithelial clefting in Mucous Membrane Pemphigoid
direct immunofluoroescence
29
Which condition is associated with chronic, painful ulcers with conjunctival involvement which can lead to blindness?
Mucous Membrane Pemphigoid
30
Mucous Membrane Pemphigoid presents with histopathological subepithelial clefting and deposition of complement and Ig___ in the _____
IgG
basement membrane
31
Most common premalignant lesion
Leukoplakia
32
Does leukoplakia wipe off?
No
33
Highest risk site of leukoplakia
floor of the mouth
34
A ______ should be performed to diagnose leukoplakia for malignancy
incisional biopsy
35
Most common oral malignancy
SCC
36
SCC originates in the _____ layer of the epithelium
stratum spinosum
37
SCC is characterized histopathologically by _______
dysplastic squamous epithelium
38
SCC
39
Verrucous carcinoma
40
The primary etiology of Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is linked to infection with _________
Epstein-Barr virus
41
a neoplasm of smooth muscle cells
Leiomyoma
42
neoplasm of ____ cells that can occur on the ____ and ____
fat
buccal mucosa
tongue
43
desquamative gingivitis is associated with which 2 conditions?
MMP and PV
44
Diagnosis method for MMP and PV
Incisional or perilesional biopsy
45
_____ is a neoplasm of skeletal muscle cells and can occur on ____ and ____
rhabdomyoma
floor of the mouth
tongue
46
Pyogenic granuloma
47
Another name for Pyogenic granuloma
pregnancy tumor
48
_____ appears as a painless, firm, pink or red swelling on the anterior maxillary gingiva in adolescents and adults. Histology reveals _________
Peripheral ossifying fibroma
dystrophic calcifications
49
Appears as a firm, painless, red or bluish-purple nodule. Histology reveals _____
Peripheral Giant Cell Granuloma
multinucleated giant cells
50
Manifests as an enlarged tongue seen in patients with ______
Amyloidosis (accumulation of amyloid proteins in various tissues and organs)
multiple myeloma
51
a solitary, smooth, painless, firm nodule that is usually white or pink. Histology reveals more ____ and lacks a ____
Granular cell tumor
granular cytoplasm
capsule
52
smooth, firm, painless mass commonly located on the ______. Histology reveals ________
Schwannoma
anterior dorsal tongue
Antoni A and B areas with Verocay bodies
53
Granular cell tumors and schwannomas are commonly located on the __________
anterior dorsal tongue
54
Sialadenitis is a _____ infection of the salivary gland, often resulting from trauma to the ___________ or from obstruction of the salivary duct or gland
Bacterial
anterior cervical triangle
55
Most common benign tumor of the salivary gland
Pleomorphic adenoma
56
____ is a non-neoplastic fluid filled cavity that is often due to ____. Scallops between roots of teeth and no root resorption or cortical expansion
Traumatic bone cyst
trauma
57
OKC's are a hallmark feature of ______, AKA ______
Basal cell nevus syndrome
Gorlin syndrome
58
Gorlin syndrome is a/an ______ genetic condition
autosomal dominant
59
Common presentations of Gorlin Syndrome
Falx cerebri
bifid ribs
basal cell carcinoma
60
______ is a benign, jaw-derived cyst that arises from _____
OKC
epithelial cell rests
61
What is this and what is it associated with? What is it lined by?
Radicular (periapical) cyst
non-vital teeth
stratified squamous epithelium
62
Most common odontogenic cyst
Radicular (periapical) cyst
63
A ______ is a localized mass of chronic ______ tissue found at the apex of a _______ tooth
Periapical granuloma
inflammatory
non-vital
64
One major difference between a radicular cyst and a periapical granuloma
P.G's don't have an epithelial lining unlike radicular cysts
65
Fistulas are often associated with ____
pulp necrosis
66
Contain small tooth-like structures
Compound odontoma
67
Contains dental tissues in a disorganized, amorphous mass with no resemblance to teeth
Complex odontoma
68
Both types of odontoma are considered _____
hamartomas
69
_____ is a growth of normal tissue found in the wrong place
choristoma
Like those weird "choirs" that pop-up during the holidays in places they shouldn't be singing
70
a focal malformation composed of normal tissues that are native to the site but grows in a disorganized manner
hamartoma
the tissues scream "hammer time" and start dancing chaotically
71
Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia (PCOD) most commonly occurs in ______ (patients) in ______ (location)
African American females
mandibular incisor region
72
Mixed radiopaque and radiolucent lesions commonly occurring in black females and are associated with _____ (vital/non-vital) teeth
Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia (PCOD)
vital teeth
73
Florid cemento-osseous dysplasia
This is a "widespread" (AKA florid) version of PCOD
74
_____ is a ______ (genetic) disorder characterized by the replacement of normal bone with abnormal tissue. Histology reveals_______
Cherubism
autosomal dominant
multinucleated giant cells
75
Central giant cell granulomas primarily affect which demographic
females under 30 years old
76
Important characteristic about diagnosis of a stafne bone defect
It is not encapsulated
77
_____ is associated with _____ (vital/non-vital) teeth
Lateral periodontal cyst
vital teeth
78
radiopaque (normal) anatomical structure located between 8 and 9
anterior nasal spine
79
Appears as a poorly demarcated radiopaque and radiolucent lesion due to simultaneous bone destruction and new bone formation
Osteomyelitis
Caused by inflammation of the bone cortex and marrow in response to chronic infection
80
__________ is a skeletal disorder that causes excessive bone remodeling. When it affects the jawbone, it is a common cause of ______. It causes an increased risk of which condition?
Paget's disease
ill-fitting dentures
osteosarcoma
81
Gardner syndrome is a/an _____ (genetic) syndrome associated with various non-cancerous growths in multiple body structures.
4 things/conditions it is linked to
autosomal dominant
Colorectal polyps
supernumerary or impacted teeth
compound and complex odontomas
Multiple benign osteomas in the jaw and skull
82
malignant bone cancer with "onion skin" appearance
Ewing sarcoma
83
Most common cancer to metastasize to the jaw
Breast cancer
followed by lung, kidney, and prostate cancers
84
Gingival cyst located at the junction of hard palate and soft palate
Bohn's nodules
85
Gingival cyst located at the midline of the palate
Epstein's Pearls
86
A dentigerous cyst can transform into a/an _______
ameloblastoma
87
_____ is a benign cyst in gnathic bones that involves ____ cells or empty spaces of calcified ____, creating radiopaque lesions
Calcifying odontogenic cyst (AKA Gorlin cyst)
ghost
keratin
***Gorlin sounds like "ghoul" as in ghost....ghost cells = ghoul = Gorlin cyst***
88
____ is a tumor with thin corrugated parakeratinized epithelium and is associated with which condition?
Keratocystic Odontigenic Tumor...AKA Odontigenic Keratocyst
Gorlin Syndrome, AKA nevoid basal cell carcinoma
89
_____ is formed in place of a missing tooth and is most commonly found in the _____ region
Primordial cyst
mandibular third molar
90
Tumor contains epithelial duct-like spaces and enameloid material.
Most commonly found in ______ affecting ______ teeth
Adenomatoid Odontogenic Tumor (AOT)
anterior maxilla
impacted
91
____ is a _____ (benign/malignant) tumor that behaves aggressively by eroding through tooth roots and cortical plate. Presents with a _____ appearance and can form from ____
Ameloblastoma
benign
soap bubble
dentigerous cysts
92
Rare benign mixed epithelial and mesenchymal tumor often occurring in adolescence
Ameloblastic Fibroma
93
______ AKA _____, is characterized histologically by Liesegang rings or amorphous pink amyloid proteins with concentric calcifications. Radiolucency with ____ or ____ presentation
Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor (CEOT)
Pindborg tumor
Driven snow or white flecks
94
____ is a _____ (benign/malignant) neoplasm. Root of tooth affected replaced by ball of cementum and cementoblasts
Cementoblastoma
benign
95
presents with a myxomatous connective tissue with slimy stroma. Irregular radiolucency with a honeycomb pattern and unclear borders
Odontogenic Myxoma
96
____ is characterized by a ground glass appearance and is associated with what condition?
Fibrous Dysplasia
McCune-Albright Syndrome
97
Benign blood-filled pseudocyst that expands
Aneurysmal Bone Cyst
98
Difference between central and peripheral giant cell granuloma
Peripheral - occurs in gums, presents as red/purple gingival mass
Central - occurs in the bone with radiolucency having thin wispy
septations
99
Osteolytic neoplasm composed of fibroblasts and multinucleated giant cells
Central Giant Cell Granuloma (CGCG)
100
McCune-Albright Syndrome is characterized by these 3 things
polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
cafe au lait spots,
endocrine abnormalities
101
Idiopathic histiocytosis due to abnormal buildup of ____ cells. Discrete scooped out radiolucencies with appearance of floating teeth + skin rash
Langerhans cell disease
Langerhans
102
_____ results in increased osteoclast activity and elevated alkaline phosphatase levels. This lesion is known as ____
Hyperparathyroidism
Brown Tumor
103
Radiographic cotton wool appearance. Progressive metabolic disturbance of bones resulting in symmetrical enlargement
Paget's Disease
104
Infection in bone due to odontogenic infection and trauma
Acute Osteomyelitis
105
Low grade inflammation causing periapical lesion. Typically due to _____ and associated with _____ (vital/non-vital) teeth
Focal Sclerosing Osteomyelitis
(Condensing Osteitis)
chronic pulpitis
non-vital
106
Larger scale version of condensing osteitis. May lead to jaw fracture and osteomyelitis
Diffuse Sclerosing Osteomyelitis (Condensing Osteitis)
107
Sarcoma of jaws when tumor cells produce new cartilage. Characteristic radiographic _____ appearance
Chondrosarcoma
sunburst
108
Ewing’s Sarcoma most commonly affects which demographic
children
109
Sarcoma of jaws when tumor cells produce new bone. New bone deposition presents ____ pattern radiopacity. Patients with ____ have an increased risk of developing this
Osteosarcoma
sunburst
Paget's Disease
110
____ is a characteristic feature of____
Melanotic macule
Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome
111
Increased mucosal tissue pigmentation due to irritation from tobacco smoke
Smoking-associated melanosis
112
White sloughing appearance on mucosal membranes. Condition name and common causes of it
Chemical burn
Common causal compounds: aspirin, hydrogen peroxide, silver nitrate, and phenol
113
Papilloma caused by HPV 13 and 32. Presents as multiple small dome-shaped warts on oral mucosa
Focal epithelial hyperplasia
(Heck’s disease)
114
Papilloma due to HPV infection (most commonly HPV 6 and 11), typically from oral sex with someone with genital warts
Condyloma acuminatum
115
Benign noncancerous exophytic growths caused by several strains of HPV. Either are pedunculate (ballooning) or sessile (mound shaped) proliferation on skin or mucosa
Papilloma
116
Triggered by Epstein Barr Virus. White hairy-appearing patches on tongue that ___ (do/do not) wipe off
Oral Hairy Leukoplakia
Does NOT wipe off
117
herpes zoster reactivation in geniculate ganglion affecting CN VII and CN VIII leading to facial paralysis, vertigo and deafness
Ramsay Hunt Syndrome
118
Most common characteristic is sulfur granules in purulent exudate. Infection caused by ____
Actinomycosis
Actinomyces israelii
119
Gonorrhea
120
White-coated strawberry tongue with inflamed red fungiform papillae. Name and cause
Scarlet fever
Group A. Strep.
121
Name and cause
Syphilis
Treponema pallidum
122
Congenital Syphilis is characterized by _______
notched incisors
mulberry molars
deafness
ocular keratitis
123
Name and cause
Tuberculosis
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
124
This is ____, AKA ____. Does it wipe off?
Candidiasis
thrush
yes
125
loss of lingual papillae on tongue associated with candida
Median rhomboid glossitis
126
____ is a skin or oral mucosa inflammatory condition caused by ______ destroying _______. Can it be wiped off?
Lichen planus
T lymphocytes
basal keratinocytes
No
127
______ has 2 forms: _____ and _____. Histology reveals ______.
Lichen planus
Reticular: Wickham striae (lacy ribbon white stripes)
Erosive: Wickham striae and red ulceration
sawtooth rete pegs
128
____ displays a characteristic butterfly rash and has 2 forms: ____ and ____
Lupus Erythematosus
Systemic acute: Type III hypersensitivity reaction involving multiple organs, characteristic Malar rash, ANA test detects autoantibodies
Discoid chronic: Disc-shaped lesions on face, erosive lichen planus-like oral lesions
129
bulls-eye target lesions, hemorrhagic crusting of lips. It is related to ________
Erythema multiforme
drug sensitivity aka Stevens Johnson Syndrome
130
Major differences and similarities between MMP and PV
MMP: basement membrane / hemidesmosomes
PV: intercellular / desmosomes
Gingival desquamation: both
Positive Nikolsky's sign: both
Fluid filled blisters or bullae: both
Palate & tongue: usually PV
Gums: usually MMP
Scarring: Usually only MMP
IgG: both
131
hardening of skin and connective tissue
Scleroderma
132
Allergic reaction to inhaled antigens
Characteristic strawberry gingivitis
Wegner's Granulomatosis
133
Clinical descriptor, but not a diagnosis
Almost all are histologically diagnosed as significant
______ or ______
Erythroplakia
epithelial dysplasia
carcinoma
134
Inflammation of lip due to prolonged sun exposure primarily by UVB rays
Actinic Cheilitis
135
_____ is a white patch in oral cavity that ____ (does/does not) wipe/rub off
Leukoplakia
DOES NOT rub off
136
Name?
Does it rub off?
Associated with ___ and ___
High risk of malignant transformation to ____ or ___
Proliferative Verrucous Leukoplakia
Does not rub off
HPV-16 and 18
verrucous carcinoma or squamous cell carcinoma
137
Due to prolonged smokeless tobacco use
Smokeless Tobacco Keratosis
138
Malignancy of melanocytes
Oral Melanoma
139
Caused by chewing tobacco and HPV 16 and 18
Slow growth, warty and pebbly appearance
Variant of OSCC
Oral Verrucous Carcinoma
140
Exophytic or ulcerated erythroplakia or leukoplakia growth between ventral or
lateral tongue, or floor of mouth
Associated with alcohol and/or tobacco use
HPV 16 and 18 are associated risk factors
Oral Squamous Cell
Carcinoma (OSCC)
141
Plummer Vinson Syndrome is a risk factor for ___ with characteristics of ___, ___, and ___
OSCC
mucosal atrophy
dysphasia
iron deficiency anemia
142
Malignant proliferation of skeletal muscle cells
Rhabdomyosarcoma
143
Malignant proliferation of fat cells
Liposarcoma
144
Malignant proliferation of smooth muscle cells
Leiomyosarcoma
145
Malignant proliferation of Schwann cells
Neurofibrosarcoma
Also known as Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor
146
Malignant proliferation of fibroblasts
Fibrosarcoma
147
Benign Neoplasm of myofibroblasts
Nodular Fasciitis
148
Benign Neoplasm of fibroblasts
Fibromatosis
149
Benign Neoplasm of Schwann cells and fibroblasts
Neurofibroma
150
Benign Neoplasm of fat cells, seen commonly on buccal mucosa
Lipoma
151
Benign Neoplasm of skeletal muscle cells
Rhabdomyoma
152
Benign Neoplasm of smooth muscle cells
Leiomyoma
153
Commonly found in patients with elevated hormones (ie. puberty or pregnancy)
Pyogenic Granuloma
154
Resembles a fibrous form of pyogenic granuloma
Peripheral Ossifying Fibroma
155
Due to poorly fitting denture
Denture-induced Fibrous Hyperplasia (Epulis
Fissuratum)
156
Reed-Sternberg Cells
Hodgkin's Lymphoma
157
Microscopic starry sky pattern
Non-Hodgkin / Burkitt Lymphoma
158
Group of bone marrow cell malignancies
Leukemia
159
Most common leukemia in children? Adults?
Children: ALL
Adults: AML
160
Necrotizing Sialometaplasia
161
Dome-shaped radio-opacity on maxillary sinus floor
Sinus Retention Cyst (Antral
Pseudocyst)
Caused by gland blockage or exudate from an infection
Defined as a pseudocyst due to lack of epithelium lining
162
Swelling caused by a ruptured salivary gland duct that allows mucus to spill into the surrounding tissue
Mucocele
Lower lip most commonly affected
approximately 1 cm in diameter
163
Forms when the ducts of a minor salivary gland become blocked, causing mucus to build up
Mucous Retention Cyst
164
Sjogren's Syndrome
____ mediated pathology
Often accompanied with ____
Positive test for ___, ___, and ___
T-cell
Lupus
SSA, SSB, and ANA
165
Multi-organ disease (primarily pulmonary) defined by formation of noncaseating granulomas
Sarcoidosis
166
Benign tumor most commonly affecting the parotid gland
Warthin’s Tumor
167
Most common malignant salivary gland tumor
Mucoepidermoid
Carcinoma
168
Malignant salivary tumor
Histologically, a ___ or ___ pattern of cells can be observed
Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma
cribriform or Swiss cheese
169
Melkersson-Rosenthal Syndrome triad of symptoms
fissured tongue
lip/facial swelling (granulomatous cheilitis)
facial paralysis
170
Characteristic of _____ Syndrome
Lip Pits
Van der Woude
171
_____ AKA ____
Geographic Tongue AKA benign migratory glossitis/erythema migrans
172
Van der Woude Syndrome triad
Lower Lip Pits
Cleft lip and/or palate
Hypodontia (congenitally missing teeth)
173
Cleft lip is detected in the first ____ during pregnancy and cleft palate during the first ____ of pregnancy
When is each treated?
Cleft lip: 4-7 weeks
Cleft palate: 6-9 weeks
Cleft lip: 3-6 months old
Cleft palate: 6-12 months old
174
Mass of tissue collection under skin present at birth
Dermoid Cyst
175
Cyst within lymph node of neck branching out from branchial cleft
Branchial Cyst
Also known as cleft sinus
176
Thyroid tissue at midline base of tongue
Lingual Thyroid
177
Congenital abnormal proliferation of lymphatic vessels of tongue
Involved in _____ Syndrome
Oral Lymphangioma
Sturge-Weber
178
Symptoms of Sturge-Weber syndrome
Oral Lymphangioma
"port-wine stain" birthmark
179
White/yellow cyst within lymphoid tissue of oral mucosa
Oral Lymphoepithelial Cyst
180
Heart-shaped radiolucency in nasopalatine canal
Nasopalatine Cyst
181
Most common non-odontogenic cyst
Nasopalatine Cyst
182
Ectodermal dysplasia
183
Ectodermal dysplasia:
1. Abnormal ectodermal developments?
2. Abnormal tooth developments?
3. ____ intolerance due to lack of sweat glands
1. conical crowns, mucosal membranes, nails, and hair
2. anodontia, oligodontia, or hypodontia with microdontia
3. Heat
184
1. Name?
2. Triad of symptoms?
3. Dental abnormalities?
4. Genetic inheritance?
1. Cleidocranial dysplasia
2. Missing clavicle, dental abnormalities, fragile bones
3. delayed loss of primary teeth, delayed appearance of secondary
teeth, unerupted teeth, and supernumerary teeth
4. Autosomal dominant
185
Name and different types?
Dentin dysplasia
Type I = poor root development
Type II = poor crown development
Autosomal dominant
Chevron pulp remnants and short roots
186
Tooth developmental disorder due to abnormal _____ formation
during the ___ stage at ___ weeks in utero
Amelogenesis Imperfecta
enamel
bell
14
Pitted enamel and hypoplastic enamel often present
187
Short roots, bell shaped and bulbous crowns, and obliterated pulps
Type 1 is associated with ___ and ___
Dentinogenesis imperfecta
osteogenesis imperfecta and blue sclera
188
Dentinogenesis imperfecta characteristics
Abnormal dentin formation during the bell stage at 14 weeks utero
Short roots, bell shaped and bulbous crowns, and obliterated pulps
Type 1 is associated with osteogenesis imperfecta
Blue sclera (Type 1)
Autosomal dominant
189
Amelogenesis Imperfecta characteristics
Tooth developmental disorder due to abnormal enamel formation during the bell stage at 14 weeks utero
Dentin and pulp are normal
Pitted enamel and hypoplastic enamel often present
Autosomal dominant, recessive, or x-linked
190
Dentin dysplasia characteristics
Abnormal dentin formation
Chevron pulp remnants and short roots
Type I = poor root development
Type II = poor crown development
Autosomal dominant
191
Blistering of skin and mucosa
Epidermolysis Bullosa
192
Abnormal formation of capillaries on skin, mucosa, and viscera
AKA?
Hereditary Hemorrhagic Telangiectasia
Also known as Olser-Weber-Rendu Syndrome
193
Olser-Weber-Rendu Syndrome triad?
Telangiectasia
Iron deficiency
epistaxis
194
Overly dense bones that are brittle and prone to fracture
AKA?
Osteopetrosis
Also known as Albergs-Schonberg disease/marble bone disease
195
Teeth yield a fuzzy appearance on x-rays hence being called ghost teeth
Regional Odontodysplasia
196
Asymptomatic thick spongy bilateral white patches of tissue that ____ (can/cannot) be wiped off
White Sponge Nevus
CANNOT be wiped off
197
Melkersson-Rosenthal Syndrome
fissured tongue + granulomatous cheilitis + facial paralysis
198
multisystem vasculitis that causes aphthous-type ulcers of oral and genital, and inflammation of eye
Bechet’s Syndrome
199
Lofgren’s Syndrome
erythema nodosum + bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy + arthritis
200
Heerfordt Syndrome
anterior uveitis + parotid enlargement + facial nerve palsy + fever; also called uveoparotid fever
201
McCune-Albright Syndrome
polyostotic (more than one bone) fibrous dysplasia + cutaneous cafe au lait spots + endocrine abnormalities like precocious puberty
202
Birth rates with cleft lip and cleft palate
Lip: 1 : 1,000 births
Palate: 1 : 2,000 births
INBDE - Booster Prep
flashcards
Decks in class (16)
# Cards
