1
Q
___ marks the posterior extent of the maxillary denture
A
Hamular notch
2
Q
small depressions near vibrating line; helps approximate posterior denture border
A
Fovea palatinae
3
Q
The primary stress bearing areas of the maxillary denture are the ____ and ____.
A
hard palate
residual ridge
4
Q
The _____ limits buccal flange extension during functional movements.
A
coronoid process
5
Q
Secondary support area for mandibular denture
A
Alveolar ridge
6
Q
The primary stress bearing areas of the mandibular denture are the ____ and ____.
A
buccal shelf
retromolar pads
7
Q
Dentures have ___ of the biting force of natural teeth
A
20% (or 1/5th)
8
Q
natural teeth can exert ____lbs of pressure
A
200-250 lbs
9
Q
distance between jaws when teeth are in contact
A
Vertical Dimension of Occlusion (VDO)
10
Q
distance when jaws are at rest
A
Vertical Dimension of Rest (VDR)
11
Q
Freeway space - the gap between upper and lower teeth at rest, usually __ mm
A
3mm
12
Q
instrument that records the position of the maxilla relative to the Frankfort horizontal plane
A
Facebow
13
Q
centric relation (CR)
A
the jaw position where the condyles are seated in their most anterior-superior position within the glenoid fossa, independent of tooth contact.
14
Q
most stable and reproducible mandibular position
A
centric relation (CR)
15
Q
How do you capture the masseteric notch during border molding?
A
the patient closes their mouth while gentle pressure is applied to their chin using your hand
16
Q
Purpose of establishing a posterior palatal seal during border molding
A
to compensate for the polymerization and cooling shrinkage of acrylic resin.
Without it, shrinkage can cause the denture base to lift from the posterior palate. The seal helps maintain retention by creating a vacuum effect that holds the maxillary denture securely in place.
17
Q
Posterior teeth with __° cusps are used in cases of advanced ridge resorption
A
0 degrees
they are non-interfering and allow freedom in lateral excursions.
18
Q
Sounds that help assess maxillary incisal edge position and vertical dimension.
A
Fricatives like “f,” “v,” and “ph”
If the maxillary front teeth are too long, “f” sounds may mimic “v” as they contact the lower lip incorrectly.
19
Q
____ is the most commonly used material during denture processing due to its moldablity and durability.
A
Acrylic
20
Q
excess acrylic monomer can cause ___
A
shrinkage
21
Q
___ and ___ resin can help in yielding the least C. albicans bacterial load in denture processing
A
Injection molding
heat cured
22
Q
loose-fitting dentures can be relined chair side using ___ acrylic.
A
cold
23
Q
Kennedy Classification - Bilateral edentulous areas located posterior to the remaining natural teeth
A
Class 1
24
Q
Kennedy Classification - A unilateral edentulous area located
posterior to the remaining teeth
A
Class 2
25
Kennedy Classification - A unilateral edentulous area with
remaining teeth both anterior and posterior to it
Class 3
26
Kennedy Classification - A single, bilateral edentulous area located anterior to the remaining teeth. This area must cross the midline to qualify.
Class 4
27
Kennedy Classification
Class 1 - Mod 1
28
Kennedy Classification
Class 1 - mod 2
29
No modifications are allowed in Kennedy Class ___ arches
Class 4
the class is defined by a single anterior edentulous area crossing the midline
30
When multiple edentulous areas exist, the most ___ area determines the classification
posterior
31
Kennedy Classification
Class 3 - mod 1
32
Kennedy Classification
Class 3 - mod 2
33
Kennedy Classification
Class 3 - mod 1
34
Rest seats should have an outline form of a/an ____
rounded triangle
35
Rest seats should be inclined ____ (towards/away from) the center of the tooth?
towards
36
Rest seats should be ___ to ___ the mesiodistal width of the tooth
1/3 to 1/2
37
Rest seats should be ___ the buccolingual width cusp-tip to cusp-tip
1/2
38
Preferred position of rest seats (mesial or distal)?
Mesial
This reduces torque on abutment teeth
39
Indirect retainers lie ___ to the ___ line that counteracts rotation of the RPD
perpendicular
fulcrum line
40
imaginary line connecting the distal-most rests of a removable partial denture.
fulcrum line
41
Fulcrum lines and indirect retainers are important in which Kennedy classification(s)?
1 and 2
42
____ provide retention, resist dislodgment, and are supported by major and minor connectors
Direct retainers
43
____ provide retention and resist rotational displacement by being placed perpendicular to the fulcrum line, positioned as far as possible from the distal extension base.
Indirect retainers
44
Flexible and Traditional RPD side-by-side comparison
45
___ and ___ attachments resemble a “key and lock” mechanism that is hidden within an RPD to provide retention. With these attachments, the prosthesis remains stable and does not move during eating or speaking.
Precision and semi-precision
46
Name these clasps
47
Another name for cast circumferential clasp
Aker's clasp
48
retentive arm purpose
engages undercut on the tooth for retention (usually on the buccal surface)
49
bracing (reciprocating) arm purpose
provides stability and counteracts forces from the retentive arm (usually on the lingual surface of the tooth)
50
Embrasure clasps are useful for which Kennedy classifications?
2, 3, and 4
when no edentulous area is available to place a clasp directly
51
Name these flexible clasps
52
Describe RPI clasps
53
Describe RPA clasps
54
Clasps can be bent if absolutely necessary, but they should never be ___ nor ___
Thinned
Cut
55
_____ unite the parts of the prosthesis across the arch, helping to evenly distribute occlusal forces.
Major connectors
56
In the maxilla, the major connector should be at least __mm away from the gingival margins.
6mm
57
In the mandible, the superior border of a lingual bar should be positioned __mm below the free gingival margin to prevent soft tissue irritation. Additionally, the lingual bar itself should have a
vertical height of __mm
3mm
4mm
58
Which mandibular major connector is preferred, lingual bar or lingual plate (assuming adequate spacing for both options)
Lingual bar
59
___ resin is the most commonly used material in fabricating RPD's
heat-cured acrylic resin
60
What condition can result from a decreased vertical dimension of occlusion (VDO)?
Angular cheilitis
61
Treatment for denture stomatitis
62
___ is a complication that occurs in patients with complete maxillary dentures opposing a Kennedy Class __ mandibular RPD.
Combination syndrome
Class 1
63
Describe Combination syndrome
Papillary hyperplasia (red/pink nodules on the hard palate)
Down-growth of the maxillary tuberosities
Everything else resorbs (this causes the lower anterior teeth to extrude)
64
The metal framework of RPDs can be associated with metal allergies, most commonly a ___ allergy.
nickel
65
Denture adhesive (such as Fixodent) may contain ___, which cause ___ with chronic overuse.
zinc
neuropathy - (nerve damage that can cause symptoms like numbness, tingling, or weakness)
66
Crown preps must have an occlusal reduction of ___ mm for Zirconia crowns
1.0 - 1.5mm
67
Buccal grooves add ___, which prevents crown displacement along the path of insertion
retention (it increases the surface area of the tooth for cementation)
68
___ grooves add retention and resistance, which prevents crown displacement from forces
acting in directions other than the path of insertion.
Proximal (these grooves help keep the crown from tipping lingually or buccally - resistance. They also increase the surface area of the tooth for cementation - retention)
69
What can you do if the axial height a tooth being prepped for a crown is too short?
Add grooves
70
The recommended axial taper for crown preps is __ degrees
6 degrees
71
When crown prepping an incisor, the primary plane aligns with the ___1/3 and the second plane follows the ___ 2/3
cervical 1/3
incisal 2/3
72
If the secondary plane is under reduced during incisor crown prep, the incisal edge of a PFM crown may appear ___
opaque
because there is not sufficient space to add enough porcelain to mask the metal layer
73
3 finish lines types for crown preps
74
Finish line method for PFM crowns and some all-ceramic crowns
Heavy Chamfer
(deep, rounded edges)
75
Finish line method for gold crowns
Light chamfer
(shallow and gentle curves)
76
Finish line method for PFM crowns and all-ceramic crowns
Shoulder Margins
(characterized by horizontal, shoulder-like ledges at the base of the crown)
77
A ___ finish line characterized as tapered to a very thin, knife-like edge which should be avoided as they do not provide enough clearance
Feather Edge
78
Metal crown dimensions:
Functional cusp: ___mm
Non-functional cusp: __mm
79
PFM crown dimensions:
Functional cusp: ___mm
Non-functional cusp: __mm
80
Porcelain crown dimensions:
Functional cusp: ___mm
Non-functional cusp: __mm
81
The most common mistake for veneer preparations is ___, which can lead to insufficient strength and fracture.
under reduction of the incisal third
82
an indirect dental restoration that covers one or more cusps of a tooth, providing structural support while preserving more natural tooth structure than a full crown.
Onlays
83
Gold Onlays require __ mm margin, __mm reduction in contacts areas and __mm in non-
contact areas
0.5
1.5
1.0
(same as a gold/metal crown)
84
Ceramic Onlays require a minimum of _ mm thickness in both contact and non-contact areas
1.5
85
The minimal functional cusp reduction for a zirconia crown is ___mm
1.0 - 1.5mm
86
Post retention is determined by the ___, ___, and ___ of the post
length, width, and surface roughness
87
Post length?
2/3 of the root length
88
Effect of cement on post retention
No effect
89
Common clinical failures of posts are ___ and ___
loss of retention and root fracture
90
__mm of gutta percha should be kept apically when placing a post
4-5mm
(more important than the 2/3 post length rule)
91
the most important factor for the success of a post and core is ___
Natural tooth structure
92
Ferrule: It is recommended to have at least ___mm tooth structure above the crown finish line
1.5-2mm
93
Fiber posts can clinically fail due to ___
loss of retention
94
Name the components of the FPD
95
For abutment teeth, a crown to root ratio of ___ is ideal for stability of the FPD.
1:2
96
Ante’s Law
States that, in an FPD, the total periodontal surface area of abutment teeth must be equal or greater than the total periodontal surface area of the teeth being replaced.
Therefore, multi-rooted teeth as abutments are preferred.
97
two-piece FPD system with inter-locking male and female components
Non-Rigid Connectors
useful in cases with compromised abutments or misalignment abutments
98
The minimum connector dimensions for zirconia are typically ___mm x ___mm.
3mm × 3mm
99
Pontic design and indication
100
Pontic design and indication
101
Pontic design and indication
102
Pontic design and indication
103
Pontic design and indication
104
High noble/noble alloys contain noble metals, such as __, __, and __. These are known for their strength, durability, and biocompatibility.
gold, platinum, and palladium
105
The strongest high noble/noble alloys is ___ and are ideal for ___ patients.
gold-palladium-platinum
bruxism
106
as the amount of gold in alloys increase, the hardness ___.
decreases
107
Type 1 alloys
Soft - Inlays
108
Type 2 alloys
Hard - Inlays and Onlays
109
Type 3 alloys
Harder - Crowns and Short span FPDs
110
Type 4 alloys
Hardest - Crowns and Long span FPDs
111
Base metal alloys are composed of mainly ___ metals, such as ___, ___, or ___.
non-noble
chromium, nickel, or cobalt
112
The ___in PFMs can cause greenish discoloration of the crown over time
silver
113
Purpose of indium in PFMs
it helps bonding between the porcelain and metal, while enhancing corrosion resistance and malleability
114
Name these metal-ceramic crown types
115
___ are the gold standard for esthetic crown restorations, due to their superior translucency.
All-ceramics
116
Which crown material is known for its high translucency and natural esthetic appearance,
making It suitable for anterior teeth
Lithium disilicate (Emax)
117
____ is the strongest ceramic material available, making it suitable for posterior teeth forces
Monolithic zirconia
118
____is ideal for bruxism patients with esthetic concerns, because it is wear resistant, fracture resistant, and minimally wear opposing teeth
Zirconia
119
____ offers the best zirconia esthetics
Bilayered zirconia
120
Smallest zirconia phase
Cubic
121
Intermediate zirconia phase
tetragonal
122
Largest zirconia phase
monoclinic
123
Most zirconia restorations consist of crystals that exist in the ___ phase. Under stress, they transform into the ___ phase, which expands slightly and helps seal cracks, a process called ___. This enhances fracture resistance.
tetragonal (3Y)
monoclinic
transformation toughening
124
newer cubic zirconia formulations such as 4Y and 5Y offer improved ___, expanding its use to anterior restorations.
translucency
125
___ is the greatest risk in anterior PFM restorations due to esthetic demands and functional stress
Porcelain chipping
126
Describe value in shade selection
the lightness or darkness of a color
cannot be increased after fabrication, only decreased (making it darker)
127
What is the most noticeable factor in shades
Value
128
Describe hue in shade selection
the basic color family of the restoration
Variations of yellow, brown, and gray for teeth
Hue can be adjusted using staining or glazes
129
Describe chroma in shade selection
the intensity or saturation of a hue
High chromas are more vivid, low chromas are pale
130
Metamerism
refers to the phenomenon in which colors appear differently under various lighting conditions.
131
Minimum length of time between teeth whitening and crown shade selection
1 week
132
What are the 4 hues of a shade guide?
133
____ is a temporary cement due to its soothing effect on the pulp and ease of removal
Zinc Oxide Eugenol (ZOE)
134
____ is the most soluble permanent cement
Zinc Polycarboxylate
135
____ is not suitable for all-ceramic crowns, as it bonds weaker than resin cements
Glass Ionomer
136
one of the most versatile and strongest cements available, ideal for high-stress areas
Resin
137
Preferred cement for all-ceramic crowns such as lithium disilicate, leucite reinforced, zirconia, and onlays
resin
138
5 steps for cementing glass-ceramic crowns
1. Etch the intaglio surface of the crown with hydrofluoric acid
2. Apply silane to the crown (a coupling agent between the ceramic crown and resin cement)
3. Etch tooth with phosphoric acid
4. Apply Bonding Agent to the tooth (air-thin and light cure before cementation)
5. Cement (finish with light or chemical curing)
139
Reversible Hydrocolloid impression material properties
absorbs or displaces moisture, producing accurate impressions
140
Irreversible Hydrocolloid impression material properties
dimensionally unstable and produces less accurate impressions. Alginate is an example
141
Polyvinyl Siloxane (PVS) impression material properties
dimensionally stable, has excellent elastic recovery, and captures fine details. However, PVS interacts with latex in gloves, which can slow the setting time.
142
Handling instructions for alginate once removed from the mouth
the impression should first be rinsed with water and then sprayed with hypochlorite.
143
Side-by-side comparison of dental plaster an dental stone
144
Denture patients with bruxism have their dentures fabricated in the ____ position as the stability minimizes strain
Centric Relation (CR)
145
When the patient slides their jaw from CR to MIP, the mandible moves___ and ____
upward and anterior
146
When the patient slides their jaw from MIP to E (edge-to-edge), the condyles ____
translate forward
147
When the patient slides their jaw from CR to Pr (protrusion), the mandible shifts ____
downward and forward
148
When the mandible moves left or right:
1. That side is the ____ side. How does its condyle move?
2. The opposite side it the ___ side. How does its condyle move?
1. working side
it rotates
2. non-working / balancing
It translates down
149
When the mandible moves forward or protrudes, how do the condyles move?
They translate down the eminence
150
No matter the type, all facebows share the same goal: _____
to record the 3D relationship of the maxilla, or maxillary teeth, to the TMJs.
151
Name this device and what is it used for
Kinematic Facebow
Relates maxillary arch to TMJs
Requires precise location of hinge axis
152
Name this device and what is it used for
Arbitrary Facebow
Relates maxillary arch to base of skull
Approximates location of hinge axis
153
Name this device and what is it used for
Arcon Articulator
Mimics anatomic relationship of jaws (condylar element is on the lower component)
154
Name this device
Non-Arcon Articulator
Reverse of natural anatomy (condyle element is on the upper component)
155
Which occlusal scheme(s) is/are ideal for dentate patients?
Both canine and anterior guidance
156
Group function
157
Which occlusal scheme is ideal for denture patients?
Bilateral Balance (and lingualized occlusion)
The teeth make simultaneous contact on both working and non- working sides in centric and eccentric positions.
158
Centric Interference
premature contact during mandibular closure in CR, leading to the deflection of the mandible forward
159
Protrusive Interference
premature contact of posterior teeth during protrusive movement
160
Working Interference
undesirable contact between posterior teeth on the working side during lateral movement
161
Non-Working Interference
undesirable contact between posterior teeth on the non-working side during lateral movement
162
How thick should the posterior palatal seal on dentures be?
1.0 - 1.5mm
163
Which internal surface preparation should be used to prepare an Emax crown restoration for cementation?
5% hydrofluoric acid
164
What is the order of procedures for porcelain crown/veneer cementation?
1. Hydrofluoric acid etch of the crown/veneer
2. Silane application to the crown/veneer
3. Pumice the tooth
4. Phosphoric acid etch of the tooth
5. Bond application to the tooth
6. Cementation of the crown/veneer
165
Chronic inhalation of beryllium vapor has been associated with __________
Pneumoconiosis
This condition involves the formation of cancerous granulomatous lesions in the lungs
166
What is the primary function of a rest in a removable partial denture?
Provides support to the denture
167
____ can lead to potentially fatal cardiomyopathy
cobalt
168
_____ is known to cause allergic responses in approximately 8% of the general population.
Chromium
169
What is the minimum flexural strength requirement for porcelain fused to metal ceramics (PFM)?
50 MPa
170
According to studies, the restorative material having the maximum survival rate is __________.
gold alloy crowns
171
dental restorative material that is known to release toxic vanadium
Titanium alloys
172
The general evaluation sequence for crowns and fixed dental prostheses (FDP) delivery
1. Shade (esthetics)
2. Proximal contacts
3. Internal fit
4. Marginal integrity
5. Stability (retention and resistance form)
6. Occlusion
7. Contour
173
Feldspathic porcelain is a monolithic ceramic with ___ toughness and flexural strength properties.
low
174
The purpose of an appropriate ferrule is to increase _____
the fracture resistance of the tooth
175
Occlusal depth of rest seat preps
1-1.5mm
176
Thixotropy
a term used to define the physical property of a material that decreases in viscosity under increased pressure. As the pressure is removed, the material reverts to the baseline viscosity. An example is commonly used impression materials.
INBDE - Booster Prep
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