1
Q
‘TA Only’ mode is enabled automatically:
A
below 1,000ft RA when TA/RA mode is selected.
2
Q
A fast realignment should be complete in:
A
30 seconds
3
Q
A flight is aborted shortly after takeoff and prepares to return to the departure airfield. The OFF SCHED DESCENT light illuminates. On the pressurization panel crew must:
A
take no action - the auto abort capability programs cabin to land at takeoff field elevation
4
Q
A fluid leak develops in System A electric pump.
A
Fluid quantity in System A reservoir decreases to zero and all System A pressure is lost.
5
Q
A fuel CONFIG alert is extinguished if:
A
Centre tank quantity less than 363kgs
6
Q
A fuel CONFIG Alert remains displayed until:
A
Centre fuel tank quantity less than 363 kgs
7
Q
A hot air leak is detected in the APU bleed air ducting. This is indicated on the forward overhead panel by
A
left (1) WING-BODY OVERHEAT light
8
Q
A leak develops in the System A electric-driven pump; how does this affect the operation of the PTU?
A
The PTU will not function as all system pressure is lost
9
Q
A leak in standby hydraulic system will cause system B fluid indication decrease, to approximately:
A
0.72
10
Q
A leak occurs in the standby system - which statement is correct?
A
The LOW QUANTITY light will illuminate when the standby reservoir is approx half empty, the standby reservoir quantity will decrease to zero and the system B reservoir level will decrease to approx 72%
11
Q
A Mach Trim System provides speed stability at airspeeds above:
A
Mach .615
12
Q
A magenta bug on the vertical speed indicator display on the PFD indicates:
A
the speed selected in the MCP vertical speed window with V/S pitch mode engaged
13
Q
A pack light illuminates, it does not extinguish on reset of the master caution recall. What could have been the cause of the alert?
A
A dual pack failure in which the pack will continue to operate until excessive temperature is sensed.
14
Q
A single detector loop for an engine fails and the related OVHT/DET switch in the aft electronic panel is in the NORMAL position. What flight indications can you expect?
A
There is no flight deck indication of single loop failure with the OVHT/DET switch in NORMAL.
15
Q
A TA symbol showing on the Navigation Display (ND) has, alongside it, a down arrow and ‘- 07’. This means:
A
The traffic is descending at minimum 500fpm.
16
Q
A TA symbol showing on the ND has, alongside it, a down arrow and ‘- 07’. This means:
A
The traffic is descending at minimum 500fpm
17
Q
Above 37,000 feet the pressurization controller maintains a pressure differential of:
A
8.35psid
18
Q
Above what bank angle will the wings not roll level when control wheel pressure is released during CWS roll operation?
A
6 degrees
19
Q
Above what speed will the Mach Trim System operate?
A
Mach .615
20
Q
Above what windspeed should Entry or Cargo Doors not be opened?
A
40 knots
21
Q
Activated at 14,000 feet the passenger oxygen masks drop down from the stowage:
A
Pulling one mask down will activate all masks in that unit.
22
Q
AFDS is engaged in Altitude hold and heading select. If the heading select switch on the MCP was pushed what would the FMAs d isplay?
A
MCP SPD/CWS R (in amber, below the FMA)/ALT HOLD.
23
Q
After a flight director take off in TO/GA mode, using LNAV, what FMAs occur if the autopilot is engaged during the climb and above thrust reduction altitude?
A
N1/LNAV/MCP SPD
24
Q
After a normal engine start, when selecting GEN 1 to ON, what indication will you see to indicate that the generator has successfully connected?
A
The related blue GEN OFF BUS light will extinguish
25
After a normal takeoff which F/D pitch command can you expect?
V2 plus 20kts
26
After a normal takeoff which pitch command can you expect?
V2 to V2+20kts
27
After a normal takeoff with sufficient rate of climb achieved, which F/D pitch command can you expect?
V2 plus 20kts
28
After a steady cruise at FL 370 you climb to FL 390 and reset the FLT ALT in the pressurization panel accordingly. What would you expect the cabin rate of climb indicator to indicate during the climb?
It will indicate a descent due to a scheduled change in differential pressure from 7.8 psi to 8.35 psi when selecting a FLT ALT above FL 370.
29
After autobraking has started, what pilot actions disarm the autobrake system immediately and illuminate the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light?:
All of the above.
30
After lift-off the A/T remains in THR HLD until
800 feet above field elevation
31
After lift-off the A/T remains in THR HLD until which altitude?
800 feet above Field Elevation.
32
After moving the APU switch to the OFF position, how long is the cooling period before the APU shuts down?
60 seconds
33
After performing the FMC/CDU preflight, the flight crew notices that the ACTIVE NAV DATA base is expired and must be changed. What will the RTE page look like after the NAV DATA base change?
Blank, requiring reloading
34
After performing the FMC/CDU preflight, the flight crew notices that the ACTIVE navigation database has expired and must be changed. What will the RTE page look like after the navigation database change?
Blank, requiring reloading
35
After performing the FMC/CDU preflight, the flight crew notices that the ACTIVE navigation database has expired and must be changed. What will the RTE page look like after the navigation database change?
Blank, requiring reloading.
36
After pressing the DISCH switch, how long does it take for the cargo fire DISCH light to illuminate to indicate that the Cargo Fire Suppression system has been fully activated?
Up to 30 seconds
37
After selecting Gear Down, you see that one of the Gear green lights above the landing lever is extinguished, but all three green Gear Lights on the overhead are illuminated.
Is the gear safe to land on?
Yes
38
After the Centre Tank has emptied the auto shutoff logic stops the pumps, how do the pumps then function?
Switching the pumps to OFF and then back to ON recycles the auto shutoff logic and the pumps will again activate
39
After the loss of all generators, how long can two fully charged batteries provide standby power for?
A minimum of 60 minutes
40
After the loss of all generators, two fully charghed batteries can provide standby power for a minimum of:
60 minutes
41
After unsuccessfully trying to contact ATC for start clearance you notice that the digital displays are blank on your Radio Tuning Panel and the OFF button is illuminated. What is the problem and how would you resolve it?
The RTP is switched off. Press "OFF" to power it back on again
42
Air from the preconditioned ground source enters the air conditioning system through
The Mix Manifold
43
Aircraft in flight. You have 2500 kg, of fuel in the No. 1 main tank and 3060 kg, of fuel in the No. 2 main tank. You will see:
an amber IMBAL indication below main tank No 1, fuel quantity arc and digits on tank also turn amber
44
Aircraft in flight. You have 2500 kgs of fuel in main tank No.1 and 3060 kgs of fuel in main tank No. 2. You will see:
An amber IMBAL alert below main tank No.1. The fuel quantity digits for the tank also turn amber
45
All TCAS alerts are inhibited:
By GPWS and windshear warnings.
46
All window heat switches are selected to the ON position. The green window heat ON light for Right Side Window extinguishes. The most likely reason is:
The window is at the correct temperature
47
All WINDOW HEAT switches are selected to the ON position. The green Window Heat ON light for Right Side Window extinguishes. What is the most likely reason for this?
The window is at the correct temperature
48
Alternate brakes are operated by:
system A
49
amber fuel IMBAL alert will remain displayed until the imbalance is reduced to:
91 kgs
50
Amber PACK light illumination during Master Caution recall, that extinguishes when master caution is reset, indicates
Failure of either primary or standby pack controller.
51
An amber ALT DISAGREE in the bottom of the altimeter tape is and indication of:
The captain's and first officer's altitude indications differ more than 200 feet for more than 5 seconds.
52
An amber CDS FAULT in the left lower corner of PFD indicates:
A non-dispatchable fault has occurred on the ground before starting second engine.
53
An amber IAS DISAGREE alert in the bottom of the speed tape indicates:
The captains and first officer's airspeeds disagree by more than 5 KTS for more than 5 seconds.
54
An amber MAP RANGE DISAGREE annunciation on the ND indicates:
The selected range on the EFIS control panel is different from the map display range
55
An amber ROLL displayed in the lower portion of the attitude indicator on the PFD means:
The captains and first officers attitude display differ by more than 5 degrees in roll
56
An engine-driven hydraulic pump supplies approximately ____ times the flow rate of an electric motor-driven hydraulic pump.
6 times
57
An illuminated BLEED TRIP OFF light indicates:
Too high temperature or pressure in bleed air duct and bleed air valve has closed
58
An OFFSCALE annunciation appears on the Navigation Display (ND). To view the TA or RA an appropriate action would be:
increase ND display range on the EFIS Control Panel
59
An OFFSCALE annunciation appears on the Navigation Display (ND). What would be an appropriate action to view the TA or RA?
Increase ND display range on the EFIS Control Panel
60
An OVERHEAT light on the hydraulic panel illuminates inflight - what does this mean?
The hydraulic fluid used to cool & lubricate the related electric-driven pump has overheated or the pump itself has overheated
61
Arrivals can be selected on the FMC for either the origin or destination airport on the DEP/ARR page:
both origin and destination airport are available
62
As well as using the DISCH switch on the Fire Protection panel in the flight deck, an APU fire can be extinguished by discharging the APU fire extinguisher using the APU Ground Control Panel (shown below), which is located in a quick release access panel immediately forward and below the APU
False
63
As you push the TO/GA switch for an automatic go-around on an aircraft with the TOGA to LNAV feature fitted, what are the correct FMA annunciations (Thrust Mode : Roll Mode : Pitch Mode)?
GA : LNAV armed (white) : TO/GA
64
As you push the TO/GA switch for an automatic go-around, what are the correct FMA annunciations (Thrust Mode : Roll Mode : Pitch Mode)?
GA : (blank) : TO/GA
65
At 100ft above DH/MDA the GPWS callout is:
PLUS HUNDRED
66
At glideslope capture during an autopilot ILS approach the cross bus tie relay automatically opens:
and the BUS TRANSFER switch returns to OFF (spring loaded).to isolate DC bus 1 from DC bus 2.
67
At glideslope capture during an autopilot ILS approach the cross bus tie relay automatically opens:
to isolate DC bus 1 from DC bus 2.
68
At the end of the start cycle the blue APU GEN OFF BUS light illuminates:
when the APU is ready to accept a bleed air or electrical load.
69
At what altitude will both A/Ps automatically disengage if FLARE is not armed during a dual channel approach?
350 feet RA
70
At what approximate altitude will both A/P's automatically disengage if FLARE is not armed during a dual channel approach?
350 feet RA
71
At which flap settings is the flap load relief system operational for Short Field Performance aircraft?
Flaps 10, 15, 25, 30 and 40
72
ATT:RST displayed in amber on an ISFD means
Attitude must be reset using the ATTITUDE RESET switch
73
Auto-relight is provided for flameout protection, with the EEC activating both igniters. Which of the following situations would cause Flameout Protection to operate?
Rapid decrease in N2, or N2 below idle RPM
74
Automatic operation of the Standby Hydraulic System is initiated when:
The main rudder PCU Force Fight Monitor (FFM) trips
75
Autoslat operation is:
normally powered by hydraulic system B
76
Battery power is provided by:
Two 24 volt nickel–cadmium batteries, main and auxiliary, which are located in the electronics compartment.
77
Below what height are predictive WINSHEAR warnings annunciated to crew?
1200ft RA
78
Below what height are TCAS Resolution Advisories inhibited?
1000ft Radio Altitude
79
Bleed air is taken from stage 4 and stage 10 of the high pressure compressor.
False
80
Boeing provide the option for 2 Cargo Fire extinguisher bottles to be fitted to the B737-800. Ryanair's B737-800 aircraft only have 1 cargo fire extinguisher bottle fitted.
True
81
Boeing provide the option for 2 Cargo Fire extinguisher bottles to be fitted to the B737-800. Ryanair's B737-800 aircraft only have 1 cargo fire extinguisher bottle fitted.
True
82
Boeing provide the option for 2 Cargo Fire extinguisher bottles to be fitted, one is a rapid discharge bottle which is fully discharged immediately upon pressing the DISCH switch on the Cargo Fire Panel, the second bottle is a slow discharge bottle that is released 1 minute after the discharge of the first bottle, and discharges slowly over several minutes to provide a total of 195 minutes of fire suppression in the cargo holds. This second slow discharge fire extinguisher bottle is NOT fitted in any Ryanair B737-800 aircraft.
True
83
boeing provide the option fot 2 Cargo Fire extinguisher bottles to be fitted, one is a rapid discharge bottle which is fully discharged immediately upon pressing the DISCH switch on the Cargo Fire Panel, the second bottle is a slow discharge bottle that is released 1 minutes after the discharge of the first bottle, and discharges slowly over several minutes to provide a total of 195 minutes of fire suppression in the cargo holds. The second slow discharge fire extinguisher bottle is NOT fitted in any Ryanair B737-800 aircraft.
True
84
Both, ON and ALTN visible on EEC switch, indicate EEC has automatically changed to soft alternate mode, and remains in soft mode until:
Thrust lever retarded to idle or Manually selecting ALTN with EEC switch on AFT overhead panel.
85
Cabin pressurisation is controlled by the position of the Outflow Valve, but some air is also exhausted through the toilet and galley vents
True
86
Can the overwing exits be opened from outside the aircraft?
Yes, by operaffng a cp6ng-loaded handle
87
Can Yaw Damper inputs (main or standby) be overridden by the flight crew?
YES - by either trim or rudder pedals inputs
88
Cargo compartment smoke detection is powered from:
DC bus 1 and DC bus 2
89
Certain types of incident will require you to pull the CVR Circuit Breaker to preserve the recorded data. Where would you find a list of such incidents?
Operations Manual Part A
90
Choose the answer which best describes the operation of the engine bleed air valve when the engine bleed air switch is in the ON position.
The valve is DC activated and pressure operated.
91
Cruise mode is activated when the aircraft climbs to:
within 0.25psi of selected FLT ALT
92
Current Mach number at the bottom of the airspeed indications tape on the PFD is displayed:
when airspeed is 0.40 Mach and above
93
Do not attempt to make a turn away from an obstacle within:
7.4M of the nose
94
Dotted red areas on terrain display indicate:
Terrain more than 2,000 feet above airplane's current altitude.
95
Dotted red areas on terrain display indicate:
Terrain more than 2,000 Ft. above airplane altitude.
96
Due to a malfunction you are required to return to the airport of departure. To avoid the OFF SCHED DESCENT warning you reset the FLT ALT. What can you expect?
The automatic abort capability for the departure airport is lost.
97
During 'TO/GA - Takeoff' pitch mode, the AFDS commands
10 degrees nose down until 60kts IAS
98
During a battery start, when does the EEC become energised?
At 15% N2
99
During a normal engine start, which of the following statement is true?
only N1, N2, oil quantity and engine vibration are available prior to placing the engine start switch to GRD
100
During a normal engine start, which of the following statements is true?
only N1, N2, oil quantity and engine vibration are available prior to placing the engine start switch to GRD
101
During a single autopilot approach and landing, a single press of either TO/GA switch in response to a Go-around will result in which of the following situations?
A manual F/D Go-around is available
102
During a single engine go-around, one push of a TO/GA switch
F/D roll commands hold current ground track
103
During alternate brake operation, the following protection is provided:
Skid, locked wheel, touchdown and hydroplane.
104
During an autopilot ILS approach:
at glideslope capture DC Bus 1 and DC Bus 2 are isolated from each other
105
During an engine start , when the engine start lever is positioned to IDLE detent, which of the following statements is correct?
The SPAR VALVE CLOSED light transitions from dim, to bright and then extinguishes
106
During an engine start, when an engine start lever is positioned to IDLE, which of the following statements is correct?
The related blue SPAR VALVE CLOSED light transitions from dim, to bright, and then extinguished
107
During an ILS approach the Captain observes his BARO minimum reference/ altitude turns from green to flashing amber for three seconds, this means:
The aircraft has descended below the Captain's selected minimum altitude (DA)
108
During an ILS approach, when the Radio Altimeter indication turns amber, this means
The airplane has descended below the selected radio altitude minimums
109
During an impending hot start, the box around the EGT digital readout flashes white. When does this flashing white box reset?
When the start lever is moved to CUTOFF or the engine reaches idle N2.
110
During approach the Captain observes his BARO minimum reference/altitude turns from green to flashing amber for three seconds, what does this means?
The aircraft has descended below the Captain's selected minimum altitude (DA).
111
During AUTO LAND at what radio altitude will the flare maneuver start and FLARE engaged is annunciated?
50 feet.
112
During automatic landing the FLARE manoeuvre starts at approximately
50 feet RA
113
During charging, what is the battery voltage range?
22 - 30 volts
114
During cruise both centre tank fuel pumps have failed. There is still 460 kg in the centre tank, and both main tanks are full. The upper display unit will show:
There will be no indication on CDS
115
During cruise the FMC Alerting Message 'VERIFY POSITION' indicates
position information is contradictory
116
During cruise you note both center tank fuel pumps have failed as indicated by the illumination of both center tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE lights. You still have 320 kg of fuel in the center tank and both main tanks are full. You will see:
There will be no indication on CDS
117
During descent, with engines at a low thrust setting
the high stage valve modulates open to maintain adequate bleed air pressure
118
During engine ground start, how long before the EEC detects a Wet Start and shuts off ignition and fuel if there is no rise in EGT after the start lever is moved to IDLE?
15 seconds
119
During engine ground start, how long before the EEC detects a Wet Start and shuts off ignition and fuel if there is no rise in EGT after the start lever is moved to IDLE?
15 seconds
120
During engine start, if the EGT exceeds the starting limit, in what circumstances would the EEC automatically turn off ignition and shut off fuel to the engine?
on the ground only
121
During engine start, when does the EEC automatically turn off ignition and shuts off fuel to the engine?
When the EGT exceeds the starting limit on the ground only
122
During flight you get MASTER CAUTION > AIR COND > WING-BODY OVERHEAT. Is this resettable?
No
123
During Fuel Balancing with the left Main Tank switches in the OFF position, what position must the Centre Tank fuel pump switches be in?
Both OFF
124
During Fuel Balancing, as per the Supplementary Procedures, why must you not switch off both fuel pumps on one side before opening the crossfeed valve?
The engine on that side will suction feed, potentially leading to flameout at high altitudes
125
During gear retraction, if loose tread on a spinning main gear tyre impacts a fitting in the wheel well opening:
that gear stops retracting and free falls back to the down position. The affected gear cannot be retracted until the fitting is replaced.
126
During normal operation with the OVHT DET Switch in NORMAL, an alert is initiated if:
both loop A and B are sensing a FIRE or OVHT
127
During normal operation with the OVHT DET Switch in NORMAL, when will a fire alert be triggered?
Both loop A and B sense a FIRE
128
During PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION the IRS mode selector is accidentally moved from OFF to ATT instead of OFF to NAV. How can normal IRS operation be regained?
Switch to OFF wait for ALIGN light to extinguish then perform full alignment.
129
During PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION the IRS mode selector is moved from OFF to ATT instead of OFF to NAV. How can normal IRS operation be regained?
Switch to OFF wait for ALIGN light to extinguish then perform full alignment.
130
During primary charge cycle operation battery voltage can be as high as
30 volts
131
During primary charge cycle operation, what can battery voltage reach?
30 volts
132
During single pack operation with TRIM AIR selected OFF:
the pack attempts to produce an air temperature to satisfy the average demands of all three zones
133
During taxiing out for takeoff, the amber AUTO BRAKE DISARM Light illuminates, what should you do?
position the AUTO BRAKE select switch to OFF. Do not takeoff if light remains illuminated
134
During the APU start cycle, the APU EGT indication may fluctuate from
0° to 1100° C
135
During the cruise, both centre tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE lights illuminate. You still have 320 kg of fuel in the center tank and both main tanks are full. Will you see any other indication?
There will be no indication on the CDS, but the Master Caution will illuminate
136
During undercarriage retraction:
the brakes automatically stop rotation of the main gear wheels; snubbers stop rotation of the nose wheels.
137
During VNAV operations the Fuel Quantity Indicating System fails:
The pilots enter and periodically update manually calculated fuel weight on the FMC PERF-INIT page in order to keep gross weight and performance data accurate
138
During VNAV PATH descent and below the Speed Restriction Altitude, the FMC Alerting Message OVERSPEED DISCONNECT means:
VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Speed Restriction by more than 15 knots
139
During VNAV PATH descent and below the Speed Restriction Altitude, the FMC Alerting Message OVERSPEED DISCONNECT means:
VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Speed Restriction by more than 15 knots
140
Electrical power to start the APU comes from:-
No. 1 transfer bus or the airplane main battery.
141
Elevator feel system is provided by the elevator feel computer. This computer receives inputs of:
airspeed and stabilizer position
142
Engaging LVL CHG descent mode
automatically engages the A/T in RETARD, and then ARM when thrust is at idle
143
Engine bleed air pressure is controlled by means of the bleed air valve which acts as both a shutoff and pressure regulating valve
True
144
Engine number 1 bleed switch is in the ON position but the engine is not running. Will the number 1 bleed air valve be open?
No
145
Engine oil pressure is in the amber band at take-off thrust. Which of the following is true?
Do not take-off
146
Entry or Cargo Doors should not be opened if the windspeed exceeds:
40kt
147
Entry or Cargo Doors should not be opened if the windspeed exceeds:
40 knots
148
Extending the airstairs using the STANDBY system on the Interior Panel:
by-passes the handrail and lower ladder safety circuits
149
Extinguisher continuity can be tested by pushing and holding the
EXT TEST switch
150
F/D Go-around. If both autopilots are not engaged, a manual F/D only go-around is available under which of the following conditions?
Inflight below 2000ft RA, Inflight above 2000ft RA with flaps not up or G/S captured and not in takeoff mode
151
Failure of one temperature controller will be annunicated to the crew by
“Zone Temp” On Master Caution recall
152
Failure of two temperature controllers will be annunicated to the crew by
Illumination of the Master Caution
153
Fire extinguishers provide a means of extinguishing:
only engine fire, cargo, APU fire and lavatory fires
154
Flight spoiler deflection is initiated on the down going wing when the control wheel is displaced more than approximately:
10 degrees
155
Flight spoilers are operated:
2 left wing and 2 right wing by system A, 2 left wing and 2 right wing by system B
156
For aircraft fitted with the RDR-4B radar, what would a lack of ground clutter returns behind a storm cell (as illustrated below) indicate?
Heavy rain
157
For approximately how long will the discharge of a cargo fire bottle provide fire suppression on the B737-800?
75 minutes
158
For approximately how long will the discharge of a cargo fire bottle provide fire suppression?
75 minutes
159
For ground service, a GROUND SERVICE SWITCH is located:
on forward attendant´s panel.
160
For ground servicing, a GROUND SERVICE Switch is placed:
on the Forward Attendant ́s panel
161
For landing, what is the maximum fuel imbalance between No.1 and No.2 main tanks?
453 Kgs.
162
For landing, what is the maximum fuel imbalance between the No.1 and No.2 main tanks?
453 Kgs
163
For RAs to be generated, the other airplane must have which equipment installed and working?
Mode C or S transponder
164
For RVSM operation, the maximum allowable altitude display difference for sea level, between the Captain and F/O's on the ground is?
50 feet
165
For the APU Fire Bottle, apart from it being discharged in the event of a fire, what else may cause the APU BOTTLE DISCHARGED light to illuminate?
A low pressure within the bottle
166
For which brake system is the AUTO BRAKE function available?
Normal only
167
For which leading edge devices does the wing anti-ice system provide protection for?
The three inboard leading edge slats on each wing
168
From where do the SMYD computers receive inputs from to determine when a Stall Warning is required?
Anti-ice controls, ADIRUs, alpha vane output, wing configuration, air/ground sensing, thrust and FMC outputs
169
From where does the Cabin Auto Controller get its inputs?
From the ADIRUs.
170
Fuel for the APU is normally (AC fuel pumps operating) supplied from:
The left side of the fuel manifold
171
Fuel for the APU is normally supplied from the:
Left side of the fuel manifold.
172
Full rudder pedal displacement will turn the nosewheel by:
7 degrees.
173
How are flight crew alerted that the current position and heading will not allow LNAV engagement?
The FMC will display the message "NOT ON INTERCEPT HEADING"
174
How can the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) be erased?
Pushing the ERASE switch for 2 seconds when the aircraft is on ground and parking brake is set.
175
How can the Fire Warning Bell be silenced?
Pushing Master FIRE WARN light or pushing the BELL CUTOUT switch located on the Overheat/Fire Protection panel
176
How can the Fwd Airstair be extended from outside the aircraft?
The Battery Master Switch can be on or off and the L1 door can be shut or partially open
177
How can TOGA be selected for takeoff if both flight directors are OFF?
Pressing TOGA after 80 knots and before 150 seconds after lift off.
178
How can VNAV be terminated?
selecting a different pitch mode
179
How can you improve the reception range of the VHF radios?
Press the TEST switch on the Radio Tuning Panel
180
How can you silence the CABIN ALTITUDE warning?
Press the ALT HORN CUTOUT switch next to the pressurisation panel
181
How can you tell if the lavatory extinguisher has discharged?
The extinguisher discharge nozzles will be grey in colour instead of black
182
How do you activate the APU fire extinguisher from the wheel well?
Pull the T-handle down to arm the system, then move the discharge switch to the left position to fire the squib.
183
How do you enable the aircraft to send and receive CPDLC data?
Turn the frequency knob on the RTP for VHF 3 until "DATA" appears and then transfer to the active window
184
How do you set the Audio Control Panel to receive NAV and ADF voice and range audio?
Set the Filter Switch to B (Both)
185
How does the Engine Vibration reading change in the event of a high vibration level?
The number is displayed in reverse video
186
How does the fluid pressure supplied by an engine driven hydraulic pump compare to an electric motor-driven hydraulic pump?
They both should supply the same pressure
187
How is an APU bleed air duct leak annunciated in the flight deck?
By the MASTER CAUTION, AIR COND and Left WING-BODY OVERHEAT lights
188
How is the accessory gearbox connected to the engine?
It is mechanically linked to the N2 rotor
189
How is the cabin altitude warning horn silenced?
By pushing the ALT HORN CUTOUT switch on the forward overhead panel.
190
How is the decision height (DH) display set on the CDS?
Set independently by each pilot using his/her EFIS control panel
191
How is the hard alternate mode entered?
When in Soft Alternate mode, retard the thrust lever or push the EEC switch
192
How long can the cockpit voice recorder record audio?
120 minutes
193
How long does the PBE, stored under the flight deck left jump seat, provide oxygen once activated?
Approximately 15 - 20 minutes
194
How long should a fast realignment take to complete?
30 seconds
195
How many fire extinguisher bottles are available for the APU FIRE protection system?
1
196
How many fire extinguisher bottles are fitted for the Cargo compartments?
1 fire extinguisher bottle, that can be selected to be discharged into either cargo hold
197
How many flight spoilers are there on each wing?
4
198
How many fuel measuring sticks are installed?
16
199
How many ground spoilers are there on each wing?
2
200
How many modes of control does the outflow valve have on the 737-800?
Three. One manual and two automatic - 'AUTO - ALTN - MAN'
201
How many positive pressure relief valves are on the 737-800?
2
202
How many pressure relief valves are fitted to provide safety pressure relief?
2
203
How many spark igniters are there on each engine?
2
204
How many spoilers deploy on the ground on each wing?
6
205
How many times can the TRIP RESET button be used to reset a related system?
Unlimited number of times
206
How might it be possible to determine if the toilet fire extinguisher has been discharged? Select all that apply
Discharge nozzles changed colour from black to grey
Temperature indicator placard in lavatory changes colour from white to black
207
How much Control Wheel displacement will cause the Flight spoiler on the down going wing to begin deflection?
10 degrees
208
How much greater is the fluid volume supplied by an engine driven hydraulic pump, compared to the related electric motor-driven hydraulic pump?
6 times greater.
209
Hydraulic system pressure indication on the lower DU is derived from:
combined engine and electric pump outputs.
210
If 'ON DC' on left IRS Mode Selector Unit comes ON steady it means:
the related IRS is operating on DC power from the switched hot battery bus
211
If a cowl anti-ice valve fails to move to the selected position:
the COWL VALVE OPEN light remains illuminated bright blue
212
If a crossbleed start is recommended for inflight starting, what Indication displayed?
a magenta "X-BLD" above the N2 dial.
213
If a crossbleed start is recommended for inflight starting, where is the Magenta "X-BLD" Indication displayed?
above the N2 dial
214
If a fire extinguisher is to be discharged on the flight deck:
all crewmembers to wear oxygen masks with 'EMERG' selected
215
If a FWD cargo fire warning light re-illuminates within 120 seconds of a cargo fire bottle discharge into that compartment, will both Master FIRE WARN lights illuminate again and will the fire bell sound?
Yes
216
If a landing is made with RTO selected:
AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates 2 seconds after touchdown
217
If a leak develops in the supply line to System A engine-driven hydraulic pump, what approximate reservoir quantity would you expect?
20% full
218
If a wet start is detected, when will the EEC automatically turn off ignition and shut off fuel to the engine?
15 seconds after the start lever is moved to IDLE during ground starts
219
If a wheel spin-up signal is not detected on landing and the speed brake is ARMED, the flight spoilers will deploy automatically:
When the Air/Ground system senses ground mode (any gear strut compresses).
220
If a wing anti-ice control valve closes in flight and the WING ANTI-ICE switch is ON, what indication will the crew see?
The respective L or R VALVE OPEN LIGHT will illuminate bright blue
221
if a Wing anti-ice control valve closes in flight and the WING ANTI-ICE switch is ON, what indications will the crew see?
The respective L or R VALVE OPEN LIGHT will illuminate bright blue
222
If after lowering the gear in response to a Wheel Well Fire indication, how do you tell the FMC to account for the extra fuel burn?
The FMC cannot account for the increased fuel burn in this case. The FMC fuel predictions should be regarded as inaccurate
223
If after moving the FAULT/INOP - OVHT/FIRE TEST switch to the OVHT/FIRE TEST position, one engine fire switch fails to illuminate. How would you determine which detector loop had failed?
Carry out the test again one loop at a time using the OVHT DET switch selected to A and then B
224
If after moving the FAULT/INOP – OVHT/FIRE TEST switch to the OVHT/FIRE TEST position, one engine fire switch fails to illuminate. How would you determine which detector loop had failed?
Carry out the test again one loop at a time using the OVHT DET switch selected to A and then B
225
If aiplane gross weight is not available from the FMC, on the APPROACH REF page GROSS WT:
will display box prompts
226
If airplane gross weight is not available from the FMC, on the APPROACH REF page GROSS WT:
will display box prompts
227
If all Temperature Selectors are positioned OFF:
the left pack maintains a fixed temperature 24°C and the right pack maintains 18°C as measured at the pack temperature sensor
228
If all zone and primary pack controls fail, how is cabin temperatures controlled?
The standby pack controls command the packs to produce the average temperature demand of the 2 passenger cabin zones
229
If an Audio Control Panel is operating in Degraded Mode, will a WINDSHEAR alert be heard through the headset on that channel on an 8200 aircraft?
Yes
230
If an engine fails in flight:
The ENGINE OUT CRUISE page is information only and the execution light will not illuminate.
231
If an outboard display unit fails, the PFD is automatically displayed:
on the inboard display unit
232
If an overwing exit warning light illuminates in flight, what are the implications?
If pressurisation is normal, the door can be considered to be in a safe configuration and the flight can be continued as normal.
233
If ATC instruct you to conduct a stepped descent (2000ft or less), how do you avoid generating unwanted TCAS RAs for conflicting traffic below you?
Consider the use of V/S to select a suitable Rate of Descent. Avoid expediting the descent
234
If ATC instruct you to conduct stepped descent (2000ft or less), how do you avoid generating unwanting TCAS Ras for conflicting traffic, below you?
Consider tho use of V/s to select a suitable Rate of Descent. Avoid expediting the descent
235
If both electrically driven fuel pumps for main tank No. 1 are inoperative, can you dispatch?
No
236
If both ENGINE ANTI-ICE switches are positioned to OFF in flight:
Failure of a single Stall Management Yaw Damper (SMYD) computer.
237
If both ENGINE ANTI-ICE switches are positioned to OFF in flight:
The cowl anti-ice valves will shut and the stall warning logic returns to normal if wing anti-ice has not been used in flight.
238
If both ENGINE ANTI-ICE switches are positioned to OFF in flight:
The cowl anti-ice valves will shut and the stall warning logic returns to normal if wing anti-ice has not been used in flight.
239
If controlling the cabin altitude in MANUAL mode, what position should the outflow valve be on landing?
Fully open
240
If descending with the pressurisation in MANUAL mode and the outflow valve still in the fully or partially closed position, what misleading indication might you see on the CABIN ALT gauge?
The CABIN ALT needle may continue anti-clockwise past the zero position and now be pointing to a high cabin altitude
241
If during RECALL on TAXI CHECKLIST, you push and release the system annunciator, the IRS light comes ON. The GPS light is illuminated on the AFT OVERHEAD PANEL, and extinguishes when Master Caution is reset.
A single GPS sensor unit has failed
242
If during VNAV operations the Fuel Quantity Indicating System fails:
the flight crew manually enter (and periodically update) estimated fuel weight on the FMC PERF INIT page to keep gross weight current and performance data valid
243
If GROSS WT is not available from the FMC, the APPROACH REF page will be:
box prompts
244
If one cargo fire detector loop loses power:
the system automatically converts to a single loop detection system
245
If one of the two engine fire detection loops A or B fails, how will you notice this?
It will be noticed when performing the OVHT/FIRE test
246
If power to the FMC is lost for more than 10 seconds in flight whilst using VNAV and LNAV, what will you need to do once power to the FMC has been restored?
Ensure that the appropriate Autothrottle, Roll and Pitch modes are engaged and select the active waypoint
247
If the aircraft is fitted with the older RDR-4B weather radar, how do you set the optimum TILT setting in the cruise?
Adjust the TILT so that the ground returns just appear at the outer edges of the Navigation Display
248
If the aircraft is fitted with the older RDR-4B Weather Radar, what should you initially set the TILT setting to prior to takeoff?
4 - 5 degrees up
249
If the aircraft takes off with the APU powering both transfer buses:
The engine generators are automatically connected to their related transfer buses if the APU is shut down.
250
If the airplane pitch attitude reaches the Pitch Limit Indicaton:
Stick shaker activates for existing flight conditions.
251
If the airplane pitch attitude reaches the pitch limit indicator:
Stick shaker activates for existing flight condition.
252
If the amber LOW PRESSURE Light for the No. 1 Engine Driven Hydraulic Pump illuminates, what will the QRH direct you do?
position the pump switch to OFF
253
If the ambient temperature is below -35C how many minutes must the engine be idled before changing thrust position?
2Min
254
If the autopilot is engaged in command without a roll mode selected, what is shown below the roll section of the FMAs?
CWS R in amber
255
If the autopilot is engaged in command without a roll mode selected, what is shown in the roll section of the FMAs?
CWS R in amber below the roll FMA.
256
If the BLEED switch for the number one engine is in the OFF position, will the Engine Thermal Anti-Ice continue to work for that engine?
Yes, because the Engine Anti-Ice Valve is independent of the Bleed Air Valve.
257
If the Captain's control wheel were to become jammed in roll, how could the First Officer maintain roll control?
Apply sufficient roll force to "break out" the FO's control wheel, and then roll can be controlled through the flight spoilers
258
If the Centre Tank is empty, the Centre Tank pumps are switched off, all four Main Tank pumps are switched on and the CROSSFEED Valve is left in the OPEN position, what may occur?
A fuel IMBAL may occur
259
If the electrical load exceeds the power generated by the available generators, load shedding will occur. If another generator is connected, or the load reduces, the power to the main buses and Galley Buses should be restored automatically.
If power to these buses is not restored automatically, how else can these buses be manually reconnected?
Recycling the CAB UTIL switch
260
If the engine oil pressure is in the amber band at the selection of take-off thrust, which of the following is true?
Do not take-off
261
If the FO's ACP mode switch is selected to ALT, which radio(s) can the FO transmit and receive from?
Transmit and receive from VHF2 only
262
If the forward thrust lever(s) are advanced during the first 3 seconds after touchdown:
the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will not illuminate
263
If the Landing Gear lever is jammed in the OFF position and the landing gear has been lowered using the Manual Landing Gear Extension handles, what indications should you expect to see once the gear is in the fully down and locked position?
Three red lights and three green lights
264
If the Landing Gear Lever is jammed in the UP position, which of these following precautions will need to be taken when manually extending the gear?
The NOSE WHEEL STEERING switch must be in the NORM position
265
If the nose gear steering lockout pin is not installed for pushback or towing:
System A hydraulic pumps must be switched off.
266
If the ON DC light on left IRS Mode Selector Unit illuminates it means the related IRS is operating on DC power from:
the switched on battery bus
267
If the ON DC light on left IRS Mode Selector Unit illuminates it means the related IRS is operating on DC power. Which bus is supplying the power?
The switched hot battery bus.
268
If the ON DC light on left IRS Mode Selector Unit illumunates it means the related IRS is operating on DC power from:
the switched hot battery bus
269
If the PSEU light illuminates 30 seconds after landing, what would this indicate?
A problem has occurred at some point in the flight with the Landing gear position sensing, air/ground sensing or config warning systems
270
If the PSEU light illuminates, can the flight crew reset it?
No. Only a BITE reset or the clearing of the fault will extinguish the light
271
If the required signals are not available to operate in the normal mode, what mode will the EEC automatically change to?
Soft alternate mode.
272
If the Rudder Pedal Nosewheel Steering is inoperative, how will the takeoff roll differ?
Tiller inputs may be needed up to 40-60 knots to maintain directional control
273
If the spoilers become jammed:
The captain's control wheel operates the ailerons
274
If the thrust lever(s) are advanced after touchdown:
after 3 seconds in the advanced position, the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate
275
If the TR UNIT light illuminates in flight, why should you not use the AFDS Approach Mode on an ILS approach?
On Glideslope capture, the Bus Tie Breaker will open, resulting in part of the DC system losing power
276
If there was a leak in the Standby Hydraulic system, what indication would you expect to see for Hydraulic System B?
A decrease in System B quantity, but it would not drop to zero.
277
If there was a leak in the Standby Hydraulic system, what indication would yuo expect to see for Hydraulic System B?
A decrease in System B quantity, but it would not drop to zero.
278
If windshear is encountered during F/D take-off or go-around, and vertical speed is less than +600fpm, the F/D pitch command bar provides commands to maintain
15 degrees nose up
279
If you are approaching VMO / MMO in a VNAV descent, what change would you see on the FMA?
VNAV changes to MCP speed
280
If you attempt to start the APU and it will not start, what may be the cause?
APU fire switch on the overheat/fire panel is not in
281
If you dispatch with one centre tank inoperative, how does the MEL guide you to check that the CofG will remain in limits in the event that the other Centre Tank Pump fails in flight?
Remove the centre tank fuel weight from the Weight and Balance and add it as an authorised weight change from the table in the MEL to check that the Weight and Balance remains in limits
282
If you encounter Elevator Tab vibration, what actions should the crew take to reduce it?
Smoothly reduce airspeed without changing the configuration until the vibration stops
283
If you have completed the ENGINE OVERHEAT checklist, why will the Transponder Mode Selector be set to TA?
One engine will be running at a reduced thrust setting, so the aircraft may not be capable of adequately responding to a climb RA
284
If you have to conduct a Partial Gear Up Landing or All Gear Up Landing, what position should the Speedbrake lever be in?
DOWN. Do not arm the Speedbrake for landing
285
If you switch off both ENGINE ANTI ICE switches in flight
The engine anti ice valves will shut and the stick shaker logic returns to normal.
286
If you transmit on VHF2 for 60 seconds continuously, what will happen?
The ACP will automatically revert to receive mode after 35 seconds
287
If you were to see a crack appear in the L2 windscreen during the cruise, which statement is correct?
After carrying out the initial checklist items, move a pen or similar across the area. Determine whether the crack is on the inner or outer pane. If the crack is on the outer pane, normal operation can be continued
288
Illumination (amber) of the Electrical (ELEC) Light in flight indicates:
This light operates only when the aircraft is on the ground.
289
Illumination (blue) of a Generator Off Bus (GEN OFF BUS) Light indicates:
the IDG is not supplying power to the related transfer bus
290
Illumination (blue) of the APU GEN OFF BUS Light means the:
APU is running and not powering a bus
291
Illumination (blue) of the Ground Power Available (GRD POWER AVAILABLE) Light indicates:
ground power is connected and meets aircraft power quality standards
292
Illumination of amber FAULT light with the overheat detector switch in NORMAL indicates:
Both detector loops for an engine have failed.
293
Illumination of an amber COWL ANTI ICE light indicates:
An over pressure in the duct between the engine anti ice valve and the engine cowl lip
294
Illumination of an amber COWL ANTI-ICE light indicates:
An over pressure in the duct downstream of the engine cowl anti-ice valve.
295
Illumination of the 'APU DET INOP' Light will cause following lights to illuminate:
both 'MASTER CAUTION' and 'OVHT/DET'
296
Illumination of the 'BAT DISCHARGE' light indicates:
excessive battery discharge is detected with the battery switch ON.
297
Illumination of the 'GND POWER AVAILABLE' light indicates:
ground power is connected and meets aircraft power quality standards.
298
Illumination of the amber ‘DRIVE’ light on the overhead panel indicates:
IDG low oil pressure.
299
Illumination of the amber APU DET INOP Light will cause what else to also illuminate?
MASTER CAUTION lights and the OVHT/DET System Annunciator light
300
Illumination of the amber generator DRIVE light indicates low oil pressure caused by which of the following?
IDG failure
301
Illumination of the blue 'APU GEN OFF BUS' means:
APU is running and not powering a bus.
302
Illumination of the blue 'GEN OFF BUS' light indicates:
the IDG is not supplying power to it's associated transfer bus.
303
Illumination of the DUAL BLEED light indicates:
possible backpressure of the APU
304
In a VNAV descent and you are approaching VMO / MMO, what change may you see?
VNAV transitions to LVL CHG mode to avoid an overspeed
305
In a VNAV descent, what would be the risk associated with setting the Missed Approach Altitude when within less than 300ft of the MAA?
May cause engagement of ALT ACQ
306
In addition to Hydraulic System A and B, how else can the rudder be powered?
Standby hydraulic system through the Standby Rudder PCU
307
In addition to the ON DC light, what other indication is there that the IRSs are operating on DC power?
On the ground, the Ground Call Horn will sound
308
In audio system operation in degraded mode, what are the combinations for transmission and reception at the degraded station?
Captain - VHF-1; F/O VHF-2; Observer - VHF-1
309
In case of an engine overheat:
Both master caution lights, the related ENGINE OVERHEAT light and the OVHT/DET system annunciator lights illuminate.
310
In case of cargo compartment fire:
select the FWD ARMED or AFT ARMED switch then press the DISCH button
311
In degraded mode, what are the combinations for transmission and reception at the degraded station?
Capt. VHF 1, F.O VHF 2, Observer VHF 1.
312
In flight A Predictive Windshear Warning Alert:
Will activate for windshear up to 1.5NM ahead of the aircraft
313
In flight both centre tank fuel pumps selected OFF with more than 760 kg remaining in the centre tank, and both main tanks are full. What will be displayed on the Upper Display Unit?
A CONFIG alert under the centre fuel contents gauge
314
In flight if APU is the only source of electrical power:
all galley busses are automatically shed
315
In flight if the APU is the only source of electrical power:
Automatic Load Shedding will disconnect all Main and Galley Busses.
316
In flight if the indicated fuel temperature on the FUEL TEMP gauge were to descend to below -43 degrees Celsius, what warnings would you see on the flight deck?
There would be no additional warnings
317
In flight one centre tank fuel pump selected OFF with more than 760 kg remaining in the centre tank, and both main tanks are full. What will be displayed on the Upper Display Unit?
No indication initially. If left in this position, eventually IMBAL will be displayed
318
In flight the Predictive Windshear Warning Alert system:
will activate for windshear up to 1.5NM ahead of the aircraft
319
In flight with both PACK switches in HIGH:
None of RECIRC fans will operate.
320
In flight with the 'STANDBY POWER' switch in the AUTO position, loss of all AC generators Will result in:
AC Standby Bus is supplied by the static: inverter and DC Standby Bus is supplied by battery.
321
In flight, if the APU is the only source of electrical power:
All galley busses and main busses are automatically shed. If electrical load still exceeds design limits, both IFE busses are also automatically shed.
322
In flight, operating the Fire Warning BELL CUTOUT Switch extinguishes both Master Fire Warn Lights, silences the fire warning bell, and:
resets the system for additional warnings
323
In flight, what does the illumination of the AIR STAIR light tell you?
The airstair door is not shut. However, if pressurisation is normal you can continue normal operation
324
In flight, when does the EEC automatically select approach idle?
flaps are in the landing configuration or engine anti-ice is ON for either engine
325
In MANUAL pressurization mode the outflow valve is driven by?
a motor supplied from DC standby bus
326
In normal operation, engine overheat and fire detection alerts are triggered when
Both loops sense an overheat or fire
327
In normal operation, what are the power supplies for the Left and Right IRS?
Left IRS is fed by the AC Standby Bus, the right IRS is fed by AC Transfer Bus 2
328
In normal operation, what provides the A/T system with N1 limit values?
FMC
329
In normal operation, what provides the Autothrottle system with N1 limit values?
FMC
330
In normal operation, which hydraulic system powers the No 1 engine thrust reverser?
System A
331
In order to extend the life of the APU, & stabilization time of ____ is recommended before using it as & bleed air source:
1 minute
332
In Ryanair, what is the primary source of position information for IRS alignment?
GPS Left
333
In the cruise, what might be the first indication of jammed or restricted flight controls?
The autopilot unexpectedly trips off
334
In the event of a failure of both GPS Receivers, in addition to the GPS L INVALID and GPS R INVALID messages on the scratchpad, what other indication will you see/
TERR POS displayed in amber on the ND
335
In the event of a total failure of AC electrics, which of these will occur?
The Flap Position Indicator will stop at it's current position and will not respond to subsequent flap position changes
336
In the event of a total loss of AC power, which systems will be available?
Some ice protection systems will be unavailable, the Weather Radar will be unavailable
337
In the event of an elevator control column jam, an override mechanism allows:
The control columns to be physically separated. The column which is free to move will be able to provide elevator control.
338
In the event of an elevator jam, an override mechanism allows:
The control columns to be physically separated.
339
In the event of an engine failure, why do you change the Transponder Mode Selector from TA/RA to TA?
The aircraft may not be able to climb adequately in response to an RA
340
In the event that a GEN OFF BUS light illuminates in flight, what may occur as an indirect consequence?
If the Autopilot is engaged on the affected side, it may disconnect due to the momentary loss of power
341
In the example below of a weather radar display in the cruise, why would the weather further away from the aircraft be shown as a hatched pattern rather than solid colours?
The returns are below FL250 or more than 4000ft above the predicted flight path of the aircraft (secondary weather)
342
In the PACK fail non-normal procedure, the crew selects a warmer temperature in order to:
reduce the workload on the affected air conditioning pack
343
In the remote situation of total generator failure, at high altitude thrust deterioration may occur. Why?
The fuel will be suction fed, which may cause an accumulation of dissolved air to obstruct the suction feed line.
344
In the unlikely event that you have a total AC generator failure at high altitude, thrust deterioration may occur. Why?
The fuel will be suction fed, which may cause dissolved air released from the fuel to restrict fuel flow in the suction feed line
345
In the unlikely situation of total generator failure at high altitude, thrust deterioration may occur. Why?
The fuel will be suction fed, which may cause dissolved air released from the fuel to restrict fuel flow in the suction feed line
346
In the unlikely situation of total generator failure, at high altitude thrust deterioration may occur. Why?
The fuel will be suction fed, which may cause dissolved air released from the fuel to restrict fuel flow in the suction feed line
347
In what mode will a TCAS traffic alert automatically show the TCAS Traffic Alert message if a TA/RA occurs and the TFC switches are selected OFF?
In MAP, centre MAP, VOR or APP modes
348
In what mode will a TCAS traffic alert message automatically show if a TA/RA occurs and the TFC switches are selected OFF?
In MAP, centre MAP, PLAN or APP modes
349
In what modes will a TCAS Traffic Alert message TRAFFIC (displayed Red for RA and Amber for TA) be displayed on the ND whenever a TA or RA is active (the EFIS control panel TFC switch does not have to be selected on)?
All modes
350
In what modes will a TCAS Traffic Alert message TRAFFIC be displayed whenever a TA or RA is active (the EFIS control panel TFC switch does not have to be selected on)?
All modes
351
In which of the following situations does moving the battery switch to OFF immediately shut down the APU?
on the ground or in flight
352
In-flight, if the two fuel pump LOW PRESSURE Lights for main tank No.1 illuminate (and the amber Fuel LOW Alert on the Upper Display Unit is not displayed). What happens to the No.1 engine?
It receives fuel from main tank No.1 through a suction feed line that bypasses the pumps
353
In-flight, the two fuel pump LOW PRESSURE Lights for main tank No.1 illuminate. What happens to the No.1 engine?
It receives fuel from main tank No.1 through a suction feed line that bypasses the pumps
354
In-flight, two fuel pump LOW PRESSURE Lights for the No.1 tank illuminate. What happens to the No.1 engine?
it receives fuel by suction feed via the bypass valve in tank No.1
355
Is automatic shutdown protection provided for the APU in the event of an APU fire if the APU fire detection system is inoperative?
No
356
Landing autobrake settings may be selected after touchdown:
prior to decelerating through 30 knots of groundspeed
357
Landing gear uplock is released when:
manual gear extension handle is pulled to its limit, approximately 24inches (61cm).
358
ln addition to Hydraulic System A and B, how else can the rudder be powered?
Standby hydraulic system through the Standby Rudder PCU
359
LNAV will automatically disengage:
Reaching a route discontinuity.
360
Logo lights are installed on:
top of both horizontal stabilizers
361
Logo lights are installed on:
top of each horizontal stabilizer
362
Minimum in-flight tank fuel temperature is:
3 degrees above the fuel freezing point or -43 degrees, whichever is higher.
363
Moving the battery switch to OFF automatically shuts down the APU:
on the ground or in flight
364
Normal hydraulic brake pressure is:
3000psi.
365
Of the four lights located on the 737-800 APU control panel, which light will NOT cause an automatic shutdown of the APU when it illuminates?
MAINT
366
Of the four lights located on the APU control panel, which light will NOT cause an automatic shutdown of the APU when it illuminates?
MAINT
367
On a non-short field performance aircraft (YF501 - YW097), with the TE flaps set to position 15, what is the correct indication that should be seen on the Aft Overhead panel for the leading edge devices?
All LE devices FULL EXT lights illuminated green
368
On aircraft from EI-DPY there are new annunciators installed. Which?
Takeoff Config light and Cabin Altitude light
369
On selection of FAULT/INOP we would expect to see
Both Master Caution, OVHT/DET system annunciator, FAULT, and APU DET INOP lights illuminate
370
On take off the config warning sounds. What can be the cause?
Trailing edge flaps are in a skew condition
371
On takeoff the config warning sounds. What can be the cause?
Trailing edge flaps are in a skew condition
372
On the B737-800, If the PSEU light illuminates on recall whilst performing the APPROACH checklist; what does this indicate?
A problem exists in the PSEU system because this light should be inhibited in flight
373
On the B737-800, if the STAB TRIM AUTO PILOT switch is set to CUTOUT, how ill this affect the engagement of the Autopliot?
If the autopilot was engaged, then it will disengage. The autopilot will not be able to be re-engaged
374
On the B737-800, when will the fuel LOW alert be displayed?
When the fuel tank quantity is less than 453 kgs in related main tank
375
On the Bleed Air Duct pressure indicator the L pressure indicates 40psi, the R pressure indicates 50psi:
As long as there is sufficient air for cabin pressurization, this is normal.
376
On the FMC FIX INFO page the RAD/DIS FR indicates:
the radial and distance from the fix to the airplane, this information will update as the aircraft changes position
377
On the FMC FIX INFO page what does the RAD/DIS FR indicate?
The radial and distance from the fix to the airplane, this information will update as the aircraft changes position
378
On the ground, for primary ATC communication:
Always use No.1 VHF radio.
379
On the ground, the TR UNIT Light illuminates (amber) if:
Any TR has failed.
380
On the ground, with both Air Conditioning PACK Switches positioned to HIGH (and both packs operating) and both Recirculation RECIRC FAN Switches positioned to AUTO:
Only the Right recirculation fan will operate
381
On the ground, with both pack switches set to HIGH and both RECIRC FANs selected to AUTO:
the left recirculation fan will shut down
382
On the ground, with the Battery (BAT) Switch positioned to OFF and the STANDBY POWER Switch positioned to BAT, the switched hot battery bus is:
not powered
383
On the ground, with the BATTERY switch OFF and STANDBY POWER Switch in BAT, the switched hot battery bus is:
not powered
384
On the NG aircraft, what will cause the BLEED TRIP OFF light to illuminate?
Excessive Bleed Air Temperature or Pressure is detected
385
On the RDR-4000, what do the magenta arcs behind the weather return indicate, as illustrated below?
Heavy rain may have obscured radar radar returns in this area. There may be more hazardous weather than currently displayed
386
Once activated, a Passenger Service Unit (PSU) oxygen supply:
flows for approximately 12 minutes
387
Once activated, a PSU oxygen supply:
flows for approximately 12 minutes
388
Once activated, approximately how long will a Passenger Service Unit (PSU) supply oxygen?
12 minutes
389
One basic principle of operation for the 737 electrical system is:
there is no paralleling of the AC power sources.
390
Operating the airstairs from the exterior panel with the NORMAL/STANDBY switch set to STANDBY:
does not require the BAT switch to be ON
391
Operating the airstairs from the exterior panel with the NORMAL/STANDBY switch to STANDBY:
does not require the BAT switch to be ON
392
Operating the Cargo Fire DISCH Switch:-
results in the total discharge of the cargo compartment fire extinguisher bottle contents into the cargo hold selected by the cargo fire ARMED switch
393
Operating the EXT TEST Switch:
to position 1 or 2 tests bottle discharge circuits for all three extinguisher bottles
394
Operation of the airstairs is not recommended above which windspeed?
40kt
395
Operation of the overwing emergency exit flight locks are dependant on:
engine speed, thrust lever position, air/ground mode status, door open/closed status, DC power
396
Operation of the overwing emergency exit flight locks are dependant on:
engine speed, thrust lever position, air/ground mode status, door status
397
Operation of the overwing emergency exit flight locks are dependent on:
engine speed, thrust lever position, air/ground mode status, door door open/closed status, DC power
398
Overheat detection is available for
Engines
399
Placing the OVHT/FIRE TEST Switch to OVHT/FIRE position:
tests overheat and fire detection loops on both engines and APU, and wheel well fire detector
400
Placing the TEST switch, on fire protection panel, to FAULT/INOP position tests:
The fault detection circuit for both engines and APU.
401
Positioning an engine-driven hydraulic pump switch to OFF:
Isolates the hydraulic fluid flow from the system components, but the pump keeps rotating as long as the engine is running
402
Positioning the ENG ANTI-ICE switch to ON in flight:
Adjusts stick shaker logic and minimum maneuver speed bars whilst the switch is in the ON position
403
Positioning the WING ANTI-ICE switch to ON, in flight:
Adjusts stick shaker and minimum manoeuvring speed bars on the airspeed indications and remains set for icing conditions for the remainder of the flight.
404
Predictive windshear alerts are issued when:
below 1,200 feet RA
405
Prior to returning to the oil tank, what does engine oil pass through?
the scavenge filter and main engine oil cooler
406
Pulling an engine fire-warning switch up:
closes both the engine fuel shutoff valve and the spar fuel shutoff valve
407
Pulling the APU Fire switch up
Provides backup for the automatic shutdown feature
408
Pulling the engine fire switch up will
Close both the engine fuel shutoff and spar shutoff valves
409
Pulling the number 2 engine fire switch up will
isolate the System B engine driven Hydraulic pump but the electric motor driven pump maintains System B pressure.
410
Pushing the ATTEND call switch:
sounds a two-tone chime in the cabin and illuminates both pink master call lights
411
Pushing the VHF TEST Switch on the radio tuning panel:
improves reception of weak signals
412
Reference to Overheat/Fire Protection Panel. FAULT light illuminated amber, choose the correct answer:
With the overheat detector switch in NORMAL - indicates both detector loops for an engine have failed.
413
Retracting the airstairs using the STANDBY system on the Interior Panel:
by-passes the handrail and lower ladder safety circuits
414
Select the correct statement:
The primary flight controls are powered by hydraulic systems A and B, with backup from the standby hydraulic system for the rudder and manual reversion for the rest if system A and B pressure is lost.
415
Selecting the ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch to:
ARM, closes trailing edge flap bypass valve, activates standby pump and arms ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch.
416
Selecting the APU switch to OFF position trips the APU generator, closes the APU bleed air valve and extinguishes the APU GEN OFF BUS light. To allow for a cooling period, APU shutdown will occur automatically after a delay of _____ seconds:
60
417
Switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF:
energizes the blocking valve to block pump output.
418
Switching the CAB/UTIL Switch to the OFF position removes electrical power from all 115v AC galley busses and also from the:
left and right recirculation fans
419
The 'GROUND POWER AVAILABLE light will extinguish when:
the AC ground power cart has been disconnected.
420
The 'TR UNIT' light Will illuminate in flight if:
TR1 fails.
421
The accessories gearbox receives drive from:
the N2 rotor
422
The aircraft is not certified for operations:
above 82N or below 82S
423
The aircraft takes off with the APU powering both transfer busses:
the generators will come on line automatically if the APU is either shut down or fails.
424
The airspeed range for fully enabled speed trim operation is:
100 KIAS - Mach 0.60
425
The alpha vanes provide angle-of-attack information to the stall warning system, auto throttle, autopilot, auto slats and are anti-iced:
By independent 115V AC heating elements, controlled by the PROBE HEAT switches.
426
The ALTERNATE FLAP Master Switch in ARM position:
arms the Alternate Flaps Position Switch, activates the Standby Hydraulic Pump, and closes the TE Flap Bypass Valve.
427
The ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch selected to ARM:
Arms the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch, activates the standby hydraulic pump and closes the TE flap bypass valve
428
The amber 'ELEC' light will illuminate on the ground if:
a fault exists in the DC power or standby power system.
429
The amber 'STANDBY POWER OFF' light will illuminate if:
AC standby bus unpowered.
430
The amber FEEL DIFF PRESS light illuminates when the:
Flaps are either up or down and either hydraulic system fails or either elevator pitot system fails, and an excessive hydraulic pressure imbalance is sensed.
431
The amber fuel IMBAL alert will remain displayed until the imbalance is reduced to:
91 kgs
432
The amber LE FLAPS TRANSIT Light
is inhibited during Autoslat operation in flight
433
The amber standby hydraulic system LOW PRESSURE light is armed:
Only when standby pump operation has been selected or automatic standby function is activated.
434
The APU can supply both bleed air and electrical load up to an altitude of:
10,000 feet
435
The APU can supply both transfer buses:
On the ground or in the air.
436
The APU can supply electrical load only up to an altitude of:
41,000 feet
437
The APU generator can supply both transfer busses:
on the ground or in flight
438
The APU start cycle may take as long as ____ seconds.
120 seconds
439
The aural alert for excessive bank angle is:
BANK ANGLE, BANK ANGLE
440
The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates for 2 seconds then extinguishes. Likely cause is:
RTO mode selected on the ground.
441
The AUTO BRAKE Select Switch:
when set to RTO will apply maximum brake pressure if the thrust levers are retarded to idle at or above 90kts during takeoff.
442
The AUTO FAIL light is illuminated together with ALTN light. What does it indicate?
This indicates a single controller failure.
443
The AUTO FAIL light on the cabin pressurisation panel is illuminated alone.
This indicates a dual controller failure.
444
The Auto position of the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) On/Auto switch:
Powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes after last engine shutdown.
445
The AUTO SLAT FAIL light illuminates during MASTER CAUTION recall. The light extinguishes when master caustion system is reset. This indicates:
failure of a single Stall Management/Yaw Damper (SMYD) computer.
446
The autoslat system:
drives the slats to FULL EXTEND when TE Flaps 1 through 5 are selected and the aircraft approaches a stall.
447
The bleed air pressure indicator has L and R pointers. These pointers:
may indicate a L/R duct pressure difference which is considered normal as long as there is sufficient air for cabin pressurisation
448
The BLEED TRIP OFF light indicates an
Overpressure or Overheat in the bleed air duct system
449
The BLEED TRIP OFF light:
Indicates excessive engine bleed air pressure or temperature.
450
The blue 'APU GEN OFF BUS' light will illuminate:
when the APU is at operational speed and is not supplying an AC transfer bus
451
The brake accumulator is pressurised by which hydraulic system?
Hydraulic system B
452
The brake accumulator provides pressure to the brake system and:
parking brake system
453
The Cabin Altitude and Takeoff Configuration Warnings:
both use the same intermittent warning horn when activated
454
The cabin begins to pressurize
on the ground at high power settings
455
The call system from flight deck to an attendant station in the passenger cabin operates:
pink master call lights and a two-tone chime
456
The call system from flight deck to cabin operates:
pink call lights and a two-tone chime
457
The cargo compartment fire detection system has dual detection loops and in normal operation:
both loops must detect the presence of smoke to cause an alert.
458
The cargo compartment fire protection system includes:
A single fire extinguisher bottle
459
The cargo compartments have
Smoke detection powered by DC Bus 1 and DC bus 2
460
The center tank fuel scavenge jet pump operates when:
the No. 1 main fuel tank is about 1/2 full
461
The center tank scavenge jet pump operates when:
the No. 1 main fuel tank is about 1/2 full
462
The CFM56-7 is a twin spool engine. Which spool is connected to the accessory gearbox?
High pressure (N2)
463
The cockpit voice decorrer records audio for:
120 minutes
464
The Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) can be erased by:
Pushing the ERASE switch for 2 seconds when the aircraft is on ground and parking brake is set
465
The Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) can be erased:
Pushing erase button for 2 seconds and aircraft on ground with parking brake ON
466
The cockpit voice recorder records audio for:
120 minutes
467
The columns and wheels are connected through transfer mechanisms which allow the pilots to bypass a jammed control or surface. If the ailerons control system is jammed, force applied to:
force applied to the First Officer’s control wheel provides roll control from the spoilers. The ailerons and the Captain’s control wheel are inoperative.
468
The controller programs the cabin to land slightly pressurized. After landing to depressurize the aircraft:
while taxiing in, the controller slowly drives the outflow valve fully open.
469
The COWL ANTI-ICE light illuminates amber:
to indicate an overpressure condition in the duct downstream of the engine cowl anti-ice valve
470
The COWL ANTI-ICE light illuminates amber:
to indicate excessive pressure in the duct leading from the cowl anti-ice valve to the cowl lip
471
The Cross Bus Tie relay:
opens if the BUS TRANSFER switch is moved to OFF.
472
The curved trend vector extending from the aircraft symbol on ND MAP and MAP CTR is divided into three segments. With the range set greater than 20 nm, each segment represents:
predicts position at the end of 30,60 and 90 second intervals
473
The decision height (DH) display on the CDS is set:
independently by each pilot using his/her EFIS control panel
474
The differential pressure of the cabin is limited by a pressure relief system - which of the following statements is correct?
There are two pressure relief valves which limit differential pressure to 9.1 psi
475
The display selector on the IRS Display Unit ( ISDU ) is moved to position HDG/STS during alignment. What is shown in the right window:
right window displays minutes remaining until alignment is complete
476
The display selector on the IRS Display Unit (ISDU) is moved to position HDG/STS during alignment. What is displayed in the right window?
Minutes remaining until alignment is complete
477
The DUAL BLEED light is illuminated amber. This indicates:
Eng No 1 BLEED air switch ON and APU bleed air valve open
478
The EEC has automatically changed to Soft Alternate Mode, with the ALTN switch illuminated and the ON indication remaining visible. What would cause the EEC to change to Hard Alternate mode?
Either retarding the thrust lever to idle or manually selecting ALTN with the EEC switch on the aft overhead panel.
479
The EEC has automatically changed to Soft Alternate Mode, with the ALTN switch illuminated and the ON indication remaining visible. What would cause the EEC to change to Hard Alternate mode?
Either retarding the thrust lever to idle or manually selecting ALTN with the EEC switch on the aft overhead panel
480
The Electrical (ELEC) Light will illuminate in flight if:
the ELEC light only operates on the ground
481
The electrically driven fuel pumps for the centre tank discharge at a higher pressure than the main tanks so that the centre tank fuel is used first. Why is this?
To reduce the bending load at the root of the wing
482
The Emergency Exit Lights switch, when placed in the ARMED position:
illuminates all emergency lights automatically if airplane electrical power to DC bus No. 1 fails or AC power is turned off
483
The ENG ANTI-ICE switch are positioned to ON in flight. The stall warning logic:
Adjusts stick shaker and minimum maneuver speed bars on the airspeed indicator.
484
The engine and APU fire detection systems are run from the
Battery Bus
485
The engine bleed air valve acts as:
a pressure regulator and shutoff valve
486
The Engine Fire DISCH switches are mechanically locked in the Down position and can only be pulled Up when an Overheat or Fire is detected and the switch has illuminated
False
487
The engines and APU have fire extinguishing systems, but the cargo holds and wheel well have only suppression systems.
False
488
The engines each have an overheat light and an illuminated fire switch. The APU has an illuminated fire switch but no overheat light. The cargo compartments and the main wheel well have only fire warning light(s)
True
489
The equipment cooling system comprises:
4 fans
490
The equipment cooling system comprises:
4 fans - 2 supply duct and 2 exhaust duct
491
The fire detectors located in the forward and aft cargo holds detect a fire by what means?
Detecting smoke only
492
The First Officer observes the word PITCH displayed in amber in the lower portion of the PFD during an ILS approach. This means?
the Captain's and First Officer's pitch angle displays differ by more than 5 degrees
493
The First Officer observes the word PITCH displayed in amber in the lower portion of the PFD during an ILS approach. This means?
the Captain's and First Officer's pitch displays differ by 5 degrees or more
494
The flap load relief system is operational at (assume for aircraft YC496 through YW097):
flaps 30 and 40
495
The Flap Load Relief system:
will retract the TE Flaps from 40 to 30 if airspeed exceeds 163 knots.
496
The flap/slat electronics unit (FSEU) provides:
protection for LE devices if two or more slats on one wing move from the commanded position
497
The flight crew oxygen mask EMERGENCY/TEST Selector rotated to the EMERGENCY position:
supplies 100% oxygen under positive pressure at all cabin altitude
498
The flight crew oxygen system pressure may be as high as:
1850psi
Ryanair_questionaires
flashcards
Decks in class (32)
# Cards
-
Technical_first499498
-
Technical_second part (whole)492
-
SOP_elsofele498
-
SOP_masodikfele143
-
737_700_egesz29
-
FireFighting4
-
Birdstrike800-820039
-
MTOW change13
-
Winter Ops124
-
OPT course6
-
NAT HLA31
-
CRMS101
-
GLS5
-
Security exam159
-
DG exam97
-
Safety exam40
-
737-MAX73
-
FirstAid11
-
Aircraft type quiz20
-
GRF13
-
CRMS video31
-
SAFETY equipment video45
-
GPDR quiz4
-
FAD course26
-
Jeppesen FD Pro15
-
health and safety course19
-
Security Practice7
-
DG Practice12
-
Emergency Procedures - Practice9
-
Doors and Exits Quiz7
-
Safety Equipment Practice Quiz10
-
Flight Crew First Aid11
