1
Q
The flight crew oxygen system uses auto pressure breathing masks/regulators with pressure breathing starting at:
A
27,000 feet
2
Q
The flight directors must be ON to engage the AFDS in Go around mode?
A
FALSE
3
Q
The FMC advisory message “BUFFET ALERT” indicates:
A
Current conditions result in a manoeuvre margin less than required.
4
Q
The FMC alerting message ‘RESET MCP ALT’ means:
A
aircraft within 5 NM of the FMC calculated Top of Descent ( TOD ) point without selecting lower altitude on the MCP
5
Q
The FMC Alerting Message ‘VERIFY POSITION’ indicates:
A
position information is contradictory on the ground only
6
Q
The FMC Alerting Message RESET MCP ALT means:
A
The aircraft is within 5 NM of the FMC calculated Top of Descent ( TOD ) point without selecting a lower altitude on the MCP
7
Q
The FMC alerting message VERIFY GW AND FUEL is shown in the CDU scratchpad:
A
When fuel quantity data is invalid and estimated fuel weight has to be entered manually
8
Q
The forward cabin temperature control fails.
A
FWD CAB Temperature selector works normally, but the cabin temperature is maintained at the average of the FWD and AFT CAB temperature selector settings.
9
Q
The FSEU (flap/slat electronic unit) provides:
A
protection and indication for TE Flap asymmetry, skew and uncommanded motion.
10
Q
The fuel quantity displayed on the FMC PROGRESS Page 1 is:
A
present total fuel remaining, as obtained from the fuel quantity indication system
11
Q
The fuel quantity displayed on the FMC PROGRESS page is:
A
total fuel onboard, as obtained from the fuel quantity indication system
12
Q
The FWD and AFT cargo compartments each have smoke detectors
A
In a dual loop configuration. Normally, both detection loops must sense smoke to cause an alert
13
Q
The FWD CAB ZONE TEMP light illuminates amber. This indicates duct temperature overheat.
A
The system may be reset by pushing the TRIP RESET switch
14
Q
The Galley busses are powered from:
A
the AC Transfer busses.
15
Q
The green LE FLAPS EXT light:
A
illuminates for all LE devices fully extended (TE flap positions 10 - 40).
16
Q
The HF Sensitivity Control is used for which purpose?
A
To set HF sensitivity on the on-side HF receiver.
17
Q
The indications for the Cargo Fire test
A
Fire warning bell sounds, both master FIRE WARN lights illuminate, the extinguisher test lights illuminate, FWD and AFT cargo fire warning lights illuminate, and the cargo fire bottle DISCH light illuminates
18
Q
The indications of an engine overheat are:
A
Both MASTER CAUTION lights, the related ENG OVERHEAT light and the OVHT/DET system annunciator light illuminate.
19
Q
The isolation valve is _____ operated?
A
AC
20
Q
The ISOLATION VALVE switch is in the AUTO position, both engine bleed switches are ON, the L PACK switch is in the AUTO position and the R PACK switch is in the HIGH position. What is the position of the isolation valve?
A
Closed
21
Q
The landing gear configuration warning horn will activate anytime a gear is not down and locked:
A
with the flaps set to 15, one thrust lever at idle and the other at low power setting (below 34 degrees)
22
Q
The Landing Gear Transfer Unit:
A
Ensures System B can assist raising the gear on loss of System A
23
Q
The landing gear warning horn sounds and cannot be silenced with the landing gear warning HORN CUTOUT switch. What is the aircraft’s condition (both engines are operating)?
A
On approach passing 1500ft RA and selecting Flaps 30 with any gear not down and locked
24
Q
The landing gear warning horn sounds and cannot be silenced. What is the aircraft’s condition?
A
On approach passing 1500ft RA and selecting Flap 30 with any gear not down and locked
25
The loss of one DEU results in activation of both the EEC's in alternate mode. In this situation, which of the following statements is correct?
The soft alternate mode is entered first, using last valid flight condition to define engine parameters
26
The loss of one DEU results in activation of the EEC's alternate mode. In this situation, which of the following statements is correct?
The soft alternate mode is entered first, using last valid flight condition to define engine parameters
27
The mach/airspeed warning system can only be checked on the ground:
yes
28
The Mach/airspeed warning system provides a distinct aural warning, what does the warning sound like?
A clacker
29
The Mach/airspeed warning system provides a distinct aural warning:
a clacker
30
The main wheel well has
Fire detection only
31
The maximum differential pressure is:
9.10 psi
32
The minimum equipment requirement for RAs to be generated is if the other airplane has a working:
Mode C transponder.
33
The Navigation Display (ND) wind direction/speed and wind arrow is:
Displayed if wind speed is greater than 6 knots
34
The number of flight spoilers located on each wing are:
4
35
The number of ground spoilers on each wing are:
2
36
The number of slats located on each wing are:
Four outboard of each engine
37
The outflow valve position indicator indicates the position of the outflow valve:
in all modes
38
The packs produce the coolest temperature selected in any of the zones, with the other zones temperature controlled by adding hot trim air to produce the required temperature
True
39
The PASS OXY ON Light illuminates, what does this indicate?
Passenger oxygen system is activated
40
The picture below shows that there is a fault in the left engine Overheat/Fire Detection Loops. How would you determine which of the 2 loops had failed?
Carry out the test again one loop at a time using the OVHT DET switch selected to A and then B
41
The position trend vector extending from the aircraft symbol on the ND in modes MAP and MAP CTR is divided into three segments. With the range set greater than 20 nm, each segment represents:
predicts position at the end of 30, 60 and 90 second intervals
42
The position trend vector extending from the aircraft symbol on the ND in modes MAP and MAP CTR is divided into three segments. With the range set greater than 20 nm, what does each segment represent?
predicts position at the end of 30, 60 and 90 second intervals
43
The power source for Fire Extinguishing is:
the Hot Battery Bus
44
The Power Transfer Unit (PTU) provides a backup source of hydraulic pressure to operate the:
Autoslats and leading edge flaps and slats.
45
The Power Transfer Unit (PTU) provides an alternative source of power for the Autoslat system if:
A loss of pressure from Hydraulic System B engine driven pump is sensed
46
The Power Transfer Unit provides a backup source of hydraulic pressure to operate which of the following items?
autoslats
47
The Power Transfer Unit provides an alternate source of hydraulic power for the Autoslat System if:
a loss of pressure from the Hydraulic System B engine-driven pump is sensed.
48
The Proximity Switch Electronic Unit (PSEU) light is inhibited:
at all times in flight, when the thrust levers are advanced toward takeoff power at any time and for 30 seconds after landing.
49
The Proximity Switch Electronic Unit (PSEU) monitors:
takeoff and landing configuration warnings, landing gear, air/ground sensors
50
The purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit is to:
automatically use hydraulic system B for gear retraction if No.1 engine is lost and the landing gear lever is positioned up
51
The R ELEV PITOT Light is illuminated and both PROBE HEAT switches are in the ON position. What does this indicate?
The right elevator pitot is not heated
52
The RA aural alert 'CLIMB' CLIMB NOW' means:
Reversal manoeuvre from initial descent RA.
53
The Recirculation Fan:
reduces air conditioning pack load and the engine bleed air demand
54
The red landing gear indication lights are illuminated under which of the following conditions?
Landing gear is in disagreement with LANDING GEAR lever position OR the landing gear is not down and locked (with either or both thrust levers retarded to idle, and below 800 feet AGL).
55
The right IRS is electrically powered from:
normally AC Transfer Bus 2 - in emergency from switched hot battery bus for a maximum of 5 minutes
56
The right primary pack control fails. The right pack:
is controlled by the left pack standby control
57
The scratch pad message VERIFY GW AND FUEL appears:
When fuel data is invalid and fuel has to be entered manually.
58
The SMYD computers receive inputs from:
anti-ice controls, ADIRUs, alpha vane output, wing configuration, air/ground sensing, thrust and FMC outputs
59
The Stabilizer Trim Override Switch on the Aft Electronic Panel, when set to OVERRIDE:
Bypasses the control column actuated stabilizer trim cutout switches to restore power to the stabilizer trim switches on each control wheel
60
The supplemental and temporary data bases have storage capacity for:
40 navaids and 6 airports
61
The Takeoff Configuration Warning horn sounds if:
stabilizer trim is not in the green band
62
The TCAS symbol for proximate traffic is:
A solid white diamond
63
The TCAS symbol for proximate traffic is:
A white solid diamond
64
The terrain displayed in the Look-Ahead Terrain Alerting system is generated from
EGPWS nav data base correlated with GPS position
65
The Thermal Anti Ice indication (TAI) above each N1 indicator:
if green, the cowl anti-ice valve is open and the related engine anti-ice switch is ON
66
The thrust mode display on the upper DU shows A/T LIM in white. This means
the FMC is not providing the A/T system with N1 limit values, the A/T is using a degraded N1 thrust limit from the related EEC
67
The TR ́s ( Transformer Rectifier Units ) convert:
115 volts AC to 28 volts DC
68
The TR UNIT light will illuminate (amber) in flight if:
TR1 has failed
69
The trailing edge flaps are at 15 units. The correct indication on the aft overhead panel for the leading edge devices is:
all LE devices FULL EXT lights illuminated.
70
The trailing edge flaps are set to position 15. The correct indication on the aft overhead panel for the leading edge devices is (assume for non-Short Field Performance aircraft YC496 through YW097):
all LE devices FULL EXT lights illuminated green
71
The TRIP RESET switch is pushed to reset a PACK, WING-BODY OVERHEAT and BLEED TRIP OFF, it isolates the associated valve and extinguishes the alert
False
72
The vertical speed in white shown at the bottom (when descending) of the vertical speed indication will show when the vertical speed exceeds what figure?
400 feet per minute
73
The vertical speed in white shown at the bottom of the vertical speed indication will show when the vertical speed exceeds:
400 feet per minute
74
The wheel well is
Monitored by a single fire detector loop. As the temperature of the detector increases above a predetermined limit, the detector senses a fire condition
75
The window heat PWR TEST switch
provides a confidence test
76
The wing anti-ice system provides protection for:
the three inboard leading edge slats on each wing
77
The wing ANTI-ICE:
Is used for de-icing or anti-icing when icing conditions exist.
78
The wing-body overheat light comes on. What is the related master caution warning?
AIR COND
79
The yaw damper indicator:
indicates main yaw damper movement of rudder; pilot rudder pedal inputs are not indicated.
80
To extend the Fwd Airstair from outside the aircraft
The Battery Master Switch can be on or off and the L1 door can be shut or partially open
81
To receive NAV and ADF voice and range audio:
set the Filter Switch to BOTH
82
To see both left and right GPS position in latitude and longitude you select:
POS REF page 2/3
83
To silence the fire bell you can press either of the two Master Fire Warning (FIRE WARN) lights on the glareshield. There is another switch which will also silence the fire bell. Where is it located?
On the fire protection panel
84
True or false - "The APU fire bottle can be discharged by operating the switch on the APU Ground Control Panel even if the APU Fire Control handle has not been pulled down".
False
85
Two independent radio altimeters provide radio altitude to the respective FCC's. How will the Autopilot System be affected if one Radio Altimeter becomes inoperative?
The autopilot will disconnect two seconds after LOC and G/S capture
86
Two independent radio altimeters provide radio altitude to the respective FCC's. What affect will one radio altimeter becoming inoperative have on the Autopilot?
the autopilot will disconnect two seconds after LOC and G/S capture
87
Two independent radio altimeters provide radio altitude to the respective FCCs. With a radio altimeter inoperative, how long after LOC and GS capture will the autopilot disconnect?
2 seconds
88
Under certain conditions the power transfer unit (P TU) will supply additional volume of hydraulic fluid needed to operate specific equipment. On non-short field performance aircraft, the PTIJ operates automatically when which of the following conditions exist?
Airborne, Flaps are less than 15 but not up and SYS B engine-driven hydraulic pump output pressure drops below limits.
89
Under certain conditions the power transfer unit (PTU) will supply additional volume of hydraulic fluid needed to op erate specific equipment. The PTU operates automatically when which of the following conditions exist?
Airborne, Flaps are less than 15 but not up and SYS B engine–driven hydraulic pump drops below limits
90
Under certain conditions the power transfer unit (PTU) will supply additional volume of hydraulic fluid needed to operate specific equipment. On non-short field performance aircraft, the PTU operates automatically when which of the following conditions exist?
Airborne, Flaps are less than 15 but not up and SYS B engine-driven hydraulic pump output pressure drops below limits
91
Under normal conditions the AC Standby Bus is powered from:
AC Transfer Bus No 1.
92
Under normal conditions, from where is the AC standby bus powered?
AC transfer bus 1
93
Under normal operation the packs will produce an air temperature to satisfy
the zone that requires the most cooling.
94
Under what circumstances will the V Speed be removed from the FMC, the No V Speed Flag reappear on tthe PFD, and the Scratchpad message TAKEOFF SPEED DELETED appear?
After the first engine start, if the sensed OAT differs by more than 6 degrees C from the OAT entered on the TAKEOFF REF page
95
Under what circumstances will the V Speeds be removed from the FMC, the No V Speeds Flag reappear on the PFD, and the Scratchpad message TAKEOFF SPEEDS DELETED appear?
After first engine start, if the sensed OAT differs by more than 6 degrees C from the OAT entered on the TAKEOFF REF page.
96
Under what conditions can the APU generator can supply both transfer busses?
Both on the ground or in flight
97
Under which conditions will the Power Transfer Unit (PTU) provide analternative source of power for the Autoslat system?
A loss of pressure from Hydraulic System B engine driven pump is sensed
98
Up to how long might the APU start cycle take?
120 seconds
99
Up to what altitude may the APU be used as an electrical and bleed air source simultaneously?
10,000 ft.
100
Up to what range will turbulence be displayed in magenta on the Weather Radar display?
40 nm
101
VNAV is terminated by:
selecting a different pitch mode
102
Warm air from the E & E bay is:
diffused to the lining of the forward cargo compartment in flight at high cabin differential pressures
103
What abnormal start protection is available?
On the ground only and for hot, wet, stall and EGT exceedances
104
What action must be carried out prior to discharging a Halon fire extinguisher in the flight deck?
All flight deck crew must don oxygen masks set to 100% + emergency
105
What additional engine fire indication is shown or heard on the flight deck of later aircraft (from registration EI-FIV through EI-GXN) in the event of engine fire or during an engine fire test?
The engine start lever will illuminate red.
106
What additional items are detected on the LHS “WING-BODY OVERHEAT” alert light that are not the RHS “WING-BODY OVERHEAT” system?
Bleed duct from APU and Keel Beam
107
What airspeed must be considered when dealing with a wheel well fire situation?
Extend limit speed of 270k/.82M maximum
108
What airspeed must be considered with a wheel well fire situation?
Extend limit speed of 270k/.82M maximum.
109
What are the indications of a cargo fire?
The fire warning bell sounds, both master FIRE WARN lights illuminate and the FWD/AFT cargo fire warning light(s) illuminates.
110
What are the indications that the engine starter has disengaged?
The Engine Start Switch returns to OFF, and the START VALVE OPEN light extinguishes
111
What are the LNAV engagement criteria when more than 3 miles from the active route?
The aircraft must be on a heading that will intercept the active route before the active waypoint
112
What are the LNAV engagement criteria within 3 miles of the active route?
The aircraft can be on any heading
113
What aural alert would you hear for an excessive bank angle?
"BANK ANGLE, BANK ANGLE"
114
What causes the (blue) APU GEN OFF BUS Light to illuminate?
APU is running but not powering a bus
115
What causes the GRD POWER AVAILABLE light to illuminate?
Ground power is connected and meets aircraft power quality standards
116
What conditions must be met for the Landing Gear Transfer Unit to operate:
airborne, No1 engine RPM drops below a limit value, Landing Gear Lever is positioned UP, either main landing gear is not up and locked.
117
What do dotted red areas on the terrain display indicate?
Terrain more than 2,000 feet above airplane's current altitude
118
What do the 3 green illuminated lights at the bottom right of the diagram indicate?
Fire extinguisher circuit test is normal
119
What do the 3 green illuminated lights at the bottom right of the diagram indicate?
Fire extinguisher test continuity normal
120
What do the 3 green lights indicate, when the EXT TEST switch is moved to either 1 or 2 position?
That the circuit continuity from the squib to the engine and APU fire switch is checked.
121
What do you select to see both left and right GPS position in latitude and longitude?
POS REF page 2/3
122
What does a dotted magenta area on a terrain display indicate?
Terrain data not available
123
What does a flashing RED autopilot indicator light mean?
Autopilot has disconnected
124
What does a flashing white ALIGN light on the overhead IRS panel tell you?
The last known position or the position in the FMC is different to that calculated by the IRS
125
What does a magenta bug on the vertical speed indicator display show?
The vertical speed selected in the MCP vertical speed window with V/S pitch mode engaged
126
What does an amber ALT DISAGREE in the bottom of the altimeter tape indicate?
The captain's and first officer's altitude indications differ more than 200 feet for more than 5 seconds.
127
What does an amber CDS FAULT in the left lower corner of PFD indicate?
A non-dispatchable fault has occurred on the ground before starting second engine
128
What does an amber FAULT light mean on the IRS panel?
A system fault affecting the related IRS ATT and/or NAV modes has been detected
129
What does an amber FAULT light mean on the IRS panel?
The IRS computed latitude does not match the entered latitude
130
What does an amber IAS DISAGREE alert in the bottom of the speed tape indicate?
The Captain's and FO's airspeed indications disagree by more than 5 KTS for more than 5 continuous seconds
131
What does an amber MAP RANGE DISAGREE annunciation on the ND indicate?
The selected range on the EFIS control panel is different from the map display range.
132
What does an amber ROLL displayed in the lower portion of the attitude indicator on the PFD mean?
The Captain's and F/O's attitude displays differ by more than 5 degrees in roll.
133
What does an illuminated GEN OFF BUS light indicate?
The IDG is not supplying power to the related transfer bus
134
What does BOV stand for and what will be the effect of it on the flight directors?
BOV: Bias out of view, removes either the pitch or roll flight director depending on the event causing the bias out of view.
135
What does illumination of an amber COWL ANTI-ICE light indicate?
An over pressure in the duct downstream of the engine cowl anti-ice valve.
136
What does illumination of the ELEC light indicate during climb?
This light does not operate in flight
137
What does illumination of the ELEC light indicate whilst on the ground?
A fault exists in the DC Power System or Standby Power System
138
What does it mean when during an ILS approach the Radio Altimeter indication turns amber?
The airplane has descended below the selected radio altitude minimums
139
What does the ATT RST annunciation displayed on an ISFD mean?
Attitude must be reset using the Attitude Reset (RST) switch
140
What does the FMC Advisory Message BUFFET ALERT indicate?
Current conditions result in a manoeuvre margin less than specified.
141
What does the FMC Alerting Message 'VERIFY POSITION' indicate?
Position information is contradictory on the ground only.
142
What does the FMC Alerting Message RESET MCP ALT mean?
The aircraft is within 5 NM of the FMC calculated Top of Descent (TOD) point without selecting a lower altitude on the MCP
143
What does the fuel scavenge system do?
Transfers any remaining fuel in the centre tank to main tank number 1 as long as the fwd main tank 1 pump is operating and the main tank number one is half-full or less
144
What does the illumination (amber) of the Electrical (ELEC) Light indicate, during climb?
This light operates only when the aircraft is on the ground.
145
What does the illumination of an OVERWING warning tell you?
The related overwing exit is not closed and locked, or the flight lock has not engaged when commanded
146
What does the lower DU show when the SYS switch is pushed on the Multifunction Display (MFD) on a Ryanair aircraft?
Hydraulic pressure and quantity only
147
What does the lower DU show when the SYS switch is pushed on the Multifunction Display (MFD)?
hydraulic pressure and quantity only
148
What effect will moving the STAB TRIM OVERRIDE switch to the OVERRIDE position have?
Allows the electric stabiliser trim to be used regardless of control column position
149
What fault indications can be reset with the TRIP RESET Switch?
ZONE TEMP, PACK and BLEED TRIP OFF
150
What fixed temperature will the left pack maintain If all the temperature selectors are positioned OFF?
24°C
151
What flight deck indication would you get if there was a leak in the bleed air duct from the APU?
Illumination of the left WING BODY OVERHEAT light
152
What FMAs would be expected on selection of HEADING SELECT and VERTICAL SPEED?
MCP SPD / HDG SEL / VS
153
What happens if a persistent localizer/glideslope anomaly or ground station failure is detected during a single channel or F/D only approach?
The autopilot will disengage and/or the F/D bars will be removed
154
What happens if the primary pack controller on the right air conditioning pack fails?
The right air conditioning pack will now be controlled by the left pack's standby controller
155
What happens if you reject a takeoff after reaching 90 knots with the AUTO BRAKES in RTO?
Maximum braking is applied automatically when thrust levers are retarded to IDLE.
156
What happens if you reject a takeoff with a groundspeed of 100 knots with Autobrakes in RTO?
maximum braking is applied automatically when the forward thrust levers are retarded to idle
157
What happens to the IAS/MACH display on the MCP if the SPD INTV switch is pushed during VNAV operation?
the display opens up and shows FMC target speed
158
What indicates that the flight crew oxygen bottle may have become overheated and discharged through the Thermal Discharge Port?
The Green oxygen pressure relief disc will be found to be missing from the forward right fuselage during then Exterior Inspection
159
What indication will there be if a cowl anti-ice valve fails to move to the selected position?
The COWL VALVE OPEN light remains illuminated bright blue
160
What information is available with the IRS mode selector in ATT?
only attitude and heading information
161
What inputs does the elevator feel computer need to decide how much simulated feel it needs to provide?
Airspeed and stabilizer position
162
What is correct about the colour on the Terrain Display (with landing gear up)?
Solid red - look ahead terrain warning active
163
What is correct about the colour on the terrain display?
Solid red - look ahead terrain warning is active
164
What is indicated by illumination of the amber AUTO SLAT FAIL light during MASTER CAUTION recall that extinguishes when master caution system is reset?
Failure of a single Stall Management Yaw Damper (SMYD) computer
165
What is indicated by the Radio Tuning Panel (RTP) Offside Tuning light illuminating white?
The RTP is being used to tune a radio not normally associated with that RTP.
166
What is indicated if when pressing Master Caution Recall, the ZONE TEMP Light for the CONT CAB illuminates (amber)?
Failure of either the flight deck primary or standby temperature control
167
What is one indication of a leak in the Standby Hydraulic System?
decrease in System B quantity
168
What is the approximate engine starter cutout speed?.
56% N2
169
What is the cause of a wing-body overheat?
A bleed air duct leak
170
What is the condition of the VALVE OPEN Light when the crossfeed selector is positioned OPEN and the crossfeed valve is closed?
illuminated bright blue
171
What is the correct aural alert for excessive bank angle?
"BANK ANGLE, BANK ANGLE"
172
What is the correct sequence regarding the SPAR VALVE CLOSED light during a normal engine shutdown procedure after the START LEVER is positioned to CUTOFF?
Transitions from extinguished, to bright and then dim
173
What is the correct sequence regarding the SPAR VALVE CLOSED light during a normal engine start procedure after the START LEVER is positioned to IDLE detent?
Transitions from dim, to bright and then extinguishes
174
What is the effect of pulling up the No1 Fire DISCH switch?
Closes engine and spar fuel shutoff valves, closes engine bleed air valve, trips IDG control relay, closes hydraulic fluid shutoff valve and isolates EDP low pressure light, disables thrust reverser, arms one Squib on both engine fire bottles, and allows the DISCH switch to be rotated left or right.
175
What is the effect on the spark igniters if the start switches are position to FLT?
Both igniters operate with the start lever in idle regardless of the position of the ignition select switch
176
What is the EGT limit for engine starting on the ground?
725°C
177
What is the electrical power source of the APU fire detection system?
the Battery Bus
178
What is the electrical power source of the engine overheat and fire detection system?
the battery bus
179
What is the electrical source of power for the cargo compartment smoke
the DC bus 1 and the DC bus 2
180
What is the electrical source of power for the engine fire extinguishing system?
The Hot battery bus
181
What is the first item on the CARGO FIRE checklist, and what is the effect of this action?
Press the FWD or AFT CARGO FIRE ARM switch. The white ARMED caption will illuminate and the fwd or aft squib will be armed, but not discharge
182
What is the flight deck annunciation if one cargo smoke detector in a loop fails?
The DETECTOR FAULT light will illuminate, but only when a cargo fire test is manually initiated.
183
What is the function of the Force Fight Monitor in the main Rudder PCU?
It monitors the pressures being applied to the A and B actuators. it automatically turn on the Standby Hydraulic pump and open the standby rudder shutoff valve to pressurize the standby rudder PCU if opposing forces are detected
184
What is the function of the Speed Trim system?
Provide trim inputs to improve speed stability characteristics during manual flight
185
What is the function of the TR´s (Transformer Rectifier Units)?
To convert 115 volts AC to 28 volts DC
186
What is the function of the TRIP RESET switch on the overhead pressurization panel?
To reset a bleed trip off, pack trip off and zone temp malfunction
187
What is the hydraulic sysytem maximum pressure indication, and what colour is it displayed?
3500 psi in white
188
What is the implication of the GPWS INOP light illuminating?
Some or all GPWS alerts are not available. However, any alerts that are generated are valid
189
What is the indication of Crossfeed VALVE OPEN Light when the CROSSFEED selector is positioned OPEN and the crossfeed valve is closed?
Illuminated bright blue
190
What is the indication of the Crossfeed VALVE OPEN Light when the CROSSFEED selector is positioned OPEN and the crossfeed valve is closed?
illuminated bright blue
191
What is the maximum authorized thrust reduction below any certified rating?
0.25
192
What is the maximum crew oxygen system pressure?
1850 psi
193
What is the maximum difference between the FMC GP Angle and the Approach Plate GP angle allowed for a RNAV (GPS, GNSS) A
+\- 0.1
194
What is the maximum flap extension altitude?
20,000 feet
195
What is the maximum permitted lever position of the speed brake lever in flight?
FLIGHT DETENT
196
What is the maximum thrust reduction authorized below any certified rating?
25%
197
What is the meaning of a solid white diamond displayed on TCAS?
Proximate Traffic
198
What is the meaning of the Offside Tuning Light (the white light just above the Transfer Switch on the Radio tuning Panel)?
The radio normally associated with this panel is being tuned by another radio tuning panel, or the radio tuning panel is being used to tune a radio not normally associated with this radio tuning panel
199
What is the minimum altitude (AGL) for selecting CMD on the second autopilot to execute a dual channel A/P approach?
800 feet
200
What is the minimum distance required to make a turn away from an obstacle to the front of the aircraft?
7.4m
201
What is the minimum fuel quantity limitation for ground operation of the electric motor-driven hydraulic pumps?
760 Kgs in the related main tank.
202
What is the minimum in-flight tank fuel tem rature?
3°C above the fuel freezing point or -43°C whichever is higher
203
What is the minimum pavement width for a 180 degree turn?
24.3M
204
What is the minimum width of pavement for a 180 degree turn for a 737-800 with winglets?
24.3 Meters
205
What is the number of the extinguisher bottles fitted for the cargo compartment fire suppression system?
1 bottle
206
What is the purpose of the isolation valve?
To Isolate the left and the right sides of the bleed air duct.
207
What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit?
Ensures that the landing gear can be raised at the normal rate if the output from System A is insufficient
208
What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit?
Ensures that the landing gear can be raised at the normal rate if the output from System A is insufficient
209
What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit?
To automatically use power from hydraulic system B to assist landing gear retraction to achieve the normal rate of retraction if hydraulic system A engine driven pump pressure falls below a preset value
210
What is the purpose of the Nose Wheel Steering Lockout Pin (Bypass Pin)?
Depressurises nose wheel steering allowing pushback or towing without having to depressurise the hydraulic systems
211
What is the purpose of the ram air system?
To provide cooling for the heat exchangers
212
What is the purpose of the recirculation fans?
To reduce the workload on the PACKs
213
What is the range of the individual temperature selectors?
Approximately 18°C to 30°C
214
What is the result if all temperature zone selectors are positioned to OFF?
Left pack will produce 24 degrees centigrade and right pack will produce 18 degrees centigrade
215
What is the result if both ENGINE ANTI-ICE switches are positioned to OFF in flight?
The cowl anti-ice valves will shut and the stall warning logic returns to normal if wing anti-ice has not been used in flight.
216
What is the result if one pack fails in-flight?
The remaining pack is capable of maintaining pressurisation and acceptable cabin temperatures up to 41,000 feet
217
What is the result if the airplane pitch attitude reaches the Pitch Limit Indication?
Stick shaker activates for existing flight conditions
218
What is the result if the forward thrust lever(s) are advanced during the first 3 seconds after touchdown?
The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will not illuminate.
219
What is the result of a flight attendant station calling the flight deck?
Blue call light illuminates and a single chime is heard.
220
What is the result of a fluid leak in the System A electric motor-driven pump?
System A reservoir fluid quantity decreases to zero and all System A pressure is lost.
221
What is the result of positioning the WING ANTI-ICE switch to ON, in flight?
Adjusts stick shaker and minimum manoeuvring speed bars on the airspeed indications and remains set for icing conditions for the remainder of the flight
222
What is the result of pushing the ATTEND call switch?
Sounds a two-tone chime in the passenger cabin and illuminates both pink master call lights.
223
What is the result of pushing the VHF TEST Switch on the radio tuning panel?
Improves reception of weak signals.
224
What is the result of selecting the ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch to ARM?
Arms the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch, activates the standby hydraulic pump and closes the TE flap bypass valve
225
What is the result of selecting the Stabilizer Trim Override Switch (on the AFT Electronic Panel) to OVERRIDE?
Bypasses the control column actuated stabilizer trim cutout switches to restore power to the stabilizer trim switches on each control wheel
226
What is the result of the APU GEN OFF BUS light failing to illuminate by the end of the APU start cycle?
The FAULT light illuminates
227
What is the result when the engine start lever is placed to CUTOFF?
The spar fuel shutoff valve and engine fuel shutoff valve both close
228
What is the source of electrical power for the engine fuel shutoff valves?
the Battery Bus
229
What is the speed range for fully enabled speed trim operation?
100 KIAS - Mach 0.60
230
What is the status of the deadbolt if the levers are in the position shown?
The door is locked and cannot be opened by the key
231
What is the TCAS symbol for proximate traffic?
A solid white diamond
232
What is the wingspan of a 737-800 with winglets?
35.79 Meters
233
What is the wingspan of a wingleted aircraft?
35.79M
234
What is the wingtip height of a blended wing aircraft?
6.4 M.
235
What is the wingtip height of a blended wing aircraft?
6.42M
236
What items make up the Automatic Flight System (AFS)?
the autopilot, flight directors (AFDS) and the autothrottles (A/T)
237
What may be an indication of a fuel leak during the cruise?
An IMBAL alert, excessive fuel flow to one engine or total fuel being considerably less than planned fuel
238
What may cause the EEC to enter Soft Alternate mode?
If the EEC loses the required signals to operate in Normal Mode.
239
What may the failure of a single Centre Tank pump in flight with all fuel pumps switched ON lead to?
A fuel IMBAL
240
What minimum separation should should you aim to achieve between the aircraft and a storm cell displayed on the Weather Radar Display?
At least 20 miles, ideally upwind of the cell
241
What modes can the EECs operate in?
Normal, Soft Alternate and Hard Alternate
242
What must be sensed by the detector loops to cause an engine overheat/fire alert?
Temperature
243
What operates the spar fuel shutoff valve?
DC from Hot Battery Bus
244
What operates the spar fuel shutoff valve?
DC motor from Hot Battery Bus
245
What pitch mode is annunciated in the FMA after takeoff when the autopilot is first engaged in CMD?
MCP SPD
246
What position must the forward entry door be in when extending the forward airstairs using the external controls?
Can be in any position
247
What position should the ignition select switch be in for operations from a manned maintenance station?
Right
248
What position should the Landing Gear Lever be in (if possible) when operating the manual Gear Extension on a B737NG?
OFF
249
What powers the AUTOSLAT system?
is normally powered by Hydraulic System B
250
What precaution regarding the use of the APU should you take if the APU DET INOP light is illuminated?
Do not run the APU
251
What precaution should be taken when responding to a CONFIG alert?
Do not accomplish the checklist until established in a level flight attitude
252
What protection does the flap/slat electronics unit (FSEU) provide?
Protection from uncommanded motion, for LE devices if two or more slats on one wing move from the commanded position
253
What protection is provided during alternate brake operation?
Skid, locked wheel, touchdown and hydroplane
254
What systems can the Standby Hydraulic System power when activated?
Standby yaw damper, LE Flaps and Slats (extend only), Thrust Reversers and the Rudder
255
What systems need pneumatic power for operation?
Engine starting, Air conditioning/Pressurization, wing and engine anti-ice, hydraulic reservoirs and water tank pressurization
256
What will be displayed in the FMAs if in level flight on a radar heading and APP mode is selected prior to LQG/GS capture?
MCP SPD / HDG SEL (VORLOC below in white) /ALT HOLD (GS below in white)
257
What will be displayed in the FMAs if LVL change is selected in descent? (LNAV selected as the roll mode)
RETARD then ARM / LNAV / MCP SPD
258
What will be the result on the APPROACH REF page if airplane gross weight is not available from the FMC?
GROSS WT will display box prompts
259
What will cause the ANP scales to expand out to the centre and turn amber?
The ANP is equal to RNP. The bars turn amber once the deviation is within the ANP bar limit for 5 continuous seconds
260
What Will cause the FEEL DIFF PRESS light to illuminate?
Flaps are either up or down and either hydraulic system fails or eitherelevator pitot system fails, and an excessive hydraulic pressure imbalance is sensed
261
What would be the most likely cause of the following indications in flight?
Failure of the Left FMC
262
What would be the result of a fluid leak from the outlet side of the System A electric motor-driven pump?
System A reservoir fluid quantity decreases to zero and all System A pressure is lost
263
What would cause a BLEED TRIP OFF light to illuminate?
Excessive temperature or pressure detected in the bleed air supplied by an engine
264
What would system B hydraulic fluid indication decrease to, if there was a leak in the standby hydraulic system?
Approximately 72%
265
What would you expect to see when the standby hydraulic system is automatically activated?
Illumination of the STBY RUD ON, Master Caution, and FLT CONT lights
266
When a lavatory fire is detected:
the fire extinguisher operates automatically
267
When AC Power is lost and both IRSs are operating on DC power, for how long will each IRS operate?
The right IRS will operate for 5 minutes, the Left IRS will operate for as long as battery power is available
268
When ALL of the AC fuel pumps are switched on and operating and there is fuel in each tank, which tank would fuel for the APU normally be supplied from?
The Centre tank
269
When an active database expires in flight:
The expired data base continues to be used until the data base is changed after landing.
270
When an active navigation database expires in flight:
The expired database continues to be used until the active date is changed after landing.
271
When are all TCAS alerts inhibited?
During GPWS and Windshear warnings
272
When are the NO SMOKING signs illuminated?
The NO SMOKING Signs are illuminated at all times
273
When Auto is selected, FASTEN BELTS and RETURN TO SEAT signs:
illuminate when flap or gear are extended
274
When below radio altitude minimums, the Rad Alt display on the PFD:
dial perimeter and pointer turn amber and flash for 3 seconds
275
When both hydraulic pumps for a system are off, the indicated system pressure may read system reservoir pressure, this is normally?
less than 100psi
276
When can you expect the EGPWS 'five hundred' call?
When descending through 500ft RA outside 2 dots of the LLZ
277
When control wheel pressure is released during CWS roll operation, the aircraft will roll wings level when the bank angle has not exceeded what angle?
6 degrees
278
When control wheel pressure is released during CWS roll operation, the aircraft will roll wings level when the bank angle is:
6 degrees or less
279
When disarming the Autobrake System which of the following does NOT cause the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light to illuminate?
Positioning the AUTO BRAKE select switch to OFF
280
When does a magenta bug on the vertical speed indicator display show?
The speed selected in the MCP vertical speed window with V/S pitch mode engaged
281
When does the Rad Alt display a digital readout only?
Between 2,500ft AGL and 1,000ft AGL
282
When does the Rad Alt display a digital readout only?
From 2,500ft AGL to 1,000ft AGL
283
When does the Rad Alt display a digital readout with no circular display around it?
From 2,500ft AGL to 1 ,000ft AGL
284
When does the underspeed limiting symbol (flashing "A") appear in the MCP IAS/Mach display?
The highest of the other three answers
285
When extending or retracting the TE Flaps with the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch, allow 15 seconds to elapse between consecutive selections:
to avoid damage to the alternate flap motor clutch.
286
When extending the flaps using ALTERNATE FLAPS switch, why should you carefully monitor the Flap Position Indicator as the flaps extend?
No asymmetry protection is provided when using the Alternate Flap system
287
When Ground Power is available and selected ON, which AC Transfer Bus(es) are powered?
AC Transfer Bus 1 and AC Transfer Bus 2
288
When is a resolution advisory generated?
When the other aircraft is approx 25 seconds from point of closest approach
289
When is the "RF" Indication dispayed to the right of hydraulic system quantity?
When hydraulic quantity is below 76% in either system A or B on the ground with engine shutdown.
290
When is the "RF" Indication displayed to the right of hydraulic system quantity?
When hydraulic quantity is below 76% in either system A or B on the ground with engines shut down
291
When is the current Mach numberdisplayed at the bottom of the airspeed indications tapeon the PFD?
When airspeed is 0.40 Mach and above
292
When is the descent mode activated if the pressurization mode selector is in the AUTO position?
When the aircraft descends 0.25 psi below the selected FLT ALT.
293
When is the STANDBY HYDRAULIC LOW QUANTITY light armed?
At all times
294
When is the standby hydraulic system automatically activated?
The main rudder PCU Force Fight Monitor (FFM) trips
295
When operating on standby power only:
the Captain's PFD and ND will operate
296
When operating on standby power:
only the CAPT's pitot probe is heated
297
When operating on standby power:
Only the captain's pitot probe is heated and the CAPT PITOT amber light will not illuminate for a failure.
298
When operating on standby power:
Only the captain's pitot probe is heated. The CAPT PITOT amber light will not illuminate for a failure.
299
When operating on the Standby Pack Controls, what temperatures will the packs be producing?
An average temperature for the two cabin zones
300
When operating with normal power sources available, placing the Battery (BAT) Switch to OFF will remove power from:
The battery bus and switched hot battery bus.
301
When performance is limited, such as with an inoperative engine, to prevent receiving RAs beyond the airplane's capabilities:
Select TA
302
When pressing Master Caution Recall the CONT CAB amber ZONE TEMP light illuminates. What is correct?
Due to failure of the primary flight deck temperature control, automatic switching to the backup system has occurred.
303
When selecting reverse thrust, when can the reverse thrust levers be increased beyond the idle detent?
Once the reverser sleeves approach the fully deployed position
304
When the aircraft batteries are the only source of power:
The Captain's inboard and outboard DUs operate until the battery is discharged.
305
When the ALT-NORM switch on the Audio Control Panel (ACP) is set to ALT:
The ACP at that station is inoperative but the crewmember can communicate on one radio.
306
When the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch is selected DOWN:
this fully extends LE devices using standby hydraulic pressure, electrically extends TE flaps.
307
When the Audio System is operating in the degraded mode:
First Officer can only transmit and receive on VHF 2
308
When the engine start lever is placed to CUTOFF:
The spar fuel shutoff valve and engine fuel shutoff valve both close.
309
When the gear is down with 3 greens showing on the centre panel:
the gear is down and locked, even if a corresponding landing gear indicator light on the overhead panel is NOT illuminated.
310
When the Landing Gear Lever is positioned DOWN, under normal circumstances the landing gear extends by:
all of the above.
311
When the landing gear Manual Extension Access Door is open:
manual landing gear extension is possible with landing gear lever in any position.
312
When the RHS pilot omits to set the minima on the baro, but the LHS pilot sets the minima correctly:
there will be a GPWS 'minimums' callout since the callouts are based on the captains minimums selector
313
When the STANDBY POWER Switch is OFF (the center position):
The 'STANDBY PWR OFF' light will illuminate (amber)
314
When the STANDBY POWER switch is selected OFF:
AC standby bus, static inverter, and DC standby bus are not powered.
315
When using the APU in flight, which of the following statements is true?
The APU may be used as an electrical and bleed air source simultaneously up to 10,000 feet
316
When will hydraulic pressure from System B be used to retract the landing gear?
Number 1 engine RPM drops below limit value, with either main landing gear still down and the landing gear lever is positioned UP.
317
When will LNAV automatically disengage?
Reaching a route discontinuity.
318
When will the amber LOW PRESSURE Lights for the Engine Driven Hydraulic Pumps (EDP) extinguish?
Normally when the respective engine has been started
319
When will the APU GEN OFF BUS illuminate?
When the APU is at operational speed but is not supplying an AC transfer bus
320
When will the deflector doors extend?
On the ground prior to liftoff and after touchdown.
321
When will the descent mode be activated in the pressurization system?
When descending 0.25psi below the selected altitude
322
When will the FMC Alerting Message VERIFY GW AND FUEL be shown in the CDU scratchpad?
When fuel quantity data is invalid and estimated fuel weight has to be entered manually.
323
When will the fuel LOW alert be display?
When the fuel tank quantity is less than 453 kgs in related main tank
324
When will the low fuel warning be activated?
When the fuel tank quantity is below 453kgs in related main tank
325
When will the TR UNIT light illuminate in flight?
When TR1 has failed
326
When would a fuel LOW indication be displayed?
When a main tank quantity is less than 453Kg
327
Where are the “Bleed Air” trip sensors located?
Before and after the bleed air valve
328
Where are the bleed trip sensors installed?
Sensors are positioned on both sides of the engine bleed air valve.
329
Where are the Logo lights installed?
On top of each horizontal stabilizer
330
Where are the wing-body overheat sensors located?
Engine struts, wing inboard leading edges, air conditioning bays, APU bleed duct, keel beam
331
Where do the SMYD computers receive inputs from to determine when a Stall Warning is required?
Anti-ice controls, ADIRUs, alpha vane output, wing configuration, air/ground sensing, thrust and FMC outputs
332
Where does air for APU cooling enter?
enters through a cooling air inlet above the APU exhaust outlet
333
Where is the Air Driven Starter fitted?
On the front of the accessory gearbox
334
Where is the Engine Fuel Flow is measured?
after passing through the engine fuel shutoff valve
335
Where is the flight crew oxygen pressure displayed on the flight deck?
On the crew oxygen pressure indicator on the aft overhead panel
336
Where is the flight crew oxygen system pressure displayed on the flight deck?
On the crew oxygen pressure indicator on the aft overhead panel
337
Where is the GROUND SERVICE Switch located?
On the Forward Attendant´s panel
338
Where is the heat exchanger for hydraulic system A fluid located?
In main fuel tank No.1.
339
Where is the right IRS electrically powered from?
Normally AC Transfer Bus 2 - if AC power is not normal from the switched hot battery bus for a maximum of 5 minutes
340
Which A/T modes permit manual thrust changes without A/T interference?
THR HLD and ARM
341
Which are the correct FMA modes, during NADP 2, A/P engaged, before flaps up (Thrust Mode : Roll Mode : Pitch Mode)?
N1 : LNAV : MCP SPD
342
Which are the indication of an engine FIRE?
The Fire Warning Bell sounds, both master FIRE WARN illuminate and the related Engine Fire switch illuminates.
343
Which bus is always connected to the main battery?
Hot Battery Bus
344
Which bus powers the auxiliary battery charger?
AC ground service bus 1
345
Which bus supplies electrical power to the main battery charger?
AC ground service bus 2
346
Which engines power the Boeing 737-800?
CFM56-7 dual-rotor axial-flow turbofans
347
Which flight instrument displays are available when the batteries are the only source of power:
Captain's inboard ND and Captain's outboard PFD.
348
Which hydraulic system normally powers the AUTOSLAT system?
Normally powered by Hydraulic System B
349
Which hydraulic system normally powers the Autoslats
Hydraulic system B
350
Which hydraulic system normally powers the thrust reversers?
System A for engine No 1 and system B for engine No 2
351
Which is the ND symbol for a traffic advisory?
Solid amber circle
352
Which light will illuminate if the APU GEN OFF BUS light fails to illuminate by the end of the start cycle?
the FAULT light illuminates
353
Which mode for the flight crew Oxygen Mask will deplete the oxygen supply at the highest rate?
EMER
354
Which mode must be armed before the second autopilot can be selected during a dual channel A/P approach?
APP
355
Which mode must be selected on the MCP before the second A/P can be selected to engage in CMD during a dual channel A/P approach?
APP
356
Which of the following actions occur when positioning the Engine Start Lever to CUTOFF?
closes both spar and engine fuel shutoff valves
357
Which of the following actions would cause a displayed ENG FAIL Alert to extinguish?
Engine fire warning switch pulled
358
Which of the following actions would terminate VNAV?
selecting a different pitch mode
359
Which of the following annunciators are NOT fitted on the flight deck?
Lavatory Fire warning light
360
Which of the following annunciators are NOT fitted on the flight deck?
Lavatory Fire warning light
361
which of the following anunciator are NOT fitted on the flight deck?
Lavatory Fire warning ligth
362
Which of the following are not heated?
Static ports
363
Which of the following are powered by the Standby Hydraulic system?
Leading edge devices, rudder, thrust reversers and standby yaw damper.
364
Which of the following command the Overwing Emergency Exits locks to operate?
Engine speed, thrust lever position, air/ground mode status, door open/closed status, DC power
365
Which of the following conditions would allow the Thrust Reversers to deploy if selected?
When the air ground safety sensor is in the ground mode
366
Which of the following conditions must exist to arm the RTO mode prior to takeoff?
Forward thrust levers positioned to IDLE.
367
Which of the following conditions will cause the AUTOFAIL light to illuminate?
Excessive differential pressure (> 8.75 psi)
368
Which of the following situations would cause illumination of the amber DUAL BLEED light?
APU bleed air valve open and engine No. 1 BLEED air switch on
369
Which of the following statements is correct during an autopilot ILS approach?
At glideslope capture DC Bus 1 and DC Bus 2 are isolated from each other
370
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the cross bus tie relay operation?
It opens to isolate DC bus 1 from DC bus 2 if the BUS TRANSFER Switch is moved to OFF.
371
Which of the following statements is correct when the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) switch is set to AUTO
Powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes after last engine shutdown.
372
Which of the following statements is one of the basic principles of operation for the 737 electrical system?
There is no paralleling of the AC sources of power
373
Which of the following statements is true, when the Thrust Reverser (REV) indication is displayed green?
the thrust reverser is deployed
374
Which of the following statements will cause the landing gear configuration warning horn to activate if a gear is not down and locked?
Flaps set to 15, one thrust lever at idle and the other at low power setting
375
Which of the following statements would cause the EEC to automatically turn off ignition, and shut of fuel to the engine when the EGT display box and dial turn red?
the EGT exceeds the starting limit during ground starts
376
Which of the following will cause activation of the takeoff configuration warning horn?
Spoilers not down with the speed brake lever in the down position.
377
Which of the statements is true when checking the mach/airspeed warning system?
The system should be checked on the ground
378
Which of these conditions would cause an IDG "DRIVE" light to illuminate in flight?
IDG low oil pressure
379
Which of these conditions would cause FCCs to control their respective flight director modes (neither autopilot engaged in command)?
GA mode engaged and below 400ft RA
380
Which of these could cause a steady RED AUTOPILOT indicator light?
ALT ACQ mode inhibited during A/P go–around if stabilizer not trimmed for single A/P operation
381
Which of these indications can be reset by using the TRIP RESET switch?
BLEED TRIP OFF
382
Which of these is a precaution that you should take after a cargo fire extinguisher has been discharged in flight?
Inform the ground personnel NOT to open any cargo door until the passengers and crew have disembarked and fire-fighting equipment is ready nearby
383
Which of these is an AFDS status mode?
FD
384
Which of these may cause the Landing Gear to not raise if the Landing Gear Lever is selected to the UP position?
The Landing Gear Manual Extension Access Door is not fully closed
385
Which of these pressures can be indicated by the Hydraulic Brake Pressure Indicator?
Maximum pressure of 3500 psi.
386
Which of these settings would cause a takeoff configuration warning if the thrust levers were advanced?
Spoiler Control valve is open
387
Which one of these will cause the autopilot to disconnect?
All of the other answers are correct
388
Which radio is used on the ground, for primary ATC communication?
Always use the VHF-1 radio.
389
Which services does the STANDBY HYDRAULIC SYSTEM supply?
Rudder, Thrust Reversers, Leading Edge Flaps and Slats
390
Which statement is correct at that station, when the Captain's ACP operating in degraded mode?
Audio warnings for altitude alert, GPWS and windshear are not heard.
391
Which statement is correct for a landing made with RTO selected?
AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates 2 seconds after touchdown and no automatic braking action occurs
392
Which statement is correct for a loss of hydraulic system B (system A operating normally), and no switches have been repositioned yet?
Main and Standby Yaw Dampers are not available
393
Which statement is correct for an aircraft taking off with the APU powering both transfer buses?
he engine generators are automatically connected to their related transfer buses if the APU is shut down
394
Which statement is correct for the fuel quantity displayed on the FMC PROGRESS Page 1?
Displays present total fuel remaining, as obtained from the fuel quantity indication system
395
Which statement is correct for when the window heat Test Switch is put into the OVHT position?
A duct temperature overheat or failure of both flight deck primary and standby temperature controlle
396
Which statement is correct for when the window heat Test Switch is put into the OVHT position?
Simulates an overheat condition in order to test the system
397
Which statement is correct for wing ANTI-ICE?
It is used for de-icing or anti-icing when icing conditions exist
398
Which statement is correct if a fire extinguisher is to be discharged on the flight deck?
All flight deck crewmembers must wear oxygen masks with EMER selected
399
Which statement is correct if an engine fails in flight?
The engine out cruise (ENG OUT CRZ) page is information only and the EXEC light will not illuminate.
400
Which statement is correct if during RECALL on TAXI CHECKLIST, you push and release either system annunciator panel, the IRS light comes ON, and the GPS light is illuminated (amber) on the AFT OVERHEAD PANEL but extinguishes when Master Caution is reset?
A single GPS sensor unit has failed
401
Which statement is correct if during VNAV operations the Fuel Quantity Indicating System fails?
The flight crew manually enter (and periodically update) estimated fuel weight on the FMC PERF INIT page to keep gross weight current and performance data valid.
402
Which statement is correct in relation to the amber fuel IMBAL alert?
It will remain displayed until the imbalance reduces to 91 kgs or less
403
Which statement is correct in relation to the APU fuel supply:
If the AC fuel pumps are not operating, fuel is suction fed from the No. 1 tank. During APU operation, fuel is automatically heated to prevent icing.
404
Which statement is correct in relation to the extension of the airstairs from the exterior panel?
The Battery Master Switch can be on or off and the L1 door can be shut or partially open
405
Which statement is correct in the event of an elevator control column jam, and the override mechanism has been operated?
The control columns are physically separated. The column which is free to move will be able to provide elevator control.
406
Which statement is correct regarding ground operations of the electric-driven hydraulic pumps?
A minimum of 760kg of fuel must be present in the related main tank
407
Which statement is correct regarding the APU Bleed Air Valve:
The APU bleed air valve is DC controlled and pressure operated
408
Which statement is correct regarding the supply of bleed air from the APU:
The APU is capable of supplying bleed air for two packs on the ground, or one pack in flight
409
Which statement is correct when an active navigation database expires in flight?
The expired database continues to be used until the active date is changed after landing
410
Which statement is correct when both loops in the cargo compartment fire detection system are operating normally?
Both loops must detect the presence of smoke to cause an alert
411
Which statement is correct when on the ground, with the BAT switch positioned to OFF and the STANDBY PQWER Switch positioned to BAT?
The Switched Hot Battery Bus is not powered
412
Which statement is correct when operating on standby power only?
The Captain's PFD and ND will operate
413
Which statement is correct when operating on standby power?
only the CAPT's pitot probe is heated
414
Which statement is correct when retracting the airstairs using the STANDBY system on the Interior Panel?
The handrail and lower ladder safety circuits are bypassed
415
Which statement is correct when selecting a landing autobrake setting after touchdown?
Autobrakes will initiate is selected prior to decelerating through 30 knots of groundspeed
416
Which statement is correct when selecting an arrival for either the origin or destination airport on the FMC DEP/ARR page?
Both the origin and destination airport are available.
417
Which statement is correct when the aircraft batteries are the only source of power?
The Captain's inboard and outboard DUs operate until the battery is discharged
418
Which statement is correct when the aircraft is in flight, with 2500 kgs of fuel in main tank No.1 and 3100 kgs of fuel in main tank No.2?
This will cause an amber IMBAL alert below main tank No.1. The fuel quantity digits for the tank also turn amber
419
Which statement is correct when the airplane has descended below the radio altitude minimums?
On the Rad Alt display on the PFD, the dial display and pointer turn amber and flash for 3 seconds
420
Which statement is correct when the ALT-NORM switch on the Audio Control Panel (ACP) is set to ALT?
The ACP at that station is inoperative but the crewmember can communicate on one radio.
421
Which statement is correct when the APU is the only source of electrical power in flight?
All galley busses are automatically shed
422
Which statement is correct when the Audio System is operating in the degraded mode?
First Officer can only transmit and receive on VHF-2.
423
Which statement is correct when the CROSSFEED selector is positioned OPEN and the crossfeed valve is closed?
Crossfeed VALVE OPEN light illuminated bright blue
424
Which statement is correct when the flight crew oxygen mask EMERGENCY/TEST Selector is rotated to the EMERGENCY position?
Supplies 100% oxygen under positive pressure at all cabin altitude
425
Which statement is correct:
Bleed air is only supplied from the 9th stage when the valve modulates open if bleed air requirement is greater than the 5th stage alone can supply
426
Which statement is NOT true with regard to the lavatory smoke detection system?
If the lavatory smoke detection system is actiated, lavatory fire extinguisher system activates automatically.
427
Which statement is true for the Autoslat system?
The Autoslat system drives the slats to the full extended position when the LE slats are in the extend position as the aircraft approaches the stall angle
428
Which statement is true if the spoilers have become jammed?
The captain's control wheel operates the ailerons
429
Which statement is true in relation to smoke being detected in the FWD Lavatory?
There is no flight deck indication
430
Which statement is true regarding aileron trim?
If the autopilot is engaged the amount of trim is not indicated on the scale.
431
Which statement is true when the landing gear Manual Extension Access Door is open?
manual landing gear extension is possible with landing gear lever in any position.
432
Which statement is true when the STANDBY POWER Switch is selected to OFF (the center position)?
The 'STANDBY PWR OFF' light will illuminate (amber)
433
Which statement is true?
rudder pedal steering is deactivated as the nose gear strut extends
434
Which system provides hydraulic pressure for normal Nose Wheel Steering?
System A.
435
Which system provides hydraulic pressure for normal Nose Wheel Steering?
Hydraulic System A
436
Which systems use engine bleed air for operation?
Engine starting, Air con/Press, Wing and Engine anti-ice, Hydraulic and water tanks pressurization.
437
Which turbine stages supply air to the bleed air systems?
5th and 9th stages
438
Which weather phenomenon would you particularly associate with the weather radar return pictured below?
Hail
439
Which window(s) are heated with the LEFT FWD WINDOW HEAT Switch ON?
L1 only
440
While flying an ILS approach, to inhibit a BELOW G/S alert:
Push the BELOW G/S light (so that the alert will be inhibited below 1,000 feet radio altimeter).
441
While making a no engine bleed takeoff with the APU operating, an engine failure occurs. When should the engine BLEED Air Switches be positioned to ON?
When reaching 1500 feet AGL or until obstacle clearance height is reached.
442
While performing the APPROACH checklist the PSEU light illuminates on recall, this indicates:
a problem exists in the PSEU system because this light should be inhibited in flight
443
Whilst on the ground with WING ANTI-ICE selected ON, advancing the thrust levers to the take-off setting will cause:
both wing anti-ice control valves close and the WING ANTI-ICE switch remains in the ON position
444
Whilst on the ground with wing anti-ice selected ON, advancing the thrust levers To the take-off setting will cause:
both wing anti-ice valves to close and the WING ANTI-ICE switches remain set at ON
445
Whilst on the ground with WING ANTI-ICE selected ON, what is the result of advancing the thrust levers beyond the take-off warning setting?
Both wing anti-ice control valves close and the WING ANTI-ICE switch remains in the ON position.
446
Whith the Captain's ACP operating is in degraded mode, at that station:
Audio warnings for altitude alert, GPWS and windshear are not heard
447
Why are mechanical gates installed on the flap selector unit?
To hinder inadvertent flap lever movement beyond Flaps 1 and Flaps 15 during a go-around
448
Why is there a Fire Warning AND a Master Caution for an Engine fire, but only a Fire Warning for an APU fire?
Prior to an Engine Fire detection, an Engine Overheat would have been sensed. However, there is no overheat detection for the APU
449
Why may the Flight Crew Oxygen pressure indication show higher at the end of a flight than at the beginning?
You have landed in a significantly warmer environment than the departure airport
450
Will the APU automatic shutdown protection occur with an APU Fire and the APU Detection Inoperative?
No
451
With a single press of either TO/GA switch in response to a Go-around, what are the correct FMAs (Thrust : Roll : Pitch)? Note: assume for aircraft Tab numbers YA573 through YW058
G/A : (blank) : TO/GA
452
With all AC power removed from the aircraft and the Battery Master switch in the OFF position, can the engine fire extinguishers be activated by operating the flight deck Fire Switches?
Yes, but the Engine Fire switches will need to be unlocked manually before they are able to be pulled up
453
With command A engage and FMAs displaying MCP SPD/LNAV/ALT HOLD, which FCC is the master?
FCC A
454
With ENGINE START switch positioned OFF, when would automatic ignition will occur?
rapid decrease in N2, or N2 below idle RPM and engine start lever isin IDLE
455
With LNAV armed on the ground, at what altitude will it engage?
50 feet RA
456
With loss of hydraulic system B (system A operating normally):
Main and Standby Yaw Dampers are not available.
457
With pack switches set to AUTO, if one pack fails, when does the remaining pack provide high air flow:
when the aircraft is in flight with flaps retracted
458
With reference to Anti-Icing of the alpha vanes, which of the following statements is true?
Are heated by independent 115V AC heating elements, controlled by the PROBE HEAT switches.
459
With reference to Anti-lcing of the alpha vanes, which of the following statements is true?
Are heated by independent 1 15V AC heating elements, controlled by the PROBE HEAT switches
460
With reference to the flight controls and manual reversion, which statement is correct?
The primary flight controls are powered by hydraulic systems A and B, with backup from the standby hydraulic system for the rudder and manual reversion for the rest if system A and B pressure is lost
461
With reference to the illumination of the LE FLAPS TRANSIT light, which statement is correct?
ls inhibited during Autoslat operation in flight
462
With reference to the Thermal Anti Ice indication (TAI) above each N1 indicator, which of the following statements is correct?
If green, the cowl anti-ice valve is open and the related engine anti-ice switch is ON.
463
With reference to the Thermal Anti Ice indication (TAI) above each NI indicator, which of the following statements is correct?
If green, the cowl anti-ice valve is open and the related engine anti-ice switch is ON
464
With reference to the Wind Direction/Speed and Wind Arrow on the ND; which statement is correct?
Displayed if wind speed is greater than 6 knots.
465
With regards to nose wheel steering, Which of the following statements is true?
Rudder pedal steering is deactivated as the nose gear strut extends
466
With TCAS, proximate traffic:
is within 6 miles and 1200ft vertically
467
With the AUTO BRAKE select switch positioned to RTO, autobraking is initiated:
when wheel speed is 90 knots or more and the thrust levers are retarded to IDLE
468
With the AUTO BRAKE select switch positioned to RTO, when will autobraking be initiated?
when wheel speed is 90 knots or more and the thrust levers are retarded to IDLE
469
With the BUS TRANSFER switch in AUTO, if one IDG fails in flight, what happens next?
The Generator Circuit Breaker on the failed side opens, Bus Tie Breakers 1 and 2 close. Both AC Transfer Buses are powered by the remaining IDG
470
With the Captain's ACP operating in degraded mode, at that station:
Altitude alert, GPWS and windshear audio warnings are not heard.
471
With the engine running at stabilised idle, what drives the accessory gearbox?
the N2 rotor
472
With the ENGINE START switch positioned OFF, when will automatic ignition occur?
If a rapid decrease in N2 occurs, or N2 below idle RPM with engine start lever at IDLE
473
With the ENGINE START switch positioned to OFF, when will automatic ignition occur?
If a rapid decrease in N2 occurs, or N2 below idle RPM with engine start lever at IDLE.
474
With the FASTEN BELTS switch selected to AUTO, when will the FASTEN BELTS and RETURN TO SEAT signs illuminate?
Illuminate when flaps or gear are extended
475
With the ISOLATION VALVE switch in the AUTO position, when will the Isolation valve be closed?
If both engine BLEED air switches are ON and both air conditioning PACK switches are AUTO or HIGH
476
With the Manual Extension Access Door open:
manual landing gear extension is possible with the Landing Gear Lever in any position.
477
With the Multifunction Display Switch (MFD) in SYS, the lower DU shows:
hydraulic pressure and quantity only
478
With the No 1 engine running, what is the effect of switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF?
Pump continues to run, but output is isolated from system components
479
With the No 1 engine runnung, what is the effect of switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF?
Pump continues to be driven by the engine, but it's output is isolated from the rest of the hydraulic system.
480
With the No I engine running, what is the effect of switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF?
Pump continues to be driven by the engine, but it's output is isolated from the rest of the hydraulic system.
481
With the speed brake lever at ARMED, if a wheel spin-up signal is not detected on landing, will the flight spoilers deploy automatically?
They will deploy when the Air /Ground system senses ground mode (any gear strut compresses)
482
With the STANDBY POWER Switch in the AUTO position, all engine or APU electrical power has been lost, which statement is correct for this condition?
Both in the air and on the ground, the AC standby bus is powered from the batteries via the static inverter and the DC standby bus is powered directly from the batteries
483
With the STANDBY POWER Switch in the AUTO position, the loss of all engine or APU electrical power will cause the AC standby bus to be powered from the batteries via the static inverter and the DC standby bus to be powered directly from the batteries:
both in the air and on the ground
484
With the temperature control placed in the “OFF” position, the pack controls maintain a fixed temperature of:
Left pack 24 – Right pack 18
485
With the thrust reverser auto-restow circuit activated, which of the following statements is true?
the isolation valve remains open and the control valve is held in the stow position
486
With VNAV SPD engaged when climbing toward an "at" altitude restriction, what FMA transition would you see?
Transition to VNAV PTH
487
Yaw damper inputs (main or standby) can be overridden:
by either trim or rudder pedals inputs
488
You have armed the FWD Cargo Fire switch, seen the white ARMED caption on the switch and then pressed the Cargo Fire DISCH for more than one second and released it. You don't see the amber DISCH caption when you release the DISCH switch. Is this normal or does this indicate a fault?
This may be normal. You should allow up to 30 seconds for the DISCH light to illuminate
489
You must not attempt to make a turn away from an obstacle that is within what distance of the aircraft?
7.4 Meters of the nose
490
ZONE TEMP amber light illumination for CONT CAB indicates:
A duct temperature overheat or failure of both flight deck primary and standby temperature controlle
491
If the ANTI SKID system is INOP, what will happen if you apply maximum manual braking on landing?
No touchdown protection or locked wheel protection will be present, so one or more wheels may skid.
492
If using ALTERNATE FIAPS, what additional precaution should crew take?
Delay setting the new command speed until the flaps ha ve rea ched the selected position
Ryanair_questionaires
flashcards
Decks in class (32)
# Cards
-
Technical_first499498
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Technical_second part (whole)492
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SOP_elsofele498
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SOP_masodikfele143
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737_700_egesz29
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FireFighting4
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Birdstrike800-820039
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MTOW change13
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Winter Ops124
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OPT course6
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NAT HLA31
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CRMS101
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GLS5
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Security exam159
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DG exam97
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Safety exam40
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737-MAX73
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FirstAid11
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Aircraft type quiz20
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GRF13
-
CRMS video31
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SAFETY equipment video45
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GPDR quiz4
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FAD course26
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Jeppesen FD Pro15
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health and safety course19
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Security Practice7
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DG Practice12
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Emergency Procedures - Practice9
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Doors and Exits Quiz7
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Safety Equipment Practice Quiz10
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Flight Crew First Aid11
