Therapeutic Exercise Flashcards by Mind Med

A 22-month-old child with Down syndrome and moderate developmental delay is being treated at an early intervention program. Daily training activities that should be considered include ________.

A. Stimulation to postural extensors in sitting using rhythmic stabilization
B. Holding and weight shifting in sitting and standing using tactile and verbal cueing

B. Holding and weight shifting in sitting and standing using tactile and verbal cueing

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A patient who sustained a CVA a month ago is starting to exhibit ability to produce movement patterns outside the limb synergies. According to Brunnstrom, this is in the stage of recovery.

A. fourth
B. fifth

A. fourth

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A 76-year-old woman received a cemented right total hip arthroplasty (THA) 24 hours ago. The surgeon documented that he used a posterolateral incision. Which of the following suggestions is inappropriate for the next 24 hours?

A. Avoid hip internal rotation.
B. Avoid hip adduction past midline.
C. Avoid hip flexion past 30 degrees.
D. Avoid abduction past 15 degrees.

D. Avoid abduction past 15 degrees.

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A physical therapist is treating an 18- year-old male who had an ASIA T1 spinal cord injury (SCI) 6 months ago. Given the level and completeness of the lesion, what would be his EXPECTED functional capability for transfers?

A. Dependent with mat mobility
B. Dependent with wheelchair to mat transfers
C. Independent with wheelchair to mat transfers

C. Independent with wheelchair to mat transfers

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A patient who has suffered a zone 2 rupture of the extensor tendon of the third digit presents to physical therapy. This patient had a surgical fixation of the avulsed tendon. During the period of immobilization, which of the following deformities is most likely to develop?

A. Boutonniere deformity
B. Mallet Finger
C. Swan neck deformity

C. Swan neck deformity

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A patient presents with tachypnea, cor pulmonale, hypoxemia, rales on inspiration, and decreased diffusing capacity. What is the probable cause?

A. Restrictive lung dysfunction
B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

A. Restrictive lung dysfunction

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A 14-year-old girl with right thoracic scoliosis is referred to physical therapy. The therapist should expect which of the following findings?

A. Right shoulder low, right scapula prominent, and left hip high
B. Left shoulder low, right scapula prominent, and left hip high

B. Left shoulder low, right scapula prominent, and left hip high

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A 16-year-old male is diagnosed with a spinal tumor and has undergone surgery to resect the mass. After the procedure, the patient presents with variable motor paralysis and loss of pain and temperature sensation below the level of the injury. The patient would be diagnosed with what spinal cord syndrome?

A. Cauda Equina
B. Anterior Cord

B. Anterior Cord

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After performing an examination, a therapist notes the following information: severe spasticity of plantar flexors in the involved lower extremity; complete loss of active dorsiflexion in the involved lower extremity; minimal spasticity between 0 degrees and 5 degrees of dorsiflexion, with increased spasticity when the ankle is taken into more than 5 degrees of dorsiflexion. Which ankle-foot orthosis (AFO) is most likely contraindicated for the patient, an 87-year-old man who had a stroke 4 weeks ago?

A. Dorsiflexion spring assist AFO
B. Posterior leaf spring AFO

A. Dorsiflexion spring assist AFO

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During a physical therapy session, a patient recovering from a mild back strain frequently expresses concern that the pain signifies a severe spinal condition. Despite normal test results and reassurance, the patient insists on limiting movement and repeatedly requests further medical tests. Which condition does the therapist’s observation most likely indicate?
A. Psychogenic Pain Disorder
B. Hypochondria

B. Hypochondria

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At discharge from physical therapy, when formulating a home program for a patient, the MOST IMPORTANT element of consideration is the:

A. Informed consent of the patient
B. Ability of the patient to carry out the plan independently

A. Informed consent of the patient

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A patient who uses a transfemoral prosthesis is observed to have a circumducted gait deviation during swing phase on the involved side. The MOST likely cause is:

A. Excessive friction of the prosthetic knee
B. Tightness of the involved gluteus medius muscle

A. Excessive friction of the prosthetic knee

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A 32-year-old female presents with decreased joint play of the glenohumeral medial rotation. The most appropriate mobilization technique to improve the patient’s medial rotation is

A. Anterior glide
B. Posterior glide

B. Posterior glide

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A patient is observed using a toothbrush as an eating utensil. When asked, the patient is not able to name the toothbrush and is also unable to describe the toothbrush’s use. This is an example of:

A. Anomia
B. Visual agnosia

B. Visual agnosia

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A 68-year-old man is being treated by a physical therapist after a right below-knee amputation. The patient is beginning ambulation with a preparatory prosthesis. In the early stance phase of the involved lower extremity, the therapist notes an increase in knee flexion. Which of the following are possible causes of this gait deviation?

A. The heel is too stiff
B. The foot is set too far anterior in relation to the knee

A. The heel is too stiff

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You are a physical therapist who has been sent out to consult with a nursing home secondary to ulcers on the ischial tuberosities of several patients. Upon entering the nursing home, you begin to observe the patients. You notice redness, edema, blistering, and hardening of tissue. The inflammation has extended into the fat layer and there is superficial necrosis. Which of the following stages is characterized by such symptoms?

A. Stage three
B. Stage two

B. Stage two

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A patient is referred to physical therapy with a diagnosis of congestive heart failure. During the initial session, the physical therapist examines the skin for suspected changes. What appearance can be expected?

A. Pale, washed-out color
B. Slightly bluish, slate-colored discoloration

B. Slightly bluish, slate-colored discoloration

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A patient has developed a thick eschar secondary to a full-thickness burn. What is the antibacterial agent MOST effective for infection control for this type of burn?

A. Sulfamylon
B. Silver nitrate

A. Sulfamylon

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The patient is a 26-year-old male, status post ankle fracture. The physician orders mobilization to increase joint range of motion. Which of the following is the maximum loose-packed position of the ankle joint?

A. 10degrees plantarflexion
B. 15degrees plantarflexion

A. 10degrees plantarflexion

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The physician has sent a patient to the clinic for a brace that will assist in controlling knee rotation and adduction. Which of the following ligaments was not likely injured?

A. Medial collateral ligament
B. Lateral collateral ligament

B. Lateral collateral ligament

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Athletes participating in competition need energy sources to activate their muscles. Which of the following is the best prime energy source for active muscles?

A. Glucose
B. Starches

A. Glucose

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You are assisting in implementing a cardiopulmonary treatment program for an inpatient at the hospital. You need to perform chest physical therapy to the left lingual aspect of the upper lobe. Which of the following listed below would be the appropriate positioning for this patient?

A. Patient is in right sidelying position, rotated backward one quarter of a turn, with bed elevated 14 to 18 inches
B. Sitting in a chair, the patient leans forward to approximately 20degrees to 30degrees resting on pillows

B. Sitting in a chair, the patient leans forward to approximately 20degrees to 30degrees resting on pillows

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You are treating a patient in a nursing home with a stage two ulcer of the greater trochanter. The patient’s condition is deteriorating over a period of months with an increase of infection in the area. Which of the following is the correct description of the body’s first defense against bacterial infection?

A. Neutrophils
B. Macrophages

A. Neutrophils

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An 86-year-old female falls down the stairs into her basement and breaks her hip. During the course of therapy, rehabilitation goes exceptionally well and the patient is completely healed except for the hip adductor muscle group, where nerves appear to have been permanently damage and will not recover. Which nerve or nerves innervate the hip adductor muscles?

A. Obturator and sciatic
B. Obturator

A. Obturator and sciatic

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What type of joint is talocalcaneonavicular? A. Universal joint B. Ginglymus C. Sellar

A. Universal joint

Why is heat therapy not appropriate for scar tissue? A. Scar tissue is rich in collagen fiber tissue B. Scar tissue is poor in collagen fiber tissue C. Scar tissue is rich vascular supply D. Scar tissue has inadequate vascular supply

D. Scar tissue has inadequate vascular supply

What is the main mechanism of deep heat transfer via diathermy? A. Conduction B. Convection C. Conversion

C. Conversion

During a postural examination, the therapist notes that the patient’s patella both point inward when viewed from the front of the patient. The MOST likely cause of this problem is excessive: A. femoral anteversion B. genu valgum C. genu varum

A. femoral anteversion

A physical therapist completes an upper quarter screening examination on a patient with a suspected cervical spine lesion. Which objective finding is NOT consistent with C5 involvement? A. muscle weakness in the supinator and wrist extensors B. diminished biceps reflex C. muscle weakness in the deltoid and biceps

A. muscle weakness in the supinator and wrist extensors

What does active insufficiency refer to in muscle function? A. Maximum lengthened position B. Maximum shortened position C. Muscle fatigue D. Joint contracture

B. Maximum shortened position

Passive insufficiency occurs at which muscle position? A. Maximum shortened position B. Maximum relaxed position C. Maximum lengthened position D. Mid-range

C. Maximum lengthened position

Why is hip flexion ROM greater when the knee is flexed (0-120º) than extended (0-90º)? A. Quadriceps active insufficiency B. Hamstrings passive insufficiency C. Ligament tension D. Joint capsule tightness

B. Hamstrings passive insufficiency

Which external force is commonly involved in Passive Range of Motion exercises? A. Resistance bands B. Gravity C. Electrical stimulation D. Active muscle contraction

B. Gravity

Continuous Passive Motion (CPM) therapy is typically used for? A. Late-stage arthritis B. Early return of ROM post-surgery C. Muscle strengthening D. Passive stretching of tendons

B. Early return of ROM post-surgery

What is the initial arc range recommended for CPM after ACL reconstruction? A. 0-30º B. 30-45º C. 0-90º D. 45-60º

B. 30-45º

What is the recommended frequency for CPM use? A. 1 hour per day B. 3 hours continuous or 24 hours continuous C. 5 hours total daily D. Twice daily sessions

B. 3 hours continuous or 24 hours continuous

What does the overload principle in resistance exercise signify? A. Muscles should be exercised with low intensity only B. Challenging muscles beyond metabolic capacity for growth C. Avoid muscle fatigue D. Exercising only during warm-up

B. Challenging muscles beyond metabolic capacity for growth

After how many weeks does hypertrophy occur with resistance training? A. 1-2 weeks B. 6-8 weeks C. 12-16 weeks D. 4 weeks

B. 6-8 weeks

What does the Specific Adaptation to Imposed Demand (SAID) principle state? A. Muscles adapt regardless of exercise type B. Body adapts based on the nature of demand posed C. Adaptations are immediate D. Adaptations do not vary by load or reps

B. Body adapts based on the nature of demand posed

Which regimen increases intensity in resistance training: A. Delorme B. Oxford C. Both increase intensity D. Neither increases intensity

A. Delorme

Delorme regimen Set 1 is performed at what percentage of 10 RM? A. 100% B. 50% C. 75% D. 25%

B. 50%

Oxford regimen Set 1 is performed at what percentage of 10 RM? A. 50% B. 75% C. 100% D. 25%

C. 100%

Reversal of muscle performance after inactivity occurs typically after? A. 3-4 weeks B. 1-2 weeks C. 4-6 weeks D. 24 hours

B. 1-2 weeks

Which muscle grade is appropriate to begin Aerobic Exercise in patients? A. Grade 1 B. Grade 2 C. Grade 3+ D. Grade 4+

C. Grade 3+

Target Heart Rate (THR) formula includes which variables? A. MHR only B. RHR only C. MHR and RHR D. Resting BPM only

C. MHR and RHR

What is the purpose of the warm-up exercise in aerobic training? A. Increase muscle temperature and vasodilation B. Build strength C. Reduce flexibility D. Cause muscle fatigue

A. Increase muscle temperature and vasodilation

What happens if the body skips warm-up before aerobic exercise? A. Use anaerobic metabolism and lactic acid accumulates B. Uses aerobic metabolism efficiently C. No change in metabolism D. Muscle contraction decreases

A. Use anaerobic metabolism and lactic acid accumulates

What is the primary goal of cool down after aerobic exercise? A. Increase muscle temperature B. Increase venous pooling C. Prevent venous pooling and assist venous return D. Stop heart rate suddenly

C. Prevent venous pooling and assist venous return

Which type of contracture is irreversible and involves fibrosis? A. Myostatic B. Pseudomyostatic C. Arthrogenic D. Muscle guarding

C. Arthrogenic

What kind of contracture is typical in a stroke patient with spastic arm posture? A. Myostatic B. Pseudomyostatic C. Arthrogenic D. Fibrotic

B. Pseudomyostatic

What are the contraindications to stretching? A. Hypermobility, bony block, recent unstable fracture B. Muscle tightness C. Appropriate age and gender D. Muscle soreness

A. Hypermobility, bony block, recent unstable fracture

Peripheral joint mobilization should be avoided in patients with? A. Osteoarthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) with inflamed joints C. Stable fractures D. Muscle strengthening

B. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) with inflamed joints

In peripheral joint mobilization, what grade of sustained translatory technique is used to stretch? A. Grade I B. Grade II C. Grade III D. Grade IV

C. Grade III

What motion type in joint mobilization involves a point on the bone rotating around a stationary axis? A. Rolling B. Sliding C. Spinning D. Compression

C. Spinning

Which oscillation grade is used for pain relief but does not reach tissue resistance? A. Grade 1 and 2 B. Grade 3 and 4 C. Grade 5 D. Grade 6

A. Grade 1 and 2

What is the hallmark of autogenic inhibition in PNF stretching? A. Activation of muscle spindles B. Activation of Golgi tendon organs of antagonist C. Muscle contraction of agonist D. Muscle guarding

B. Activation of Golgi tendon organs of antagonist

What is reciprocal inhibition in PNF stretching? A. As agonist contracts, antagonist contracts B. As agonist contracts, antagonist relaxes C. Both agonist and antagonist relax D. Contract antagonist only

B. As agonist contracts, antagonist relaxes

What type of PNF stretching involves an isometric contraction of antagonist followed by active stretching? A. Hold-Relax B. Contract-Relax C. Agonist Contract D. Ballistic

A. Hold-Relax

Which resistance exercise principle includes decreased muscle performance after periods of inactivity? A. Overload B. SAID C. Reversibility D. Progression

C. Reversibility

TRUE OR FALSE: Functional excursion is the distance a muscle is capable of shortening. If a muscle is lengthened, there is longer functional excursion a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. only the 1st statement is true d. only the 2nd statement is true

a. both statements are true

TRUE OR FALSE: PROMs assist circulation. AROMs increase circulation a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. only the 1st statement is true d. only the 2nd statement is true

a. both statements are true

TRUE OR FALSE: PROMs decrease joint pain

true

drop in BP, low in HR a. OH b. cardiact arrest

b. cardiact arrest

drop in BP, high HR a. OH b. cardiact arrest

a. OH

Which muscle grade is appropriate to begin AAROM in patients? A. Grade 1 B. Grade 2 C. Grade 3+ D. Grade 4+

B. Grade 2

Used when more intense muscle contraction is contraindicated a. AROM b. AAROM c. PROM d. Self-assisted ROM

d. Self-assisted ROM

CPM, except: a. Progression: 5-10º per session b. 1 cycle: 45 sec - 2 mins c. Initial Arc: 30-45º d. form of PROM e. Frequency: 3 hrs continuous/24 hrs continuous

a. Progression: 5-10º per session 10-15º per session

What kind of contracture is typical due to adaptive shortening of the muscle? A. Myostatic B. Pseudomyostatic C. Arthrogenic D. Fibrotic

A. Myostatic

What kind of contracture is typical due to frozen shoulder? A. Myostatic B. Pseudomyostatic C. Arthrogenic D. Fibrotic

C. Arthrogenic

What kind of contracture is the only irreversible type of contracture? A. Myostatic B. Pseudomyostatic C. Arthrogenic D. Fibrotic

D. Fibrotic

Prestretch isometric contraction of antagonist a. hold relax b. contract relax c. agonist contract d. hold-relax

a. hold relax

Prestretch concentric contraction of antagonist a. hold relax b. contract relax c. agonist contract d. hold-relax

b. contract relax

Available end range → flex elbow (concentrically) to end range → stretch → repeat a. hold relax b. contract relax c. agonist contract d. hold-relax

b. contract relax

Most effective PNF Stretching a. hold relax b. contract relax c. agonist contract d. hold-relax agonist contract

d. hold-relax agonist contract

Uses reciprocal inhibition a. hold relax b. contract relax c. agonist contract d. hold-relax agonist contract

c. agonist contract

In order to increase depression of the clavicle, what would be the direction of your mobilization on the proximal clavicle? a. Anterior glide b. Posterior glide c. Superior glide d. Inferior glide

c. Superior glide

in SCI paraplegia, what is the recommended hip ROM to be maintained? a. 70 degrees b. 80 degrees c. 90 degrees d. 100 degrees

d. 100 degrees

In order to increase retraction of the clavicle, what would be the direction of your mobilization on the proximal clavicle? a. Anterior glide b. Posterior glide c. Superior glide d. Inferior glide

b. Posterior glide

In order to increase elevation of the clavicle, what would be the direction of your mobilization on the proximal clavicle? a. Anterior glide b. Posterior glide c. Superior glide d. Inferior glide

d. Inferior glide

In order to increase flexion of the CMC joint, what would be the direction of your mobilization? a. Anterior glide b. Posterior glide c. Ulnar glide d. Radial glide

c. Ulnar glide

In order to increase extension of the CMC joint, what would be the direction of your mobilization? a. Anterior glide b. Posterior glide c. Ulnar glide d. Radial glide

b. Posterior glide

In order to increase abduction of the CMC joint, what would be the direction of your mobilization? a. Anterior glide b. Posterior glide c. Ulnar glide d. Radial glide

b. Posterior glide

In order to increase adduction of the CMC joint, what would be the direction of your mobilization? a. Anterior glide b. Posterior glide c. Ulnar glide d. Radial glide

a. Anterior glide

sustained translatory technique: Tighten – enough distraction (sensitivity) “taking up the slack” a. I b. II c. III

b. II

sustained translatory technique: Loosen – small amplitude distraction (pain) a. I b. II c. III

a. I

sustained translatory technique: Stretch – large amplitude distraction (stretch) a. I b. II c. III

c. III

initial dosage of sustained translatory technique a. I b. II c. III

b. II

What grade of soft tissue injury involves mild pain at the time of injury and mild swelling? A) Grade 1 B) Grade 2 C) Grade 3 D) Chronic Stage

A) Grade 1

Which grade of soft tissue injury is characterized by moderate pain requiring stopping of activity and joint hypermobility? A) Grade 1 B) Grade 2 C) Grade 3

B) Grade 2

A complete tear or avulsion of soft tissue with severe pain and joint instability is classified as: A) Grade 1 B) Grade 2 C) Grade 3

C) Grade 3

The acute stage of inflammation typically lasts for how many days? A) 1-3 days B) 4-6 days C) 10-17 days D) Over 21 days

B) 4-6 days

Which of the following is NOT a cardinal sign of inflammation? A) Rubor (redness) B) Calor (heat) C) Dolor (pain) D) Cyanosis

D) Cyanosis

During the subacute stage of inflammation, collagen formation and granulation tissue are: A) Decreasing B) Actively forming C) Unchanged D) Fully matured

B) Actively forming

At what stage does scar tissue become unresponsive to remodeling, leading to adhesions or contractures? A) Acute Stage B) Subacute Stage C) Chronic Stage D) Chronic Inflammation Stage

C) Chronic Stage (after 14 weeks)

Which stage of inflammation is associated with fibroblast formation and clot formation? A) Chronic Stage B) Acute Stage C) Subacute Stage D) Chronic Inflammation Stage

B) Acute Stage

In obstetric physical therapy, what postural change is often seen due to fetal development? A) Increased cervical lordosis B) Decreased lumbar lordosis C) Increased lumbar lordosis D) Shoulder hyperextension

C) Increased lumbar lordosis

A diastasis recti is defined as an abdominal separation of how many centimeters? A) 1 cm B) 2 cm C) 5 cm D) 10 cm

B) 2 cm

For aquatic therapy, which water temperature range is considered "very cold"? A) 1-13°C B) 13-18°C C) 18-27°C D) 27-33.5°C

A) 1-13°C

What is the prescribed maximum heart rate limit during obstetric exercise? A) 100 bpm B) 120 bpm C) 140 bpm D) 160 bpm

C) 140 bpm

Hydrostatic pressure in aquatic therapy is greatest on which body part? A) Head B) Chest C) Feet D) Abdomen

C) Feet

Which grading scale corresponds to a "near complete" tear with severe pain in a soft tissue injury? A) Grade 1 B) Grade 2 C) Grade 3 D) Grade 4

C) Grade 3

What PT intervention is recommended during the acute stage of inflammation? A) Controlled motion phase B) Return-to-function phase C) Protection phase (PRICEMEMS) D) Plyometric training

C) Protection phase (PRICEMEMS)

Which type of bursitis is common in miners and causes chronic elbow pain? A) Subacromial bursitis B) Housemaid’s knee C) Olecranon bursitis D) Ischiogluteal bursitis

C) Olecranon bursitis

The presence of swelling and pain at the synovial membrane typically indicates: A) Synovitis B) Bursitis C) Hemarthrosis D) Tendinosis

A) Synovitis

In the chronic inflammation stage caused by repeated injury, what is a common symptom? A) Absence of pain B) Muscle weakness and poor mobility C) Severe bleeding D) Hyperextension

B) Muscle weakness and poor mobility

Which of the following exercises is NOT safe during obstetric PT due to risk of compressing the SI joint? A) Swimming B) Fire hydrant exercise C) Pelvic floor exercises D) Wall push-ups

B) Fire hydrant exercise

What type of tendinopathy is characterized by degeneration and scarring rather than inflammation? A) Tendinitis B) Tenosynovitis C) Tendinosis D) Tendovaginitis

C) Tendinosis

Severe stress, stretch or tear of soft tissue a. strain b. sprain

b. sprain

muscles a. strain b. sprain

a. strain

Incomplete / partial displacement of a joint a. dislocation b. subluxation

b. subluxation

may occur during CVA a. dislocation b. subluxation

b. subluxation

d/t muscle weakness a. dislocation b. subluxation

b. subluxation

Which measure should a sling be prescribed in CVA pts with subluxation: a. >1cm subluxation b. >2cm subluxation c. >3cm subluxation d. >4cm subluxation

b. >2cm subluxation

acute Olecranon bursitis a. Student’s Elbow b. Miner’s Elbow

a. Student’s Elbow

Inflammation of a tendon with resulting scarring and calcium deposits A) Tendinitis B) Tenosynovitis C) Tendinosis D) Tendovaginitis E) NOTA

A) Tendinitis

De Quervain's A) Tendinitis B) Tenosynovitis C) Tendinosis D) Tendovaginitis E) NOTA

B) Tenosynovitis

A tear that does not result to pain upon stress is classified as: A) Grade 1 B) Grade 2 C) Grade 3

C) Grade 3 Already severe (10/10) so even if the joint is moved, pain is already at its highest

(+) Pain before tissue resistance? A) Acute Stage B) Subacute Stage C) Chronic Stage D) Chronic Inflammation Stage

A) Acute Stage

Very fragile (easily bruised) Removal of noxious/painful stimuli A) Acute Stage B) Subacute Stage C) Chronic Stage D) Chronic Inflammation Stage

B) Subacute Stage

(+) Pain after tissue resistance A) Acute Stage B) Subacute Stage C) Chronic Stage D) Chronic Inflammation Stage

C) Chronic Stage

Single discipline a. Work Conditioning b. Work Hardening c. AOTA d. NOTA

a. Work Conditioning

5 days/wk a. Work Conditioning b. Work Hardening c. AOTA d. NOTA

c. AOTA

8 hr/day a. Work Conditioning b. Work Hardening c. AOTA d. NOTA

b. Work Hardening

4 hr/day a. Work Conditioning b. Work Hardening c. AOTA d. NOTA

a. Work Conditioning

Mx for ligamentous laxity, except: a. graded isometrics b. biking c. swimming d. walking

a. graded isometrics

Mx for diastasis recti, except: a. partial sit-ups b. kegel's c. curl downs d. leg slides

b. kegel's this is for pelvic floor weakness

maximum mins for CV training in pregnant women: a. 10 mins b. 12 mins c. 15 mins d. 20 mins

c. 15 mins

absolute C/I to obstetric exercise, except: a. Placenta Previa b. Intra-uterine Growth Retardation c. Pregnancy-induced DM d. Pregnancy-induced hypertension e. NOTA

e. NOTA

supine exercises in pregnant women must be NO longer than: a. 5 mins b. 10 mins c. 15 mins d. 20 mins e 25 mins

a. 5 mins

where must a pillow be places during supine position in a pregnant woman? a. right shoulder b. right hip c. left hip d. left shoulder

b. right hip

TRUE OR FALSE: During aquatic exercises, ataxic patients are given weights on LE or shallow depth of water. Patients with cardiac dysfunction are started off with a shallow depth a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. only the 1st statement is true d. only the 2nd statement is true

a. both statements are true

TRUE OR FALSE: During aquatic exercises, patients have a seizure attack must be placed at the middle of the pool. During aquatic exercises, patients have a cardiac attack must be placed at the side/wall of the pool. a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. only the 1st statement is true d. only the 2nd statement is true

a. both statements are true

27-33.5°C a. Tepid b. Neutral c. Warm d. Hot e. Very Hot

a. Tepid

Cardiovascular/Aerobic exerciss a. 26-28°C b. 26-35°C

a. 26-28°C

33.5-35.5°C a. Tepid b. Neutral c. Warm d. Hot e. Very Hot

b. Neutral

40-60°C a. Tepid b. Neutral c. Warm d. Hot e. Very Hot

e. Very Hot

Flexibility, Relaxation of muscles, Gait training, Strengthening a. 26-28°C b. 26-35°C

b. 26-35°C

Which neuro intervention technique uses 8 ontogenic motor patterns? A) Bobath B) Rood C) Brunnstrom D) PNF

B) Rood

The principle "recovery and management should start head to foot" is best described as: A) Cephalo-caudal principle B) Proximo-distal principle C) Cranio-sacral principle D) Motor synergy principle

A) Cephalo-caudal principle

In Rood’s approach, which technique is best used to inhibit spasticity? A) Quick icing B) Fast brushing C) Prolonged icing D) Joint compression

C) Prolonged icing

The overflow or irradiation principle is primarily utilized in which intervention? A) Brunnstrom B) PNF C) Bobath D) Rood

B) PNF

What is the common purpose of diagonal spiral patterns in PNF? A) Facilitate isolated joint movements B) Facilitate functional and coordinated movement patterns C) Inhibit reflexes D) Promote joint stability

B) Facilitate functional and coordinated movement patterns

Which bilateral combined pattern involves the same pattern in the same direction on both sides? A) Bilateral symmetrical (BS) B) Bilateral reciprocal (BR) C) Bilateral asymmetrical (BA) D) Crossed diagonal (CD)

A) Bilateral symmetrical (BS)

Which stage of motor control according to Rood focuses on weight shifting, trunk rotation, and arm swing? A) Mobility B) Stability C) Controlled mobility D) Skill

B) Stability

Which Bobath principle is NOT typically used for neurorehabilitation? A) Reflex inhibiting patterns B) Use of primitive reflexes C) Handling techniques D) Facilitation of normal movement patterns

B) Use of primitive reflexes

During Brunnstrom’s stages of recovery, at which stage does spasticity peak? A) Stage I B) Stage II C) Stage III D) Stage IV

C) Stage III

What does the typical arm posture in UE flexor synergy include? A) Shoulder abduction, elbow extension, wrist flexion B) Shoulder adduction, elbow flexion, forearm pronation, wrist and finger flexion C) Shoulder flexion, elbow flexion, wrist extension D) Shoulder external rotation, elbow extension, wrist extension

B) Shoulder adduction, elbow flexion, forearm pronation, wrist and finger flexion

Rhythmic Initiation (RI) is most indicated for which condition? A) Parkinson’s Disease with akinesia B) Cerebral palsy C) Stroke in flaccid stage D) Multiple sclerosis

A) Parkinson’s Disease with akinesia

Quick stretch is best applied when? A) Muscle response is diminished and active participation is present B) Muscle is highly spastic C) Muscle is fatigued D) No voluntary movement

A) Muscle response is diminished and active participation is present

What is the main goal of Bobath handling techniques? A) To promote primitive reflexes B) To inhibit abnormal tone and facilitate normal tone C) To isolate joint movement D) To strengthen weak muscles

B) To inhibit abnormal tone and facilitate normal tone

Which of the following is considered a minor neuro intervention? A) Doman Delacato patterning B) Bobath technique C) Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation D) Rood’s technique

A) Doman Delacato patterning

What is observed in Sterling’s phenomenon? A) Ipsilateral limb flexion with contralateral extension B) Abduction/adduction of UE occurs affecting the weak side during strong side movement C) Mass flexion D) Reflex grasping

B) Abduction/adduction of UE occurs affecting the weak side during strong side movement

Which PNF pattern involves shoulder flexion, elbow extension, forearm supination, wrist radial deviation and finger extension? A) D1 flexion B) D1 extension C) D2 flexion D) D2 extension

D) D2 extension

In Brunnstrom hand correlation, which stage is characterized by no voluntary hand function? A) Stage I B) Stage III C) Stage V D) Stage VI

A) Stage I

What is the purpose of rhythmic stabilization in PNF? A) Muscle strengthening B) Promote stability and trunk control C) Increase range of motion D) Inhibit spasticity

B) Promote stability and trunk control

Which PNF technique involves performing isometrics at the end range slowly? A) Slow Reversal Hold (SRH) B) Rhythmic Rotation C) Quick Reversal (QR) D) Hold-Relax Active Motion (HRAM)

A) Slow Reversal Hold (SRH)

Typical activities that use PNF LE D2 flexion pattern include: A) Crossing legs, kicking a soccer ball B) Skateboarding and starting a motorbike C) Riding a motorbike and sidekick karate move D) Wearing LE garments

C) Riding a motorbike and sidekick karate move

Which neuro intervention method uses classroom setting and treats patients as students for all-day management? A) Andras Peto Conductive Education B) Brunnstrom technique C) Bobath approach D) Rood’s technique

A) Andras Peto Conductive Education

What is the main focus of proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF)? A) Facilitation of proprioception and coordinated movement B) Inhibition of muscle tone C) Use of reflexes for locomotion D) Patterning via primitive reflexes

A) Facilitation of proprioception and coordinated movement

Which intervention is useful for patients with visual agnosia to help identify objects? A) Ayres Sensory Integration B) Bobath technique C) PNF diagonal patterns D) Brunnstrom synergy patterns

A) Ayres Sensory Integration

According to Brunnstrom, which associated reaction involves elevation of the arm eliciting finger extension? A) Sterling’s phenomenon B) Soques phenomenon C) Raimistes phenomenon D) Homolateral limb synkinesis

B) Soques phenomenon

What does the typical posture in LE extensor synergy include? A) Hip FABER, Knee flexion, Ankle DF B) Hip FADIR, Knee extension, Ankle plantar flexion, inversion C) Hip FABIR, Knee extension, Ankle eversion D) Hip FADER, Knee flexion, Ankle DF

B) Hip FADIR, Knee extension, Ankle plantar flexion, inversion

What does the motor test stage IV for shoulder-elbow involve? A) No voluntary movements B) Synergies appear C) Hand behind back, arm raised forward horizontal, pronation-supination at 90 degrees elbow flexion D) Voluntary movements possible

C) Hand behind back, arm raised forward horizontal, pronation-supination at 90 degrees elbow flexion

What is the role of tapping in Rood’s facilitation techniques? A) Inhibit muscle tone B) Facilitate muscle contraction and movement C) Promote relaxation D) Prolong stretch

B) Facilitate muscle contraction and movement

What technique is best for inhibiting extreme spasticity in stroke patients? A) Prolonged icing B) Quick icing C) Heavy joint compression D) Muscle belly pressure

B) Quick icing

Which of the following is NOT a PNF bilateral combined pattern? A) Bilateral symmetrical B) Bilateral reciprocal C) Bilateral homolateral D) Bilateral asymmetrical

C) Bilateral homolateral

Which synergy pattern involves scapular elevation and protraction, shoulder adduction, and elbow flexion? A) UE extensor synergy B) UE flexor synergy C) LE flexor synergy D) LE extensor synergy

B) UE flexor synergy

type of Patterning rehabilitation, where a child is hanged upside down & whirled around a. Doman Delacato b. Phelps c. Temple Fay d. Ayres e. Vaclav Vojta

a. Doman Delacato

Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny; evolutionary process a. Doman Delacato b. Phelps c. Temple Fay d. Ayres e. Vaclav Vojta

c. Temple Fay

Used for sensory integration and usually for pts with (such as visual agnosia, figure ground discrimination) a. Doman Delacato b. Phelps c. Temple Fay d. Ayres e. Vaclav Vojta

d. Ayres

Triggers reflex locomotive zones a. Doman Delacato b. Phelps c. Temple Fay d. Ayres e. Vaclav Vojta

e. Vaclav Vojta

chronic Olecranon bursitis a. Student’s Elbow b. Miner’s Elbow

b. Miner’s Elbow

extensive use of bracing while incorporating bed and w/c mobility skills, including transfers a. Deaver b. Crothers c. Andras Peto d. Kenny & Knapp e. Eirene Collis

a. Deaver

(+) RGR, Combined motion & Confused motion a. Doman Delacato b. Phelps c. Temple Fay d. Ayres e. Vaclav Vojta

b. Phelps

Uses mental capacity of student as prognosis a. Deaver b. Crothers c. Andras Peto d. Kenny & Knapp e. Eirene Collis

e. Eirene Collis

introduced training to control individual prime movers a. Deaver b. Crothers c. Andras Peto d. Kenny & Knapp e. Eirene Collis

d. Kenny & Knapp

Conductive education, use of group, all-day management a. Deaver b. Crothers c. Andras Peto d. Kenny & Knapp e. Eirene Collis

c. Andras Peto

use of active movement & stimulation to prevent contractures a. Deaver b. Crothers c. Andras Peto d. Kenny & Knapp e. Eirene Collis

b. Crothers

Objective for PD & GBS: a. Mobility b. Stability c. Controlled Mobility d. Skill

c. Controlled Mobility

only ontogenic pattern seen in POE a. Mobility b. Stability c. Controlled Mobility d. Skill

b. Stability

only ontogenic pattern seen in Neck Co-contraction a. Mobility b. Stability c. Controlled Mobility d. Skill

b. Stability

only ontogenic pattern seen in Standing a. Mobility b. Stability c. Controlled Mobility d. Skill

d. Skill

only ontogenic pattern seen in Rolling over a. Mobility b. Stability c. Controlled Mobility d. Skill

a. Mobility

You are treating a stroke patient with a right hemiplegia to assume the sidelying towards the affected side. Which PNF patterns for both upper and lower extremities may be used to facilitate this? a. Upper extremity towards D2F, lower extremity towards D1F b. Upper extremity towards D1F, lower extremity towards D1F c. Upper extremity towards D1F, lower extremity towards D1E d. All of the above

b. Upper extremity towards D1F, lower extremity towards D1F

The ffg are included in Rood’s rules of sensory input, EXCEPT: a. Fast brief stimulus b. Fast repetitive stimulus c. Slow rhythmical stimulus d. Fast rhythmical stimulus

d. Fast rhythmical stimulus

General parameters for joint mobilization is: a. 3-4 second per oscillation b. 3-4 oscillations per second c. 2-3 seconds per oscillation d. 2-3 oscillations per second e. None of these

d. 2-3 oscillations per second

In order to increase protraction of the clavicle, what would be the direction of your mobilization on the proximal clavicle? a. Anterior glide b. Posterior glide c. Superior glide d. Inferior glide

a. Anterior glide

To increase the 1st carpometacarpal flexion, what direction of mobilization of the metacarpal will ypu apply? a. Ulnar glide b. Volar glide c. Volar glide d. Dorsal glide

a. Ulnar glide

Which of the following correctly describes repetition maximum? a. Used to document baseline measurement of the dynamic strength of a muscle b. Used to identify an exercise load to be used during exercise for a specified number of repetitions c. It is the greatest amount of weight a muscle can move through the available range of motion d. B and C only e. AOTA

e. AOTA

A patient is limited to 55 degrees in an active SLR. A therapist should apply the contract-relax technique to the ___ to improve the patient’s AROM? a. Abductors and hip flexors b. Hamstrings and hip extensors c. Quadriceps and hip flexors d. Adductors and hip extensors

b. Hamstrings and hip extensors

A weight lifter exhibits marked hypertrophy after embarking on a strength training regime. Hypertrophy can be expected to occur following at least: a. 1-2 weeks of training b. 2-3 weeks of training c. 3-4 weeks of training d. 6-8 weeks of training

d. 6-8 weeks of training

What is the correct formula in determining the target heart rate of the patient? a. MHR + RHR (60-80%) + RHR b. MHR – RHR (60-80%) – RHR c. RHR – MHR (60-80%) – RHR d. RHR + MHR (60-80%) + RHR e. MHR – RHR (60-80%) + RHR

e. MHR – RHR (60-80%) + RHR

To increase hip extension and external rotation, what direction of joint glide are you going to use? a. Distal glide b. Posterior glide c. Anterior glide d. Medial and lateral glide

c. Anterior glide

The following are true regarding PROM exercises except: a. It assists the circulation of blood b. Maintains soft tissue and joint mobility c. Provides the patient with sensory feedback d. Increases coordination of movement e. All are true regarding ROM exercises

d. Increases coordination of movement

The following are true regarding the effects of peripheral joint mobilization except: a. Provides sensory input for proprioceptive feedback b. Stretches the tight capsule of individuals exhibiting joint effusion c. Enables movement of synovial fluid to allow exchange of nutrients d. All of them are true

b. Stretches the tight capsule of individuals exhibiting joint effusion

A sixteen year old male student has come to physical therapy for exercise prescription. He wishes to play tennis as a recreational activity during the weekends. Upon interview, he was noted to have a sedentary lifestyle, and is determined to gain upper body strength but is overly concerned about his muscles getting tired easily after one round of tennis. Which exercise regimen is best for this client? a. DeLorme b. DAPRE c. Oxford d. All of these

c. Oxford Oxford = sedentary, elderly DeLorme = weightlifters

The physical therapist is applying PNF stretching technique to his patient with B tight pectorals. The patient contracts the pectoralis major muscles against manual resistance, then relaxes. Next, the therapist horizontally abducts the patient’s arms passively. What technique is being used? a. Agonist Contraction b. Hold Relax with Agonist Contraction c. Hold Relax d. Multiple Angle Isometrics e. Muscle Setting

c. Hold Relax

To increase knee extension, which of the following methods of joint mobilization should be performed? a. Anterior glide of tibia; Inferior glide of patella b. Posterior glide of tibia; inferior glide of patella c. Anterior glide of tibia; superior glide of patella d. Posterior glide of tibia; superior glide of patella

c. Anterior glide of tibia; superior glide of patella

A PT designs an exercise program for a patient rehabilitating from lower extremity injury. The single most important factor in an exercise program designed to increase muscular strength is: a. Recovery time between exercise sets b. The number of repetitions c. The duration of exercises d. Intensity of the exercise

d. Intensity of the exercise

Initial exercise for William’s flexion exercises: a. Flat footed squat b. Fencer’s squat c. Pelvic tilt d. Curl up

c. Pelvic tilt

Klapp’s exercise position for T8 level: a. Heel sitting b. Tall kneeling c. Quadruped d. Kneeling with trunk hyperextension

c. Quadruped

Timing of exercise for diastasis recti: a. Right after birth b. 3 days after normal delivery c. 6 weeks for normal delivery d. None of these

b. 3 days after normal delivery

Is an incision made in the perineal body? a. Episiorrhaphy b. Episiotomy c. Epiphysitis d. NOTA

b. Episiotomy

The subacute stage of healing usually last up to how many days? a. 5 to 10 days (10 to 15 days after the onset of injury) but may last up to 8 weeks in some tissues with limited circulation, such as tendons b. 10 to 17 days (14 to 21 days after the onset of injury) but may last up to 6 weeks in some tissues with limited circulation, such as tendons c. 15 to 20 days (20 to 25 days after the onset of injury) but may last up to 12 weeks in some tissues with limited circulation, such as tendons d. 10 to 17 days (14 to 21 days after the onset of injury) but may last up to 6 months in some tissues with limited circulation, such as tendons

b. 10 to 17 days (14 to 21 days after the onset of injury) but may last up to 6 weeks in some tissues with limited circulation, such as tendons

Overstretching, overexertion, overuse of soft tissue? a. Strain b. Overuse syndrome

a. Strain

The ff are Rood’s ontogenetic patterns, EXCEPT: Your Answer: a. Pivot prone b. Quadruped c. Standing d. Kneeling

d. Kneeling

A patient demonstrates beginning recovery stage 4 movements following a left CVA. The PNF pattern that represents the BEST choice to promote continued recovery of the right UE through the use of out-of-synergy movements is: a. Chop, reverse chop with right arm leading b. Lift, reverse lift with right arm

a. Chop, reverse chop with right arm leading

Appropriate sensory stimulation elicits specific motor response is the core principle of: a. Phelps b. Bobath c. Rood d. Brunnstrom

c. Rood

Correct order of motor development: a. Flexors, extensors, abductors, adductors b. Flexors, extensors, adductors, abductors c. Extensors, flexors, adductors, abductors d. Extensors, adductors, abductors, flexors

b. Flexors, extensors, adductors, abductors

His theory aims to help patients gain control over released patterns of spasticity by inhibition: a. Phelps b. Brunnstrom c. Rood d. Bobath

d. Bobath

Sullivan’s summary of sequential development of a child includes the ffg, EXCEPT: a. Isometric before isotonic b. Eccentric before concentric c. Holding a posture before moving into a posture d. Moving into posture before moving out of a posture

d. Moving into posture before moving out of a posture

The ffg statements are true, EXCEPT: a. Heavy work muscles should be integrated last before light work muscles because integrating heavy work muscles is more difficult b. Heavy work muscles are activated before light work muscles except for feeding and speech muscles c. Extensors and abductors are heavy work muscles d. Light work muscles are the mobilizers

The goal of the PT with regards to postural control in stage 4 of motor recovery is: a. The patient should learn to walk forward, backward or sideways b. The patient must learn to remain upright in standing c. The patient must achieve segmental rolling d. All of these e. The patient should learn to shift his center of gravity outside of his base of support

e. The patient should learn to shift his center of gravity outside of his base of support

A patient who was casted for 3 weeks following Grade III right ankle sprain has been referred to PT for mobility exercises. Examination shows a loss of 10° of DF. The patient will have the most difficulty in: a. Descending stairs b. Ambulating on rough surfaces

a. Descending stairs

A fitness instructor who is 8 months pregnant was recently diagnosed with placenta previa. The therapist’s most important instructions to her are to continue: a. Proper breathing and discontinue any abdominal exercises b. Pelvic floor and discontinue any abdominal exercises

b. Pelvic floor and discontinue any abdominal exercises

A patient recovering from stroke with minimal lower extremity weakness and spasticity is able to walk without an assistive device. The therapist observes that as he walks he hikes his pelvis on the affected side during the swing phase. The BEST initial intervention is: a. marching while sitting on a therapy ball b. standing, marching with manual pressure applied downward on the pelvis

a. marching while sitting on a therapy ball

Ability to maintain the COG over the base of support: a. Stability b. Balance

b. Balance

only ontogenic pattern seen in flexor withdrawal / supine withdrawal a. Mobility b. Stability c. Controlled Mobility d. Skill

a. Mobility

occurs Toward T10 Vertebra a. Flexor Withdrawal b. Neck-Cocontraction c. Quadruped d. Standing

a. Flexor Withdrawal

First real stability pattern a. Flexor Withdrawal b. Neck-Cocontraction c. Quadruped d. Standing

b. Neck-Cocontraction

Prepares child for equilibrium responses a. Flexor Withdrawal b. Neck-Cocontraction c. Quadruped d. Standing

c. Quadruped

Muscle belly pressure a. stimulatory b. inhibitory

a. stimulatory

Light Joint compression a. stimulatory b. inhibitory

b. inhibitory

Bone pounding a. stimulatory b. inhibitory

a. stimulatory

Best to use for inhibiting extreme spasticity a. Prolonged icing b. Neutral warmth c. Bone pounding d. Tapping e. Joint approximation f. Light Joint compression g. Muscle belly pressure h. Heavy Joint compression

a. Prolonged icing

Waiter (serving) PD & AS pt pulling up sword from scabbard a. UE D1 Flexion b. UE D1 Extension c. UE D2 Flexion d. UE D2 Extension

c. UE D2 Flexion

unzipping pants pitching a ball putting on a passenger seat belt a. UE D1 Flexion b. UE D1 Extension c. UE D2 Flexion d. UE D2 Extension

d. UE D2 Extension

Pt has left CVA, right hemiplegia, pt presents weak DF, how do you facilitate DF? a. applying resistance on the quadriceps b. applying resistance on the hamstring c. applying resistance on the evertors d. applying resistance on the plantarflexors

a. applying resistance on the quadriceps

use for ADHD / hyperactive a. Prolonged icing b. Neutral warmth c. Bone pounding d. Tapping e. Joint approximation f. Light Joint compression g. Muscle belly pressure h. Heavy Joint compression

b. Neutral warmth

Best to use for CVA pt a. Prolonged icing b. Neutral warmth c. Bone pounding d. Tapping e. Joint approximation f. Light Joint compression g. Muscle belly pressure h. Heavy Joint compression

d. Tapping

Used for extensor synergy a. Prolonged icing b. Neutral warmth c. Bone pounding d. Tapping e. Joint approximation f. Light Joint compression g. Muscle belly pressure h. Heavy Joint compression

f. Light Joint compression

Wearing of seatbelt (driver’s seat), rowing, skiing a. UE D1 Flexion b. UE D1 Extension c. UE D2 Flexion d. UE D2 Extension

b. UE D1 Extension

Eating, drinking, feeding, brushing teeth, putting on make-up a. UE D1 Flexion b. UE D1 Extension c. UE D2 Flexion d. UE D2 Extension

a. UE D1 Flexion

UE D1 Flexion, except: a. SH FABER b. Elbow Flexion c. FA Supination d. Wrist Flexion + RD e. Finger Flexion f. NOTA

a. SH FABER MUST BE FADER

UE D1 Extension, except: a. SH EXADIR b. Elbow Extension c. FA Pronation d. Wrist Extension + UD e. Finger Flexion f. NOTA

e. Finger Flexion it is EXTENDED

UE D2 Extension, except: a. SH EXADIR b. Elbow Extension c. FA Pronation d. Wrist Flexion + UD e. Finger Flexion f. NOTA

f. NOTA

UE D2 Flexion, except: a. SH FABER b. Elbow Flexion c. FA Supination d. Wrist flexion + RD e. Finger Flexion f. NOTA

d. Wrist flexion + RD wrist is in EXTENSION

Riding a motorbike Sidekick (karate move) a. LE D1 Flexion b. LE D1 Extension c. LE D2 Flexion d. LE D2 Extension

c. LE D2 Flexion

Skateboarding Starting a motorbike a. LE D1 Flexion b. LE D1 Extension c. LE D2 Flexion d. LE D2 Extension

b. LE D1 Extension

Wearing LE garments crossing of legs kicking a soccer ball a. LE D1 Flexion b. LE D1 Extension c. LE D2 Flexion d. LE D2 Extension

a. LE D1 Flexion

Bowling a. LE D1 Flexion b. LE D1 Extension c. LE D2 Flexion d. LE D2 Extension

d. LE D2 Extension

LE D1 Flexion, except: a. hip FADER b. knee Flexion c. ankle DF + Inversion d. foot Extension e. NOTA

e. NOTA

chop and lift a. bilateral symmetrical b. bilateral reciprocal c. bilateral asymmetrical d. crossed diagonal

c. bilateral asymmetrical

LE D1 Extension, except: a. hip EXABIR b. knee Extension c. ankle PF + Eversion d. foot Extension e. NOTA

d. foot Extension Foot is flexed

LE D2 Flexion, except: a. hip FABIR b. knee Flexion c. ankle DF + Inversion d. foot Extension e. NOTA

c. ankle DF + Inversion Everted

LE D2 Extension, except: a. hip EXADER b. knee Flexion c. ankle PF + Inversion d. foot Flexion e. NOTA

b. knee Flexion EXTENSION

● Same pattern ● Same direction a. bilateral symmetrical b. bilateral reciprocal c. bilateral asymmetrical d. crossed diagonal

a. bilateral symmetrical

Same pattern, Opposite direction a. bilateral symmetrical b. bilateral reciprocal c. bilateral asymmetrical d. crossed diagonal

b. bilateral reciprocal

D2 flexion and D1 extension a. bilateral symmetrical b. bilateral reciprocal c. bilateral asymmetrical d. crossed diagonal

d. crossed diagonal

the following are directed to agonist, except: a. Repeated contractions b. Hold-Relax, Active motion c. Rhythmic Initiation d. NOTA

d. NOTA

the following are reversal of antagonist, except: a. Slow Reversal (SR) b. Slow Reversal Hold (SRH) c. Quick Reversal (QR) d. Rhythmic Rotation (Ro)

d. Rhythmic Rotation (Ro) must be Rhythmic Stabilization (RS)

the following are for relaxation, except: a. Hold Relax (HR) b. Slow Reversal, Hold Relax (SRHR) c. Contract Relax (CR) d. Slow Reversal (SR)

d. Slow Reversal (SR)

With coughing, sneezing, or yawning ⇒ increases spasticity a. Marie-Foix b. Imitation synkinesis c. Homolateral limb synkinesis d. Raimiste’s Phenomenon e. Huntington’s Phenomenon

e. Huntington’s Phenomenon

Normal copies the abnormal movement a. Marie-Foix b. Imitation synkinesis c. Homolateral limb synkinesis d. Raimiste’s Phenomenon e. Huntington’s Phenomenon

b. Imitation synkinesis

Abduction/Adduction LE a. Marie-Foix b. Imitation synkinesis c. Homolateral limb synkinesis d. Raimiste’s Phenomenon e. Huntington’s Phenomenon

d. Raimiste’s Phenomenon Sterling - UE

With passive toe flexion = elicits ankle DF, knee & hip flexion a. Marie-Foix b. Imitation synkinesis c. Homolateral limb synkinesis d. Raimiste’s Phenomenon e. Huntington’s Phenomenon

a. Marie-Foix

UE & LE Flexion (mass flexion) a. Marie-Foix b. Imitation synkinesis c. Homolateral limb synkinesis d. Raimiste’s Phenomenon e. Huntington’s Phenomenon

c. Homolateral limb synkinesis

UE Flexor synergy, except: a. Scapular Elevation & Retraction b. Shoulder Abduction & ER c. Elbow Flexion d. Forearm Pronation e. Wrist & Fingers Flexion f. NOTA

d. Forearm Pronation

UE Extensor synergy, except: a. Scapular Protraction b. Shoulder Adduction & IR c. Elbow Extension d. Forearm Pronation e. Wrist & Fingers Flexion f. NOTA

f. NOTA

UE Flexor synergy strongest component: a. Scapular Elevation & Retraction b. Shoulder Abduction & ER c. Elbow Flexion d. Forearm Supination e. Wrist & Fingers Flexion f. NOTA

c. Elbow Flexion

UE Extensor synergy strongest component: a. Scapular Protraction b. Shoulder Adduction & IR c. Elbow Extension d. Forearm Pronation e. Wrist & Fingers Flexion f. NOTA

d. Forearm Pronation with Adduction

LE Flexor synergy, except: a. Hip FABER b. Knee Flexion c. Ankle DF & Inversion d. Toes Extension e. AOTA f. NOTA

f. NOTA

LE Extensor synergy, except: a. Hip EXADIR b. Knee Extension c. Ankle PF & Inversion d. Toes Extension e. AOTA f. NOTA

d. Toes Extension Toe is in FLEXION

LE Flexor synergy strongest component: a. Hip Flexion b. Knee Flexion c. Ankle Inversion d. Toes Extension e. AOTA f. NOTA

a. Hip FABER

LE Extensor synergy strongest component: a. Hip Extension b. Knee Extension c. Ankle PF d. Toes Extension e. AOTA f. NOTA

c. Ankle PF also Adduction

Stage of recovery: Hook Grasp a. Stage I b. Stage II c. Stage III d. Stage IV e. Stage V f. Stage VI g. Stage VII

c. Stage III

Stage of recovery: pronation-supination with 90O elbow flexion a. Stage I b. Stage II c. Stage III d. Stage IV e. Stage V f. Stage VI g. Stage VII

d. Stage IV

Stage of recovery: Palmar Prehension a. Stage I b. Stage II c. Stage III d. Stage IV e. Stage V f. Stage VI g. Stage VII

e. Stage V

Stage of recovery: Spherical grasp a. Stage I b. Stage II c. Stage III d. Stage IV e. Stage V f. Stage VI g. Stage VII

e. Stage V

Stage of recovery: Synergies voluntarily controlled a. Stage I b. Stage II c. Stage III d. Stage IV e. Stage V f. Stage VI g. Stage VII

c. Stage III

Stage of recovery: Independent joint movement possible, coordination approaches normal a. Stage I b. Stage II c. Stage III d. Stage IV e. Stage V f. Stage VI g. Stage VII

f. Stage VI

Stage of recovery: ; Lateral Prehension a. Stage I b. Stage II c. Stage III d. Stage IV e. Stage V f. Stage VI g. Stage VII

d. Stage IV

Stage of recovery: pronation-supination with elbow extension a. Stage I b. Stage II c. Stage III d. Stage IV e. Stage V f. Stage VI g. Stage VII

e. Stage V

Stage of recovery: Cylindrical grasp a. Stage I b. Stage II c. Stage III d. Stage IV e. Stage V f. Stage VI g. Stage VII

e. Stage V

PNF strengthening for TA: a. D1 flexion b. D1 extension c. D2 flexion d. D2 extension

a. D1 flexion

PNF strengthening for Peroneus longus: a. D1 flexion b. D1 extension c. D2 flexion d. D2 extension

b. D1 extension

PNF strengthening for Peroneus Tertius: a. D1 flexion b. D1 extension c. D2 flexion d. D2 extension

c. D2 flexion

PNF strengthening for TP: a. D1 flexion b. D1 extension c. D2 flexion d. D2 extension

d. D2 extension

Therapeutic Exercise Flashcards

(278 cards)