Urinary System

Question 1

Massive protein loss after glomerulonephritis; causes edema

Answer 1

Nephrotic Syndrome

Question 2

Immunosuppressant that improves kidney‑graft survival

Answer 2

Cyclososporine

Question 3

Shock‑wave treatment for stones ≤ 4 cm in diameter

Answer 3

ESWL

Question 4

Involuntary loss of drops of urine is called:

Answer 4

Dribbling

Question 5

Sling supporting bladder/urethra for stress incontinence

Answer 5

Transobturator Tape (TOT)

Question 6

Fast, deep breathing seen in renal failure acidosis

Answer 6

Kussmaul’s Respirations

Question 7

Long‑term catheter access for dialysis

Answer 7

Permacath

Question 8

Midstream urine collected for culture or pregnancy testing

Answer 8

Clean‑Catch Specimen

Question 9

Inflammation of the bladder, usually caused by an organism introduced through the meatus.

Answer 9

Cystitis

Question 10

4 Organs of the Urinary System

Answer 10

Kidneys → ureters → bladder → urethra

Question 11

_______ perform the “major work” of filtering blood.

Answer 11

Kidneys

Question 12

_________ sits slightly lower, displaced by the liver.

Answer 12

Right Kidney

Question 13

How long is a male urethra, and how long is a female’s?

Answer 13

M-8 in long, F- 1.5 in (explaining higher cystitis risk)

Question 14

The purpose of this test is a baseline screen for infection, protein, and glucose

Answer 14

Urinalysis (non-invasive)

Question 15

________ quantifies creatinine, hormones and you keep container on ice

Answer 15

24‑hour urine

Question 16

Purpose of this test is culture or pregnancy test; patient‑taught midstream tech.

Answer 16

Clean‑catch specimen (Matching #25)

Question 17

Contrast X‑ray of urinary tract; check for iodine allergy first.

Answer 17

IVP (Intravenous Pyelography), Q6

Question 18

Endoscopic bladder exam; can biopsy or remove stones (not transplant!).

Answer 18

Cystoscopy, Q12

Question 19

Invasive; drains or instills fluid; obtain sterile specimen

Answer 19

Catheterization, Q18

Question 20

Acute Glomerulonephritis (AGN), key signs, and management?

Answer 20

Key signs/Risks: Proteinuria, edema, fatigue (not anemia)
First-Line Management: BP control, diet

Question 21

Chronic Renal Failure, key signs, and management?

Answer 21

Key Signs/ Risks: Early listlessness, dry mouth, hypotension (confusion later)
First-line Management: Dialysis prep

Question 22

Kidney Stones, key signs, and management?

Answer 22

Key Signs/ Risks: Males 30s highest risk; ESWL if ≤ 4 cm
First-line Management: Hydration, lithotripsy

Question 23

Cystitis, key signs, and management?

Answer 23

Key Signs/ Risks: Dysuria, urgency; self‑care: water + cranberry juice
First-line Management: Antibodies

Question 24

Pyelonephritis, key signs, and management?

Answer 24

Key Signs/ Risks: Flank pain, fever
First-line Management: IV/ oral antibiotics

Question 25

Nephrotic Syndrome, key signs, and management?

Answer 25

Key Signs/ Risks: Massive protein loss; often post‑glomerulonephritis First-line Management: Corticosteroids, diuretics

Question 26

Stone size for ESWL

Answer 26

≤ 4 cm

Question 27

Male urethra length

Answer 27

8 inches

Question 28

NIPD exchanges/night

Answer 28

≥ 6

Question 29

Synthetic graft lifespan

Answer 29

3-5 years

Question 30

Common stone demographic

Answer 30

Male, ~ 30 yrs old

Question 31

An individual entering pregnancy overweight (BMI ~27.5 falls in this range) should aim for _____ less than for normal‑weight pregnancies.

Answer 31

15–25 lb total gain

Question 32

After fertilization, the zygote reaches the uterus in about ____ post‑ovulation.

Answer 32

6 days

Question 33

At ______, terminology shifts; the embryo is now called a fetus.

Answer 33

8 weeks gestation

Question 34

Begin ______ daily at least __ months before conception and continue through pregnancy to reduce neural‑tube defects.

Answer 34

1 mg folic acid, 3 months

Question 35

Early signs of pregnancy are: morning sickness, a missed period, and breast tenderness are typical early indicators; but ______ is not an early sign (often later or pathologic).

Answer 35

generalized edema of hands/face/feet/legs is

Question 36

Cervix must dilate to about _____ before vaginal birth

Answer 36

10 cm

Question 37

Naegele's Rule

Answer 37

LMP April 7 → EDD January 14 (demonstrates how due dates are calculated from last menstrual period).

Question 38

Symptoms include bleeding easily to the touch during examination and intermenstrual bleeding.

Answer 38

Cervical Erosion

Question 39

Infertility treatment that involves injecting sperm into the uterus through a catheter in the cervix.

Answer 39

Artificial Insemination

Question 40

Used to determine if a patient has Klinefelter's syndrome

Answer 40

Chromosomal Analysis

Question 41

Typically, the most effective method of contraception and prevention of exposure to STI's.

Answer 41

Condoms

Question 42

Large pad of fat that overlies the symphysis pubis.

Answer 42

Vulva

Question 43

Sometimes called Cowper's glands.

Answer 43

Bulbourethral Glands

Question 44

______ can survive approximately 1 day without a host.

Answer 44

Pubic Lice

Question 45

Rounded mass composed of two small columns of erectile tissue.

Answer 45

Clitoris

Question 46

Risk factors peak when a woman is in her 80's.

Answer 46

Ovarian Cancer

Question 47

Where is the thyroid gland located?

Answer 47

In the front of the neck at the larynx.

Question 48

____ is attached to the brain and also called "the master gland".

Answer 48

Pituitary

Question 49

What sits atop the kidneys?

Answer 49

Adrenal Glands

Question 50

Why is penicillin the treatment of choice for syphilis?

Answer 50

it is the only antibiotic to which Treponema pallidum, the bacteria causing the disease, has never developed resistance

Question 51

A muscular twitching patient post‑thyroid surgery shows low calcium—what mineral supplement treats tetany?

Answer 51

intravenous calcium gluconate

Question 52

A provider orders RAIU. Which gland are you evaluating?

Answer 52

thyroid

Question 53

When blood sugar tanks, which organ releases glycogen under glucagon’s signal?

Answer 53

pancreas

Question 54

Your patient’s neck appears enlarged and she reports low dietary salt from sea‑free inland diet; which nutrient’s lack is linked to thyroid enlargement?

Answer 54

iodine

Question 55

List two signs that steer you toward Graves’ disease rather than simple anxiety in a patient with a rapid pulse.

Answer 55

Enlarged thyroid gland, feeling irritable, or slight tremors in hand or fingers