1
Q
- What is the appropriate reagent for the reticulocyte count?
A. New methylene blue
B. Phloxine B
C. Solution lyses erythrocytes and darkens the cells to be counted
D. 10% HCl solution
A
A. New methylene blue
2
Q
- What is the appropriate procedure and characteristic for the Westergren method?
A. The diluting solution lyses erythrocytes with propylene glycol and contains sodium carbonate and water.
B. The procedure measures the rate of erythrocyte settling.
C. Ferrous ions are oxidized to the ferric state.
D. The diluting solution is either 1% hydrochloric acid or 2% acetic acid.
A
B. The procedure measures the rate of erythrocyte settling.
3
Q
- What source of error will have greatest effect on PCV (hematocrit)?
A. Incorrect dilution of blood and diluent
B. Hemolysis of whole blood specimen
C. Excessive anticoagulant will produce shrinkage of cells
D. Specimen stored in EDTA for 1 week
A
C. Excessive anticoagulant will produce shrinkage of cells
4
Q
- In a platelet count, what error will have the greatest effect on the test result?
A. Refractile bodies can produce a false-positive observation.
B. Specimens stored at room temperature for more than 5 hours will produce inaccurate results.
C. An old stain
D. Incorrect pH of stain
A
B. Specimens stored at room temperature for more than 5 hours will produce inaccurate results.
5
Q
- In a reticulocyte count, what error will have the greatest effect on the test result?
A. Refractile bodies can produce a false-positive observation.
B. Specimens stored at room temperature for more than 5 hours will produce inaccurate results.
C. An old stain
D. Incorrect pH of stain
A
A. Refractile bodies can produce a false-positive observation.
6
Q
- The correct reference value for an erythrocyte count (adult male)
iS
A. 0.15 to 0.3 × 10%/L
B. 12.0 to 16.0 g/dL
C. 4.5 to 5.9 × 10’/L
D. 22% to 40%
A
C. 4.5 to 5.9 × 10’/L
7
Q
- The correct reference value for hemoglobin assay (adult female) is
A. 0.15 to 0.3 × 10%
B. 12.0 to 16.0 g/dL
C. 4.5 to 5.9 × 1012/L
D. 22% to 40%
A
B. 12.0 to 16.0 g/dL
8
Q
- The correct reference value for absolute lymphocyte (adult) is
A. 1.2 to 3.4 × 10^9/L
B. 12.0 to 16.0 g/dL
C. 4.5 to 5.9 × 10’2/L
D. 22% to 40%
A
A. 1.2 to 3.4 × 10^9/L
9
Q
- The reference value for total leukocyte count is
A. up to 13 mm/h
B. 2.5% to 6.0%
C. 150 to 450 × 10^9/L
D. 4.5 to 11.0 × 10^9/L
A
D. 4.5 to 11.0 × 10^9/L
10
Q
- The reference value for PCV (adult, female) is
A. up to 13 mm/h
B. 2.5% to 6.0%
C. 150 to 450 × 10^9/L
D. 36% to 45%
A
D. 36% to 45%
11
Q
- The reference value for direct platelet count is
A. up to 13 mm/h
B. 2.5% to 6.0%
C. 150 to 400 × 10^9/L
D. 4.4 to 11.3 x 10^9/L
A
C. 150 to 400 × 10^9/L
12
Q
- The reference value for the reticulocyte count (newborn infant) is
A. up to 13 mm/h
B. 2.5% to 6.5%
C. 150 to 450 × 10^9/L
D. 36% to 45%
A
B. 2.5% to 6.5%
13
Q
- The reference value for the Westergren ESR method (adult male over 50 years) is
A. up to 15 mm/h
в. 2.5% to 6.0%
C. 150 to 450 × 10^9/L
D. 36% to 45%
A
A. up to 15 mm/h
14
Q
- What clinical or specimen condition will produce an increased total leukocyte count?
A. Active allergies
B. Immediate hypersensitivity reactions
C. Alpenabled specimen
A
C. Alpenabled specimen
15
Q
- Which clinical or specimen condition will produce an increased PCV test result?
A. Splenectomy
B. Rouleaux formation
C. Polycythemia
D. Hemolytic anemia crisis
A
C. Polycythemia
16
Q
- Which clinical or specimen condition will produce an increased reticulocyte count test result?
A. Splenectomy
B. Rouleaux formation
C. Polycythemia
D. Hemolytic anemia crisis
A
D. Hemolytic anemia crisis
17
Q
- Which clinical or specimen condition will produce an increased
Westergren ESR method test result?
A. Splenectomy
B. Rouleaux formation
C. Polycythemia
D. Hemolytic anemia crisis
A
B. Rouleaux formation
18
Q
- What clinical condition will produce an increased value of neutrophils?
A. Invasive parasites
B. Bacterial infections
C. Viral infections
D. Tuberculosis
A
B. Bacterial infections
19
Q
- What clinical condition will produce an increased value of lymphocytes?
A. Invasive parasites
B. Bacterial infections
C. Viral infections
D. Tuberculosis
A
C. Viral infections
20
Q
- What clinical condition will produce an increased value of monocytes?
A. Invasive parasites
B. Bacterial infections
C. Viral Infections
D. TB
A
D. TB
21
Q
- What clinical condition will produce an increased value of eosinophils?
A. Invasive parasites
B. Bacterial infections
C. Viral infections
D. Tuberculosis
A
A. Invasive parasites
22
Q
- What clinical condition will produce a decreased reticulocyte
A. PV
B Acute leukemia
C. Megaloblastic anemia
D. Viral infection
A
C. Megaloblastic anemia
23
Q
- What clinical condition will produce a decreased Westergren ESR value?
A. Polycythemia vera
B. Acute leukemias
C. Megaloblastic anemia
D. Viral infection
A
A. Polycythemia vera
24
Q
- A normal blood smear should have no more than approximately ____ (Max # of plts per IOF in an area where the erythrocytes are hust touching each other)
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25
A
C. 20
25
24. A normal blood smear should have no more than approximately_____ (Max # of plts per IOF in an area where the erythrocytes are hust touching each other)
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25
C. 20
26
25. The PCV procedure can be affected by the
A. speed of the centrifuge
B. length of time of centrifugation
C. ratio of anticoagulant to whole blood
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
27
26. Which of the following erythrocytic inclusions contain RNA and can be observed by staining with new methylene blue?
A. Howell-Jolly bodies
B. Heinz bodies
C. Pappenheimer bodies
D. Reticulocytes
D. Retics
28
27. The sedimentation rate of erythrocytes can be affected by the
A. ratio of anticoagulant to whole blood
B. position of the tube
C. temperature of the specimen or laboratory
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
29
*28. Cellulose acetate at pH 8.6 separates the hemoglobin fractions
A. S
в. Н
С. А
D. both A and C
D. both A and C
30
*29. If an alkaline (pH 8.6) electrophoresis is performed, hemoglobin E has the same mobility as hemoglobin
A. S
B. F
C. А
D. C
C. А
31
*30. Heinz bodies are
A. precipitation of free iron into blue or blue-green granules
B. denatured by crystal violet stain
C. lymphocytes that do not stain
D. intense cytoplasmic granular staining particles in erythroleukemia
B. denatured by crystal violet stain
32
*31. Prussian Blue stain produces
A. precipitation of free iron into blue or blue-green granules
B. denatured red blood cells
C. non-staining in lymphocytes
D. intense cytoplasmic granular staining particles in
erythroleukemia
A. precipitation of free iron into blue or blue-green granules
33
*32. Periodic acid-Schiff produces
A. precipitation of free iron into blue or blue-green granules
B. denatured red blood cells
C. non-staining in lymphocytes
D. intense cytoplasmic granular staining particles in erythroleukemia
D. intense cytoplasmic granular staining particles in erythroleukemia
34
*33. Peroxidase stain produces
A. precipitation of free iron into blue or blue-green granules
B. denatured red blood cells
C. non-staining in lymphocytes
D. intense cytoplasmic granular staining particles in erythroleukemia
C. non-staining in lymphocytes
35
*34. The result for an Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) stain is:
A. normal, if the result is 32 to 182 with fast blue RR dye
B. positive, if 10% to 50% hemolysis is present
C. normal, if < 10% of cells exhibit hemoglobin F in adults
D. normal in newborns, if the result is 70% to 90%
A. normal, if the result is 32 to 182 with fast blue RR dye
36
*35. Leukocytes that demonstrate a positive reaction in tartaric acid-resistant phosphatase cytochemical staining are the lymphocytes seen in
A. infectious mononucleosis
B. malignant lymphoma
C. ALL (non-T type)
D. Hairy Cell leukemia
D. Hairy Cell leukemia
37
*36. PAP blood smears should be stained with _ of specimen collection.
A. 8 hours
B. 48 hours
c. 72 hours
D. 5 days
A. 8 hours
38
37. Which of the following is the appropriate principle or description of APTT
A. In the presence of heparin, thrombin is neutralized.
B. Measures the time required to generate thrombin and fibrin polymers via the intrinsic pathway
C. Measures inhibitors of specific factors
D. An in vivo measurement of platelet adhesion and aggregation on locally injured vascular subendothelium
B. Measures the time required to generate thrombin and fibrin polymers via the intrinsic pathway
39
38. Which of the following is the appropriate principle or description of the antithrombin assay?
A. In the presence of heparin, thrombin is neutralized.
B. Measures the time required to generate thrombin and fibrin polymers via the intrinsic pathway
C. Measures inhibitors of specific factors
D. An in vivo measurement of platelet adhesion and aggregation on locally injured vascular subendothelium
A. In the presence of heparin, thrombin is neutralized.
40
39. Which of the following is the appropriate principle or description of the circulating anticoagulant assay?
A. In the presence of heparin, thrombin is neutralized.
B. Measures the time required to generate thrombin and fibrin polymers via the intrinsic pathway
C. Measures inhibitors of specific factors
D. An in vivo measurement of platelet adhesion and aggregation on locally injured vascular subendothelium
C. Measures inhibitors of specific factors
41
40. The appropriate reference value for diagnostic characteristics of the APTT
A. positive result: increased ratio of normal plasma to patient plasma.
B. Normal: 2 to 8 minutes
C. Normal: 20 to 35 seconds (28 to 42 seconds), the range depending on the activator and phospholipid reagents
D. Normal: 80% to 100% (range, 107% ‡ 19%)
C. Normal: 20 to 35 seconds (28 to 42 seconds), the range depending on the activator and phospholipid reagents
42
41. The appropriate reference value or diagnostic characteristic of the antithrombin level is:
A. positive result: increased ratio of normal plasma to patient plasma.
B. Normal: 2 to 8 minutes
C. Normal: 20 to 35 seconds (28 to 42 seconds), the range depending on the activator and phospholipid reagents
D. Normal: 80% to 100% (range, 107% ‡ 19%)
D. Normal: 80% to 100% (range, 107% ‡ 19%)
43
42. The appropriate reference value or diagnostic characteristic of circulating anticoagulants is:
A. positive result: increased ratio of normal plasma to patient plasma.
B. Normal: 2 to 8 minutes
C. Normal: 20 to 35 seconds (28 to 42 seconds), the range depending on the activator and phospholipid reagents
D. Normal: 80% to 100% (range, 107% ‡ 19%)
A. positive result: increased ratio of normal plasma to patient plasma.
44
43. The appropriate reference value or diagnostic characteristic of the prothrombin time is:
A. Normal 10 to 14 seconds
B. Normal: 2 to 8 minutes
C. Normal: 20 to 35 seconds (28 to 42 seconds), the range depending on the activator and phospholipid reagents
D. Normal: 80% to 100% (range, 107% ‡ 19%)
A. Normal 10 to 14 seconds
45
44. Which of the following is the appropriate reference value for factor VIlI assay?
A. Normal: no dissolution of the clot at 24 hours
B. Normal: less than 8 to 10 g/mL
C. Normal: 50% to 150%
D. Normal: 200 to 400 mg/dL or a titer of 1:123 to 1:256
C. Normal: 50% to 150%
46
45. Which of the following is the appropriate reference value for fibrin split products?
A. Normal: no dissolution of the clot at 24 hours
B. Normal: less than 8 to 10 pg/mL
C. Normal: 50% to 150%
D. Normal: 200 to 400 mg/dL or a titer of 1:123 to 1:256
B. Normal: less than 8 to 10 pg/mL
47
46. Which of the following is the appropriate reference value for fibrin-stabilizing factor?
A. Normal: no dissolution of the clot at 24 hours
B. Normal: less than 8 to 10 ug/mL
C. Normal: 50% to 150%
D. Normal: 200 to 400 mg/dL or a titer of 1:123 to 1:256
A. Normal: no dissolution of the clot at 24 hours
48
47. Which of the following is the appropriate reference value for fibrinogen assay?
A. Normal: no dissolution of the clot at 24 hours
B. Normal: less than 8 to 10 pg/mL
C. Normal: 50% to 150%
D. Normal: 200 to 400 mg/dL or a titer of 1:123 to 1:256
D. Normal: 200 to 400 mg/dL or a titer of 1:123 to 1:256
