APK 2 Flashcards by Ralph Senarlo

Proper positioning of the upper extremity in supine would best be described as shoulder _______.

a. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow fully extended.
b. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 90 degrees.
c. In neutral, elbow flexed to 90 degrees.
d. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 45 degrees.

b. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 90 degrees.

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The annular ligament at the elbow facilitates which of the following motions?

a. Extension of the elbow
b. Pronation of the forearm and flexion of the elbow
c. Supination of the forearm and flexion of the elbow
d. Pronation and supination of the forearm

d. Pronation and supination of the forearm

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The following statements describe the acromioclavicular joint, EXCEPT:

a. no loss of scapular rotation was apparent with acromioclavicular joint fixation.
b. range of motion of the scapula is equal to the sum of sternoclavicular and acromioclavicular ranges of motion.
c. the joint has two axes and two degrees of freedom.
It contributes 20 degrees of scapular elevation and about 20 degrees of upward rotation during full arm elevation.
d. the glenoid fossa is aligned with the humeral head during shoulder flexion or abduction through small anterior and posterior movements of the acromion

c. the joint has two axes and two degrees of freedom.

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The following statements describe the triquetrium, EXCEPT:

a. Lies just distal to the ulnar styloid process, in the proximal row
b. It lies under the pisiform
c. Palpated by radially deviating the hand
d. Third highest of all the carpal bones in incidence of fracture
e. Formed within the flexor ulnaris tendon

e. Formed within the flexor ulnaris tendon

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The following applies to radio-ulnar articulation, EXCEPT the:

a. proximal joint lies within the capsule of the elbow joint.
b. axis of motion is represented proximally by a line through the center of head of the ulna and distally through the center of the head of the radius.
c. radius rotate in relation to the ulna due to the connection between them.
d. one degree of freedom allows pronation and supination only.

b. axis of motion is represented proximally by a line through the center of head of the ulna and distally through the center of the head of the radius.

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What is the function of the acromioclavicular joint?

I. Vital joint to force transmission in the upper extremity
Il. Permits the scapula to glide forward and backward on the clavicle in congruence with the direction of the humeral head
III. Allow scapula to move sideways on the chest when the arm is raised

a. I
b. I and II
c. I and III
d. II

b. I and II

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What long muscles flex the second to fifth digits of the IP joints?

I. Flexor digitorum superficialis
Il. Palmaris longus
Ill. Lumbricals and interossei
IV. Flexor digitorum profundus
V. Flexor pollicis longus

a. I and IV
b. III, IV, and V
c. Il and III
d. I, II, and IV

a. I and IV

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Which progressive resistive exercise functions to strengthen the infraspinatus and teres minor?

a. extension of the shoulder with dumbbell weights
b. external rotation of the shoulder with elastic tubing
c. internal rotation of the shoulder with elastic tubing
d. flexion of the shoulder with dumbbell weights

b. external rotation of the shoulder with elastic tubing

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Which of the following statements correctly describe abduction of the arm at the shoulder?

I. The rotator cuff muscles depress the head of the humerus during shoulder abduction to prevent impingement of the humerus on the acromion
Il. Internal rotation of the humerus accompanies complete
IlI. Abduction is produced by means of the deltoid and supraspinatus muscles working together.
IV. External rotation of the humerus accompanies
complete abduction.
V. Abduction is more powerful in the position of external rotation than in the position of internal rotation

a. I, II, Ill and IV
b. I, Il, and IV
c. I, Ill, IV, and V
d. I, IV, and V

c. I, Ill, IV, and V

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If a 40-kilogram force is applied over an area of four square centimeters, the (in kilograms per square centimeter) is equal to

a. 20
b. 10
c. 30
d. 40

b. 10

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What ligament prevents posterior motion of the pelvis on the femur (hip hyperextension) when standing?

a. Ischiofemoral
b. Pubofemoral
c. Puboischial
d. lliofemoral

d. lliofemoral

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The following statements describe care of knee extension mechanism injuries, EXCEPT:

a. Resistance for straight-leg-raises is kept to an upper limit of 6.8 kg.
b. Hamstring stretching is useful in preventing overcompression of the patella against the underlying bony surface.
c. Flexion-to-extension motions or heavy resistance may aggravate these type of injuries.
d. Running is encouraged because the biomechanical forces of running put great stress upon the extensor mechanism.
e. When using stationary bike, resistance should be kept low and a steady pace of about 20 mph maintained.

d. Running is encouraged because the biomechanical forces of running put great stress upon the extensor mechanism.

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The spinal cord tapers at the level of the lower border of the 1ª* lumbar vertebra called:

a. Filum terminale
b. Coccyx
c. Conus medullaris
d. Coccygium finale
e. Cauda equina

c. Conus medullaris

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The following muscles externally rotate the hip, EXCEPT:

a. obturator internus.
b. piriformis.
c. quadratus lumborum.
d. gemelli.

c. quadratus lumborum.

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The following statements describe the menisci (intra-articular cartilage), EXCEPT:

a. The lateral meniscus can tear when the femur is externally rotated on the tibia
b. Crescent-shaped wedges of fibrocartilage which occur in margins of the medial and lateral tibial condyles
c. Facilitate articulation between the tibia and the femur, and cushion articular surfaces.
d. Medial meniscus may tear when the femur is internally rotated on the fixed tibia, with the knee in flexion and abduction
e. Lateral meniscus may tear when the femur is externally rotated on the fixed tibia, with the knee in flexion and adduction

e. Lateral meniscus may tear when the femur is externally rotated on the fixed tibia, with the knee in flexion and adduction

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Gait patterns between young (20-40 y.o.) and old (60-80 y.o.) people differ in their gait performance as follows, EXCEPT:

a. Stride length is significantly greater in the younger persons
b. Peak knee extension is significantly less in the older persons
c. Peak hip flexion exhibit a slightly increase in the older persons
d. Stride time is shorter for the young than the old

d. Stride time is shorter for the young than the old

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This muscle is a pure flexor of the clbow when the forearm is in midposition.

a.Pronator teres
b. Biceps brachii
c. Brachialis
d. Brachioradialis
e. Anconeus

d. Brachioradialis

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Following are changes in the mechanical properties of muscle fibers occurring in patients with spasticity, EXCEPT:

a. Increase muscle tone in the antigravity muscles
b. Increased levels of muscle fiber atrophy
c. Structural changes such as the appearance of target fibers
d. Contraction times of hand muscles and gastrocnemius muscles are diminished

d. Contraction times of hand muscles and gastrocnemius muscles are diminished

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Tumor located at the premotor cortex will give rise to

a. Incoordination of the contralateral side
b. Paralysis of the ipsilateral
c. Paralysis of the contralateral
d. Tremors of the ipsilateral side

a. Incoordination of the contralateral side

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The posterior deltoid muscle fibers produce which of the following shoulder motions?

a. Abduction, external rotation and extension
b. Extension and external rotation
c. Flexion and extension
d. Extension and abduction

b. Extension and external rotation

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What starts when foot contacts the floor and ends with subsequent floor contact on the same foot?

a.Gait cycle
b.Walking speed
c.Cadence
d.Normal gait

a.Gait cycle

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The client losing his ability to write due to a brain lesion is a result of this neurological disorder

a. Agraphia
b. Bradykinesia
c. Agnosia
d. Apraxia
e. Aphasia

a. Agraphia

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Very slow movements

a.Dystonia
b.Chorea
C.Bradykinesia
d.Dysarthria
e.Athetosis

C.Bradykinesia

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When a patient can pronate and supinate his affected forearm with the elbow extended, he is Brunnstrom’s development stage

a.5
b.2
C.3
d.4
e.1

a.5

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The product of breathing frequency and tidal volume (VT) is: a.stroke volume b.cardiac output c.ventilation d.metabolic rate

c.ventilation

To test this nerve, the client protrudes the tongue and moves it from side to side. What nerve is this? a.Spinal accessory b.Glossopharyngeal c.Hypoglossal d.Nervus Intermedius

c.Hypoglossal

This/These muscle/s retract/s the protracted scapula and turn the glenoid fossa downwards, thus forcibly lowering the raised arm. It/They keep the scapula applied to the chest wall with other muscles. a. Pectoralis Minor b. Trapezius c. Levator Scapulae d. Rhomboids e. Serratus Anterior

d. Rhomboids

The Problem Oriented Medical Record is a system based on the following, EXCEPT: a.formation of present and past information about the patient b.identification of a specific treatment plan C.Preparation of the informed consent. d.assessment of the effectiveness of the treatment plans e.development of a specific, current problem

C.Preparation of the informed consent.

A therapist assesses the ligamentous integrity of a client's knee by completing a series of special tests. The most accurate way to determine if the client's ligamentous integrity is compromised is to: a.instruct the referring physician to order radiographs. b.compare the ligamentous laxity to his family without knee pathology C.compare the ligamentous laxity to other clients in the clinic without knee pathology. d.compare the ligamentous laxity in the involved knee to the uninvolved knee. e.compare the millimeters of ligamentous laxity to established norms

d.compare the ligamentous laxity in the involved knee to the uninvolved knee.

Suggested dimension (in feet) for a treatment cubicle area is a.8 x 12 b.10x10 C.8 × 10 d.8 x 8

C.8 × 10

A patient is unable to complete full range of hip flexion against gravity. The most appropriate position to observe hip flexion with gravity eliminated is a.Supine b.Half sitting c.Sitting d.Sidelying

d.Sidelying

LD is a 35-year-old male who came in for weakness and pain of the left lower extremity of one-week duration. Past medical history is unremarkable except for (+) history of poliomyelitis at age 7 years. Pertinent physical examination revealed (+) left lower atrophy with note of leg length discrepancy. What is the most likely diagnosis? a.Post-polio syndrome b.Guillain-Barre Syndrome c.Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease d.Spinal cord injury

a.Post-polio syndrome

A therapist completes a daily progress note utilizing S.O.A.P. format. Which of the following entries does NOT belong in the objective section? a.Incision on the left anterior forearm covered with sterile strips b.Left lower extremity range of motion within normal c.Will receive continuous ultrasound to the right anterior shoulder at 1.5 W/cm2 for 5 minutes d.Tenderness to palpation in L1-L2 area

c.Will receive continuous ultrasound to the right anterior shoulder at 1.5 W/cm2 for 5 minutes

A therapist complete daily documentation using S.O.A.P. note format. The following entries typically belong to the subjective section, EXCEPT: a.Patient goal: return home without assistance b.Complains of pain when reaching for his shoes c.Hip hiking reproduces knee pain d.Denies pain with cough or sneeze

c.Hip hiking reproduces knee pain

The following statements are true of straight leg raising test, EXCEPT a.At the point where the patient experiences pain, lower the leg slightly and then dorsiflex the foot-if there is no pain, the pain induced is probably due to the sciatic nerve b.The foot is lifted upward supporting the calcaneus, and with the knee remaining straight, raise the leg to the point of discomfort or pain c.Designed to reproduce back and leg pain d.If there is a positive reaction to the straight leg raising test and the foot dorsiflexion maneuver, the pain may be either in the lumbar spine or along the course of the sciatic nerve e.The normal angle between the table and the

a.At the point where the patient experiences pain, lower the leg slightly and then dorsiflex the foot-if there is no pain, the pain induced is probably due to the sciatic nerve

The following are disadvantages of soft post-operative dressing after an amputation, EXCEPT: a.Allows for active joint ROM and removal for easy wound inspection advantage b.If applied with too much tension, may risk tourniquet c.Frequent dressing changes interrupt tissue healing d.Difficult to control amount of tension in the

a.Allows for active joint ROM and removal for easy wound inspection advantage

Which of the following statements is NOT true of manual techniques? a.Manual techniques should be applied only over the lung that approximates the chest wall with full inspiration b.The medial segment of the right lower lobe is not accessible to manual techniques c.Commonly accepted anatomic landmarks for percussion and vibration include the level of the 10th thoracic vertebra posteriorly and the xiphoid process anteriorly with normal respiration d.Manual technique is contraindicated for patients with severe brain injury because they to dot increase intracranial pressure

d.Manual technique is contraindicated for patients with severe brain injury because they to dot increase intracranial pressure

In the neuropathic extremity, a poor indicator of inflammation is a.Head and redness b.Redness and edema c.Edema or pain d.Pain and disturbance of function e.Edema or loss of function

d.Pain and disturbance of function

Which proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation techniques are the most appropriate to achieve the therapists goals of improving a patient's lower extremity strength? a.Contract relax and rhythmic stabilization b.Repeated contraction and slow reversal C.Contract relax and hold relax d.Hold relax and slow reversal

b.Repeated contraction and slow reversal

A patient rehabilitating from injuries sustained in a motor vehicle accident is referred to physical therapy for gait training with an appropriate assistive device. The PT attempts to instruct the patient using axillary crutches, but feels it does not offer the client enough stability or support. Which of the following assistive devices would be most appropriate for client? a. Parallel bars b. Cane c. Walker d. Lofstrand crutches

c. Walker

A therapist examines a patient with cervical pain of unknown etiology and identifies a shortening of the cervical spine extensors, upper trapezius and levator scapulae. The most probable postural deviation is: a. Forward shoulders b. Kyphosis c. Forward head d. Lordosis e. Head leaning to lateral side

c. Forward head

The following statements are true of breathing exercises, EXCEPT: a. Used when thoracic excursion is decreased as a result of retained secretions or pain b. Benefit includes increased tidal volume, improved thoracic-cage mobility and increased inspiratory capacity c. May be used during weaning from mechanical ventilation d. Indicated during mechanical ventilation e. Indicated in the ICU setting for patients with neuromuscular disease

d. Indicated during mechanical ventilation

This structure provides humans the ability to lift heavy weights overhead; it also stabilizes the trunk for throwing objects with high velocities. a. Brachioradialis b. Quadriceps c. Strong rectus abdominis d. Thoracolumbar fascia e. Sacrospinalis group

d. Thoracolumbar fascia

Which of the following assesses L5 radiculopathy? a. Repetitive rising on toes on involved side b. Squatting and rising c. Bending forward and touching toes d. Walking on heels with toes in the air e. Repetitive rising on heels on uninvolved side

d. Walking on heels with toes in the air

To improve a patient's gait, the following is indicated for an ankle-foot orthosis EXCEPT: a. Genu valgus at midstance b. Foot drop at heel strike due to weak gastroc-soleus muscles c. Mediolateral instability at the ankle d. Foot drop in swing phase e. Weak push-off at late stance phase

a. Genu valgus at midstance

. A patient with a C6 spinal cord injury is evaluated in the clinic. Which objective finding is the strongest indication that the spinal cord injury is NOT complete? a. Weakness of the brachioradialis b. Intact sensation on the lateral portion of the shoulder c. Diminished sensation on the hypothenar eminence d. Absent triceps reflex e. Weakness of the biceps muscle

c. Diminished sensation on the hypothenar eminence

The following statements describe the "Screw-Home Mechanism" of the knee EXCEPT when: I. Seated and a person flexes his knee, the tibia goes into internal rotation to unlock the knee. II. Standing from a seat the femur goes into internal rotation during the last few degrees of flexion. III. Standing from a seat the femur goes into external rotation during the last few degrees of extension. IV. Seated and a person flexes his knee, the femur goes into external rotation at the last few degrees of extension. a. III b. I c. II and III d. II and IV

c. II and III

The following are expected in a C4 lesion, EXCEPT: a. Can provide minimal assistance, therefore dependent in bed mobility b. Involves the diaphragm and trapezius c. Chin control can be used to control power wheelchair d. Can assist with all transfers e. Dependent in all transfers

d. Can assist with all transfers

Despite the presence of third cranial nerve paralysis, it was determined upon examination that the eye is able to rotate inward, indicating that the superior oblique muscle is intact. This indicates that cranial nerve: a. III is also denervated b. IV is partially denervated c. III is only partially denervated d. IV is intact

d. IV is intact

Which of the following statements describe Horner's syndrome? I. Pupil of the eye on injured side is miotic due to dilator paralysis II. Partial ptosis due to denervation of levator palpebrae superioris III. Anhidrosis and vasodilation on affected side IV. Complete ptosis and vasodilation on unaffected side a. III only b. II, III and IV c. I, II and III d. I and IV e. IV only

c. I, II and III

Which of the following is a beneficial effect of Cryotherapy? a. Decrease muscle spasticity b. Increase collagenase activity in synovium c. Analgesia d. Produces sedation

c. Analgesia

Which muscle does NOT flex the hand at the wrist joint? a. Flexor carpi ulnaris b. Pronator teres c. Palmaris longus d. Flexor carpi radialis

b. Pronator teres

A therapist checks the water temperature of the hot pack machine after several clients report the heat being very strong. Which of the following temperatures is acceptable? a. 190 degrees Fahrenheit b. 130 degrees Fahrenheit c. 88 degrees Celsius d. 71 degrees Celsius

d. 71 degrees Celsius

During wrist flexion at what joint(s) does the motion occur? a. Midcarpal joint only b. Majority at the radiocarpal joint with some motion at the midcarpal joint c. Majority at the midcarpal joint with some motion at the radiocarpal joint d. Radiocarpal joint only

b. Majority at the radiocarpal joint with some motion at the midcarpal joint

Which of the following statements do NOT apply to elbow flexion range of motion? a. It has hard end-feel on contact of muscles between arm and forearm b. The contact of the muscles between the forearm and arm can stop the motion c. Subjects with little soft tissue have a hard end-feel d. The normal variation is between 120 to 160 degrees

a. It has hard end-feel on contact of muscles between arm and forearm

A patient has difficulty maintaining balance while walking. Upon observation, his gait is ataxic. Cerebellar dysfunction was ruled out. To diagnose the condition, this cervical nerve must be tested: a. 10 b. 6 c. 12 d. 8

d. 8

Which of the following structures provide stability of the acromioclavicular joint? I. Shape of the joint II. Acromioclavicular ligament III. Strong joint capsule IV. Conoid and trapezoid a. I and III b. I and IIII c. IV only d. II and IV

d. II and IV

To assess joint play movement a therapist places the joint in the loose packed or resting position. The following statements describe this position, EXCEPT: a. It is one of minimal congruency between the articular surface and joint capsule b. It is equivalent to the anatomic resting position for each joint c. Allows the movement of spin, slide and roll in joint d. It is the position in its range of motion where the joint is under least amount of stress

b. It is equivalent to the anatomic resting position for each joint

If the client completes the range of motion against gravity with minimal-moderate resistance, the muscle is graded as: a. Fair plus b. Good plus c. Fair minus d. Good minus

d. Good minus

Forearm supination is measured with the moving arm of the goniometer placed on this side of the hand: a. Lateral b. Medial c. Dorsal d. Volar e. Anterolateral

d. Volar

These upper extremity positions are introduced one by one in the technique to mobilize the radial nerve EXCEPT a. Forearm supination. b. Wrist flexion. c. Shoulder internal rotation. d. Elbow extension

a. Forearm supination

When testing for hip abduction muscle strength, Which possible substitutions can cause an inaccurate muscle grade? I. Hip external rotation and flexion Il. Lateral flexion of the trunk Ill. Hip extension IV. Hip internal rotation a. Ill and IV b. I only c. II, Ill and IV d. I and Il e. Il only

b. I only

Entry of calcium into the cardiac muscle during the cardiac action potential is an example of a. Primary active transport mechanism. b. Opening of voltage-gated channels. c. Secondary active-transport mechanism. d. Opening of ligand-gated channels.

b. Opening of voltage-gated channels

Which of the following is not used for pain medication? a. Topical anesthetics such as lidocaine and tetracaine b. Salicylates such as aspirin, choline magnesium trisalicylate, and salsalate c. Acetaminophen d. Allopurinol

d. Allopurinol

Clients with abnormal conduction patterns often can be treated successfully using antiarrhythmic medication. Which of the following side effects of antiarrythmics does not require immediate medical attention? a. Insomnia b. Shortness of breath c. Coughing up blood d. Dizziness

a. Insomnia

If the ventricular cell is stimulated during the spike of the action potential, it would fall during the a. Relative refractory period b. Atrioventricular mode c. Absolute refractory period d. Resting phase e. Supernormal phase

c. Absolute refractory period

Venous return increases a. Following generalized vasoconstriction b. In heart failure c. During inspiration d. During a Valsalva maneuver

c. During inspiration

A therapist discusses risk factors associated with coronary disease to a patient in a cardiac rehabilitation program. Which risk factor would be the most relevant for the patient? a. Weight b. Elevated serum cholesterol c. Age d. Gender e. Family history

b. Elevated serum cholesterol

A physician instructs a client to take nonprescription of over the counter medication as part of his treatment program. Which of the following statements about over the counter medication is not accurate? a. Over the counter medications usually contain low doses of their active ingredient b. Potentially harmful effects are not possible with over-the-counter medications c. The Food and Drug Administration classifies drugs as prescription or nonprescription d. Over the counter medications are available without a prescription and can be purchased directly by consumers.

b. Potentially harmful effects are not possible with over-the-counter medications

Which of the following include functions of veins? I. Propels blood through the arterial pump by exerting pressure as blood flows II. Deregulates cardiac input Ill. Stores large quantities of blood and making it available when required IV. Propels blood through venous pump V. Regulate cardiac output a. II, III, V b. I, Il and III c. III, IV and V d. II, III and IV

c. III, IV and V

The primary auditory cortex is in area lobe. a. 41 of the frontal b. 42 of the temporal c. 41 of the temporal d. 41 of the parietal e. 42 of the frontal

c. 41 of the temporal

The following statements characterize the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, EXCEPT: a. There is no atrophy and no motor or reflex change b. Sensory and motor function is mediated by this nerve c. More apt to occur with metabolic disorders d. Some sensory loss to pain and touch is typical

b. Sensory and motor function is mediated by this nerve

Relatively rapid, irregularly recurrent, unpredictable, nonrhythmic, involuntary movements of the trunk, facé or extremities. a. Myoclonus b. Chorea c. Hyperkinesia d. Tremor e. Athetosis

b. Chorea

Drooping of contralateral lower face may indicate a lesion of the a. basal ganglia. b. Cerebral cortex. c. Cerebellum. d. Corticobulbar tract. e. Corticospinal tract.

d. Corticobulbar tract.

The following are tie generalizations concerning the motor innervation of the hand, EXCEPT: a. Median nerve for the thenar eminence while ulnar nerve for the hypothenar muscles. b. "Half half" rule of nerve supply, i.e. median and ulnar, include the flexor digitorum superficialis and lumbricals. c. The median nerve supplies most of the flexors of the wrist and digits with proximal attachments on the forearm and in the region of the medial epicondyle. d. The radial nerve supplies all the extensors of wrist and digits with proximal attachments on the forearm and in the region of the lateral epicondyle. e. The ulnar nerve supplies most of the small muscles in the hand.

b. "Half half" rule of nerve supply, i.e. median and ulnar, include the flexor digitorum superficialis and lumbricals

What reflex results in increased leg extensor tones when the client bounces on the sole of his feet several umes? a. Moro b. Body Righting c. Negative Support Reaction d. Positive Support Reaction

d. Positive Support Reaction

What condition is not likely to be seen in the perinatal period? a. Slipped Cap Femoral Epiphysis. b. Dislocated Hip. c. Talipes Equinovarus. d. Myelomeningocoele.

a. Slipped Cap Femoral Epiphysis

The following statements apply to the surgical correction of hammer toe EXCEPT a. It is most effective to fuse the PIP joint and balance soft tissues over the MTP joint in fixed deformities. b. Directed at reversing the MTP dorsiflexion and the PIP joint plantar flexion. c. Straighten both the proximal and the middle joints of the toe in flexible deformities. d. In flexible deformities, it may be possible to adjust the tension on the flexor and extensor tendons. e. It may be possible to shorten the proximal phalanx in flexible deformities.

c. Straighten both the proximal and the middle joints of the toe in flexible deformities

The stability of the shoulder joint principally depends on the a. Capsule b. Muscles d. Bony configuration e. Ligaments c. Tendons

b. Muscles

The stability of the wrist joint principally depends on ___. a. Ligaments b. Intrinsic muscles of the hand c. Capsule d. Extrinsic muscles of the hand

a. Ligaments

What fibers transmit deep somatic pain? a. B b. D c. A d. C

d. C

What structures send impulses to inhibitory interneurons to relax antagonist muscles? a. Flower spray endings b. Annulospiral endings c. Golgi tendon organs d. Spindle

D. Spindle

Males generally become stronger than females after puberty because males a. Have higher muscle strength per cross-sectional area b. Keep themselves in condition through proper diet and exercise c. Develop a greater muscle mass d. Have faster rate of biologic maturation

C. Develop a greater muscle mass

Decrementless conduction of the nerve impulses is due to the fact that a. there is no one way conduction across synapses. b. Na ions move along its electrochemical gradient. C. outward movement of K ions favors conduction. d. energy for conduction is derived from the nerve fiber. e. Na channel activation allows Na ions to move intracellularly

E. Na channel activation allows Na ions to move intracellularly

The nerve most likely to be injured in wrist slashing is the a. Radial b. radio-ulnar. c. median. d. musculocutaneous. e. Ulnar.

C. Median

The following are types of radial nerve compression, EXCEPT: a. Honeymoon palsy b. Pronator syndrome c. Saturday night palsy d. Supinator syndrome

B. Pronator Syndrome

Klumpke's palsy involves the following nerve roots: a. C6-C7 b. C7-C8 c. C4-C5 d. C8-T1 e. T1-T2

D. C8 - T1

When the anterior cerebral artery is affected in a cerebrovascular accident, you would expect the following impairments EXCEPT a. loss of bowel and bladder control. b. aphasia. c. apraxia, d. thalamic pain syndrome.

D. Thalamic pain syndrome

A client with cardiopulmonary pathology is referred to physical therapy. The therapist documents the following clinical signs: pallor, cyanosis, and skin coolness. These clinical signs are most consistent with a. cor pulmonale. b. atelectasis. c. anemia, d. diaphoresis.

C. Anemia

A patient was rushed to the hospital and underwent emergency Coronary Artery Bypass Grafting after complaining of persistent severe uncomfortable chest pain. This can be classified as ____ according to the angina scale: a. 2+ b. 5+ c. 3+ d. 1+ e. 4+

C. 3+

The femoral artery is a branch of ____ a. Descending aorta b. External iliac c. Inferior vena cava d. Internal iliac

B. External iliac

The filum terminale is distally fixed at the a. S5 vertebra b. Symphysis pubis c. Sacral promontory d. First coccygeal vertebra

D. First coccygeal vertebra

The human peripheral nervous system is composed of I. 10 pairs of cranial nerves II. 12 pairs of cranial nerves III. 31 pairs of spinal nerves IV. 33 pairs of spinal nerves a. I and III b. I and IV c. II and III d. II and IV

C. II and III

The following are true of the femoral artery EXCEPT: a. if the common iliac or external iliac artery is partially occluded, the femoral artery pulse may be diminished. b. the femoral vein lies medial to the femoral artery and is a clinical site for venous puncture. c. passes under the inguinal ligament at about its midpoint. d. the femoral nerve lies lateral to the femoral artery. e. palpable just superior to the inguinal ligament, at a point halfway between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle.

E. palpable just superior to the inguinal ligament, at a point halfway between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle

Nerve primarily responsible for ankle plantar flexion a. Obturator b. Sciatic c. Femoral d. Tibial e. Peroneal

D. Tibial

Which of the following statements is true concerning muscles acting in hip flexion? a. The hip flexors are inactive during abdominal sit ups b. Their maximum isometric torques are greatest when the hip is extended c. The iliopsoas is the only hip flexor that can produce enough tension to flex the hip beyond 90 degrees with the subject in sitting position d. Their minimum isotonic torque occurs when the hip is flexed

A. The hip flexors are inactive during abdominal sit ups

Which of the following are treatment philosophies of neuropathic arthropathy (or Charcot's joint)? I. Treatment is mainly palliative II. Immobilization and joint protection are two important principles of treatment III. Where conservative management fails, joint replacement is performed IV. Where conservative management fails, surgical fusion is recommended V. Whenever possible, the underlying neurologic disorder should be treated a. I, lI and V b. II, IV and V c. I, III and IV d. I, II and IV

B. II, IV, and V

Which of the following statements is true in motions of the knee? a. Accessory motions are normally produced when the knee is in full extension b. Axial rotation occurs best when the knee is extended c. Terminal rotation of the knee is a locking mechanism observed during the last 20 degrees of knee extension d. The axis for flexion and extension is clinically approximated as directed through the center of the lateral and medial condyles of the femur

C. Terminal rotation of the knee is a locking mechanism observed during the last 20 degrees of knee extension

A patient is unable to extend the knee in the sitting position or perform straight leg raising when supine. This may be due to weakened or paralyzed ____. a. Gluteus maximus b. Quadrates femoris c. lliopsoas d. Quadriceps femoris

D. Quadriceps femoris

The following are short term goals in clients with rheumatism, EXCEPT: a. Provide assistive devices for safety. b. Decrease inflammation c. Maximize endurance to ADL and functional activities. d. Maintain strength and endurance to activity

D. Maintain strength and endurance to activity

What type of joint is the AC joint? a. Plane b. Saddle c. Hinge d. Pivot

A. Plane

Possible direction of dislocation in the humerus, EXCEPT: a. Anterior b. posterior c. lateral d. inferior

C. Lateral

Type of joint that has the greatest motion possible? a. ball and socket b. condyloid c. hinge d. none of the above

a. Ball and socket

Type of CP which has the most intellectual disabilities? a. spastic hemiplegia b. spastic quadriplegia c. athetosis d. diplegia

b. spastic quadriplegia

Most common type of CP a. spastic hemiplegia b. spastic quadriplegia c. athetosis d. diplegia

d. diplegia

Irregular respirations of variable depth (usually shallow, alternating between periods of apnea) absence of breathing a. Kaussmaul's respiration b. Cheyne-Stokes C. Biot's Respiration d. none of these

C. Biot's Respiration ratio: Cheyne- stokes = alternating increase AND decrease depths, apnea, somewhat regular breathing ; waxing and waning Biot's Respiration = slow rate, shallow depth, apnea, somewhat IRREGULAR breathing

Respirations that are regular but abnormally deep and increased in rate a. Kussmaul b. Cheyne-Stokes c. Biot’s Respiration d. None of these

a. Kussmaul

. Irregular respirations of variable depth (usually shallow), alternating between periods of apnea) absence of breathing a. Kussmaul’s Respiration b. Cheyne-Stokes c. Biot’s Respiration d. None of these

c. Biot’s Respiration

Gradual increase in depth of respirations followed by gradual decrease and then a period of apnea a. Cheyne-Stokes b. Kussmaul’s Respiration c. Biot’s Respiration d. None of these

a. Cheyne-Stokes

Wear and tear arthritis a. Osteoarthritis b. Rheumatoid Arthritis c. SLE d. Juvenile arthritis

a. Osteoarthritis

Ph 7.46 PaCO2 32 HCO3 24 a. Respiratory alkalosis b. Respiratory acidosis c. Metabolic acidosis d. Metabolic alkalosis

a. Respiratory alkalosis

Kussmaul’s respirations are a characteristic of which of the following? a. Metabolic acidosis b. Metabolic alkalosis c. Respiratory acidosis d. Respiratory alkalosis

a. Metabolic acidosis

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease, except: a. Increased Residual Volume b. Increased Functional Residual Capacity c. Increased Total Lung Capacity d. Decreased Vital Capacity

d. Decreased Vital Capacity

Air volume remaining in the lungs after maximum expiratory effort: a. Vital capacity b. Residual volume c. Functional residual capacity d. Expiratory reserve volume

b. Residual volume

The biggest volume that can be expired by a person is called: a. Total lung capacity b. Tidal volume c. Vital capacity d. Inspiratory capacity

c. Vital capacity

Obstructive lung disease a. Increased RV b. Increased ERV c. Decreased TLC d. Decreased TLC

a. Increased RV

Restrictive lung disease a. Increased RV b. Increased TLC c. Increased FRC d. Decreased VC

d. Decreased VC

Only lung volume/capacity that can be measured by spirometry a. RV b. FRC c. TLC d. VC

d. VC

Full-thickness tissue loss. Subcutaneous fat may be visible but bone, tendon, and muscle are not exposed. Slough may be present but does not obscure the depth of tissue loss. May include undermining and tunneling. a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. Stage 4

c. Stage 3

What type of burn causes white or blackened, burned skin? a. First Degree Burn b. Second Degree Burn c. Third Degree Burn d. Fourth Degree Burn

c. Third Degree Burn

Red , pink burn a. Epidermal b. supeficial partial c. deep partial d. NOTA

A. Epidermal

Burn : Redness only a. First Degree Burn b. Second Degree Burn c. Third Degree Burn d. Fourth Degree Burn

A. first degree

Stages of burns: No sensation of pain to the burn area + black near the area of the burned segment a. I b. II c. III d. IV

D. IV

Degree of burn affecting the epidermis and dermis a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

C. 3

Degree of burn : skin is black , surrounding skin is itchy a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

C. 3

Degree of burn : red but no scarring a. I b. II c. III d. IV

A. I

Degree of burn: all skin layers are affected a. I b. II c. III d. IV

C. III

Degree of burn: Blisters a. I b. II c. III d. IV

B. II

Which of the ff. is incorrect about burns: a. they may experience different form of halluination b. equal muscle strength c. contractures will be prevented if they wear orthotics for prolonged period of time d. better outcome if they engaged in cardiovascular exercises

B. equal muscle strength

(+) Blisters and pus a. I b. II C. III d. IV

b. II

Affected dermis and epidermis: a. 1st degree b. 2nd degree C. 3rd degree d. 4th degree

C. 3rd degree

What degree of burn if both epidermis and dermis are involved? a. 1st degree b. 2nd degree C. 3rd degree d. 4th degree

C. 3rd degree

Type of burn that injures kidneys due to release of myoglobin a. Chemical b. Radiation C. Thermal d. Electrical

d. electrical

ASIA Classification : sensory functions is preserved in the sacral segments S4 to S5, and more than half of key muscles below the neurological level have a muscle grade <3 a. A b. B c. C d. D

c. C

Motor, pain and temp are affected; proprioception, kinesthesia and discrimination sensation are preserved a. Brown sequard b. Posterior cord c. Anterior cord d. Conus Medullaris

C. Anterior cord

Part of the diencephalon, EXCEPT: a. subthalamus b. Thalamus c. perithalamus d. hypothalamus

C. Perithalamus

Incoordination in cerebellar lesion, Except: a. ataxic gait b. intention tremor c. resting tremor d. dysdiadochokinesia

C. resting tremor (basal ganglia lesion)

Incoordination, except: a. cerebellar nuclei b. cerebellum c. peripheral nerves

C. peripheral nerves

Coordination: a. paleocerebellum b. basal ganglia c. neocerebellum d. flocculocerebellum

C. neocerebellum

Intention tremor: a. paleocerebellum b. archicereellum c. basal ganglia d. neocerebellum

D. Neocerebellum

Dysdiadochokinesia A.Basal ganglia B. Paleocerebellum C. Archicerebellum D. Neocerebellum

D. Neocerebellum

Quadrantanopia from R optic radiation leads to? A. R hemianopsia B. L hemianopsia C. R scotomata D. L scotomata

B. L hemianopsia

Optic pathway: What will happen when L optic nerve is damaged? A. R monocular loss B. L monocular loss C. R hemianopsia D. L scotomata

B. L monocular loss

Damaged R optic tract A. R monocular loss B. L monocular loss C. R hemianopsia D. L scotomata E. L hemianopsia

E. L hemianopsia

Damaged R optic radiation A. Bitemporal hemianopsia B. L monocular loss C. R hemianopsia D. L scotomata E. L hemianopsia

E. L hemianopsia

R lateral geniculate A. Bitemporal hemianopsia B. L monocular loss C. R scotomata D. L scotomata E. L hemianopsia

E. L hemianopsia

Atonic bladder, except: A. first sacral segment B. second sacral C. third sacral segment D. conus medullaris

A. first sacral segment

Which of the following tests is used to assess tingling sensation A. Tinel's sign B. Phalen"s test C. Reverse Phalens D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Special test for ulnar nerve A. Egawa B. Finkelstein C. Phalen's D. Reverse phalens

A. Egawa

Pain produced by non-noxious stimuli A. Allodynia B. Dyesthesia C. Neurotmesis D. Hyperalgesia

A. Allodynia

Resting tremor A. Astereognosis B. Basal ganglia C. Cerebellar Pathology

B. Basal ganglia

Intentional Tremor A. Astereognosis B. Basal ganglia C. Cerebellar Pathology

C. Cerebellar Pathology

More marked increase in muscle tone through most of the ROM, but affected part is easily moved A. 1+ B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

B. 2

Which of the following is an Internal Rotator: A. Supraspinatus B. Infraspinatus C. Teres Minor D. Subscapularis E. A, B, C only

D. Subscapularis

Boxer fracture A. 1st and 2nd metacarpals B. 2nd and 3rd metacarpals C. 3rd and 4th metacarpal D. 4th and 5th metacarpals

D. 4th and 5th metacarpals

What nerve is most likely injured in a fracture of the neck of the humerus? A. Axillary B. Radial C. Median

A. Axillary

What cord contributes to the median nerve? A. Lateral and Medial B. Medial C. Posterior D. NOTA

A. Lateral and Medial

Most common site of Morton's neuroma A. between the 2nd and 3rd MTT B. between the 3rd and 4th MTT C. between the 1st and 2nd MTT D. between the 4th and 5th MTT

B. between the 3rd and 4th MTT

MCA except: A. Hemiplegia UE>LE B. Aphasia C. Parietal lobe D. Dysdiadochokinesia

D. Dysdiadochokinesia

Bilateral; Spared upward gaze A. Benedikt B. Locked-in C. Wallenburg D. Weber

B. Locked-in

Weber affectation A. Midbrain B. Pons C. Medulla D. Cerebellum

A. Midbrain

Level of insertion for lumbar puncture A. T10–L1 B. L1–L2 C. L2–L3 D. L3–L4

D. L3–L4

Inferior facet facing inferiorly A. L3 B. L5 C. L4 D. S1

B. L5

Fracture between L5–S1 vertebrae. What spinal nerve root exits? A. L4 B. L5 C. S1 D. S2

B. L5

How to test C5 A. Adduction of the arm B. Lateral rotation of the arm C. Extension of the elbow D. All of these

B. Lateral rotation of the arm

Weakened 1st and 2nd fingertip, what nerve is affected? a. PIN b. Ulnar c. AIN d. Median

c. AIN

Responsible for Adduction that acts at GH joint: A. Infraspinatus B. Subscapularis C. Latissimus Dorsi D. Teres major

C. Latissimus Dorsi

What is the maximum heart rate of a 63 yr old man? A. 157 B. 220 C. 200 D. 197

A. 157

What action can be done at the Talocalcaneal junction A. Dorsiflexion and Inversion B. Plantar flexion and Eversion C. Inversion and Eversion D. Dorsiflexion and Plantarflexion

C. Inversion and Eversion

Impaired triceps reflex (Note: No C7 in choices, only C8.) A. C5 B. C8 C. T1 D. T2

B. C8

Step Deformity A. Coracoclavicular B. Costoclavicular C. Can’t recall D. Coracoacromial

A. Coracoclavicular

Foot deformity/position with too many toe signs? A. Plantarflexion B. Dorsiflexion C. Inversion D. Eversion

C. Inversion

10% of TLC A. Tidal Volume B. TLC C. VC D. FRV

A. Tidal Volume

Velocity independent A. Rigidity B. Spasticity C. Hypotonicity

A. Rigidity

In Superior Gluteal Nerve injury, what muscle is affected? A. Superior piriformis B. Inferior piriformis C. Lateral part of G. max D. Medial of G. min

D. Medial of G. min

Patient has affectation at the first thoracic branch A. All of the above B. Erbs C. None of the above D. Klumpke

D. Klumpke

Type of nerve fiber that has the fastest conduction: A. Large myelinated axons B. Small unmyelinated axon C. Small myelinated axons D. Large unmyelinated axon

A. Large myelinated axons

This is a movement in the transverse plane: A. Circumduction B. Lateral flexion C. Abduction D. External rotation

D. External rotation

When the knee is extended, hip flexion is limited to 60–80 degrees because of passive insufficiency of the: A. Gluteus maximus B. Iliopsoas C. Hamstring D. Rectus femoris

C. Hamstring

The nerve that crosses the elbow as a pure sensory is: A. Radial B. Median C. Ulnar D. Musculocutaneous

D. Musculocutaneous

Which part of the upright lung has the greatest perfusion? A. Base B. Middle lobe C. Uniform throughout D. Apex

A. Base

Men climbing high mountains will have enormous water losses from: A. Decreased drinking B. Increased ventilation C. Increased urination D. Increased sweating

B. Increased ventilation

A persons grip is weaker, if his wrist is in a flexed position because of A. Passive insufficiency of the finger extensors and active insufficiency of the finger flexors B. Passive insufficiency of the finger flexors and extensors C. Active insufficiency of the finger flexors and extensors D. Passive insufficiency of the long finger flexors and active insufficiency of the finger extensors

A. Passive insufficiency of the finger extensors and active insufficiency of the finger flexors

Deconditioning effects of prolonged bed rest, EXCEPT: A. Decrease in the contractile strength of body musculature B. Decrease in circulation blood volume C. Decrease in the heart rate response to effort D. Decrease in lung volume

C. Decrease in the heart rate response to effort

The teres minor as a rotator cuff muscle: A. Is responsible for the characteristic roundness of the shoulder B. Depresses the humeral head in the glenoid together with the supraspinatus and subscapularis C. Internally rotate the glenohumeral joint during flexion and abduction D. Prevent shoulder subluxation when carrying a load in the hand while standing erect

D. Prevent shoulder subluxation when carrying a load in the hand while standing erect

The connection tissue covering of as muscle fiber A. Epimysium B. Endomysium C. Sarcolemma D. Perimysium

B. Endomysium

Injury to this nerve produces this type of winging of the scapula. The medial border of this scapula is closer to the midline and the inferior angle is medially rotated: A. Spinal accessory B. Dorsal scapular C. Long thoracic D. Thoracodorsal

C. Long thoracic

The process of reproduction by which the cells splits to form two daughter cells: A. Pinocytosis B. Phagocytosis C. Miosis D. Mitosis

D. Mitosis

The Chopart joint, a surgical level of amputation is formwd by these articulating surfaces: A. Tarsometatarsal and transverse tarsal joint B. NOTA C. Talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints D. Talocrural and tarsometatarsal

C. Talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints

When the deltoid and supraspinatus are paralyzed, arm elevation is still possible through this muscle: A. Coracobrachialis B. Long head of biceps C. Infraspinatus D. Triceps brachii

B. Long head of biceps

These junction points are where the terminal branches of an axon come in contact with the dendrites of the succeeding neuron: A. Receptor B. Synapse C. End-organ D. Effector

B. Synapse

Nerve supply to sternocleidomastoid: A. Dorsal occipital nerve B. Lesser occipital nerve C. Greater occipital nerve D. Spinal accessory nerve

D. Spinal accessory nerve

Expiration in normal quiet breathing is due to: A. Recoil of the chest wall lung system B. Downward movement of the diaphragm C. Contraction of the internal intercostals D. NOTA

A. Recoil of the chest wall lung system

Klumpke's palsy involves the folowing nerve roots: A. C4-C5 B. C7-C8 C. C6-C7 D. C8-T1

D. C8-T1

The forces between filaments to initiate contraction. This causes: A. The myosin filaments to slide inward among the actin filaments B. The actin filaments to slide outward among the myosin filaments C. The actin filaments to slide inward among the myosin filaments D. The myosin filaments to slide outward among the actin filaments

C. The actin filaments to slide inward among the myosin filaments

These fibers bring neurons of one part of the cortex of a hemisphere into communication with those of another part of the same hemisphere: A. Projection fiber B. NOTA C. Association fiber D. Commissural fiber

C. Association fiber

What type of leukemia is associated with Aplastic Anemia? A. Acute Myelogenous B. Chronic Myeloid C. Acute Lymphoblastic D. Chronic Lymphocytic

A. Acute Myelogenous

What type of anemia is most common in children? A. Acute Myelogenous B. Chronic Myeloid C. Acute Lymphoblastic D. Chronic Lymphocytic

C. Acute Lymphoblastic

Cancer of lymph nodes A. Carcinoma B. Lymphoma C. Sarcoma D. Leukemia

B. Lymphoma

Cancer of blood vessels A. Carcinoma B. Lymphoma C. Sarcoma D. Leukemia

C. Sarcoma

Glasgow Coma Scale: Patient does not make any sound, open eyes when pinched and decorticate position A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

D. 6

Horner Syndrome. What CN is affected? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

A. 3

CN affected in ALS A. V B. III C. I D. XI

A. V Ratio: innervates muscles of mastication. Jaw reflex et chewing affected during later stages of ALS

CN for phonation: A. CN 4 B. CN 7 C. CN 8 D. CN 10 E. NOTA

D. 10

Phonation/ dystonia cranial nerve (No X) A. CN IX B. CN VII C. CN V D. CN VII

A. CN IX

Controls the shape of the tongue: A. CN 7 B. CN 9 C. CN 11 D. CN 12 E. NOTA

D. CN 12

What cranial nerve are affected in dysphagia? A. CN IX and X B. CN IX and VIII C. CN VII and IX D. CN VII and VI

A. CN IX and X

CN affected if there is inability to prevent food from going to the airway: A. CN 5 B. CN 12 C. CN 9 D. CN 11

C. 9

Difficulty controlling the food from entering the lungs due to dysphagia (No CN 10) A. CN IX B. CN VII C. CN V D. CN XII

A. CN IX

CN12 What structure is it found A. Pons B. Medulla C. Midbrain D. Cerebral Cortex

B. Medulla

You ask the patient to place his hand o his ear then ask if he can feel it. What CN is responsible. A. CN 7 B. CN 10 C. CN 9 D. CN 12

B. CN 10

Asking the patient to turn head to the right and left, what cranial nerve is affected: A. CN X B. CN XI C. CN XII D. CN IX

B. CN XI

Perceives salty, bitter, sour, or sweet taste and spicy food. What CN? A. CN 10 B. CN 9 C. CN 6 D. CN 11

B. CN 9

Ask the patient to look left and right. What CN is being tested? A. 9 B. 10 C. 11 D. 12

C. 11

Px has loss of appetite. What CN is affected? A. CN 1 B. CN 9 C. CN 7 D. CN 5

A. CN 1

What is the CN responsible for phonation? (No X) A. IX B. V C. VII D. VI

A. IX

CN that innervates soft palate A. 9 B. 11 C. 12

A. 9

Cyclist involved in crash, ethmoid bone was involved, what CN is affected? A. Olfactory B. Trochlear C. Vestibulocochlear D. Facial

A. Olfactory

What should be assessed for patient experiencing horizontal diplopia: A. CN 2 B. CN 4 C. CN 6 D. All of the above

C. CN 6

CN 9 injury: A.Diminished taste sensation in ant. 2/3 of the tongue B. Decreased salivary production

B. Decreased salivary production

NV: Deficit in pupillary response is a cause of what CN lesion? a. IV b. II C. III d. VI

C. III

Upon light contact, eyes failed to constrict. What CN is affected? a. III b. II C. V d. Nota

A. III

Ptosis involves what CN? a. III b. II C. V d. NOTA

A. III

Lip puckering during feeding what cranial nerve a. 5 b. 9 c. 11 d. 7

D. 7

Cranial nerve Ptosis: a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

B. 3

Among the following, which is the only cranial nerve that is purely sensory? a. I b. IX c. X d. XII

A. I Rationale: Mixed "1975"

In patients with dysarthria, what cranial nerves are possibly affected a. 5 b. 7 c. All of these d. 12

C. All of these

Anterior sensory of the tongue a. 7 b. 5 c. 9 d. 12

B. 5

Degeneration of motor neurons of cranial nerves IX to XII a. Progressve Bulbar Palsy b. Progressive Muscular Palsy c. Primary Lateral Sclerosis d. ALS

A. Progressive Bulbar Palsy

Which motions move in the transverse/horiontal plane around a longitudinal axis? a. Wrist abduction and adduction b. Elbow flexion and extension c. Forearm pronation and supination d. Wrist flexion and extension

C. Forearm pronation and supination

Motion performed in vertical axis (not plane) a. Abduction b. Pronation/supination c. Elbow flexion d. Ulnar radial deviation

B. Pronation/supination

"Horiontal plane & vertical axis" a. FA supination & pronation b. Wrist ulnar dev & radial dev c. Elbow flex & ext d. Thumb add & abd

A. FA supination & pronation

What is the MILDEST neural defect wherein the spinal cord has not protruded and the dural lining is intact a. Oculta b. myelocele C. meningocele d. Myelomeningocel e. Cystica

A. Oculta

What vitamins is/are needed to prevent Meningocele in children a. Mecobalamine b. Folic Acid c. Ascorbic Acid d. Riboflavin

B. Folic acid

Meningomyelocele can fully ambulate what level: a. S2-S3 b. L3-L4 c. L1-L5 d. T8-T12

A. S2 - S3

Alar ligament functions to limit what motion a. Rotation & flexion b. Extension c. Lateral flexion d. Extension and flexion

A. Rotation & flexion

The highest content of elastic fiber is found in the ligament: a. Posterior longitudinal ligament b. Ligamentum flavum c. anterior longitudinal ligament d. interspinous ligament

B. Ligamentum flavum

Connection between two lamina in the spine: (anterior surface of superior part of lamina to posterior surface of inferior part of lamina) a. Ligamentum flavum b. Interspinous ligament c. Anterior longitudinal ligament d. Supraspinous ligament

A. Ligamentum flavum

Emotional flight in an emergency situation is dominated by which nervous system? a. peripheral nervous system b. sympathetic nervous system c. parasympathetic system d. central nervous system

B. Sympathetic nervous system

A lesion in the cerebellum may cause which type of tone? a. rigidity b. hypertonia C. hypotonia d. spasticity

C. Hypotonia

In De Quervain's Tenosynovitis the following structures are affected except: A. OP B. APL C. EPB D. NOTA

A. OP

In De Quervain's Tenosynovitis the following structures are affected except: A. APL B. EPB C. ECRL D. FPL

D. FPL

De quervain. Muscles affected A. FPL, EPB B. APL, FPL, EPB C. APL, EPB D. APL, FPL

C. APL, EPB

Cannot be assessed objectively: (Assessed subjectively) A. pain and tenderness B. muscle weakness C. warmth and swelling D. swelling E. weakness

A. pain and tenderness

Unawareness or denial of deficits A. Anosognosia B. Somatognosia C. Unilateral Neglect D. Agnosia

A. Anosognosia

Case: Inability to judge the distance or range of a movement A. Dysmetria B. Dysynergia C. Dysdiadochokinesia D. Dystonia

A. Dysmetria

Case: Patient has akinesia what is the possible site of affectation A. Cerebellum B. Cerebrum C. Basal Ganglia D. Thalamus

C. Basal Ganglia

Ipsilateral: Decreased pain and temperature sensation in the face, cerebellum or inferior cerebellar peduncle, vertigo, nausea, vomiting, nystagmus A. Medial medullary syndrome B. Lateral medullary syndrome C. Locked-in syndrome D. NOTA

B. Lateral medullary syndrome

Ipsilateral pain and temp loss in face, contralateral loss of pain and temperature in body A. Medial medullary syndrome B. Lateral medullary syndrome C. Locked in D. NOTA

B. Lateral medullary syndrome

True about Millard-Gubler Syndrome A. Facial Nerve is spared B. Ipsilateral Hemiplegia C. Lesion at the Lateral Pons D. Bilateral loss of function at Abducens and Trigeminal Nerve

C. Lesion at the Lateral Pons

Patient can only blink, look up, look down A. Lateral medullary syndrome B. Med medullary C. Locked in D. Millard gubler

C. Locked in

Negative prognosticating factor of PD. except: A. Bradykinesia B. Late age onset C. Tremor

C. Tremor

Basis for abduction and adduction in hand A. 1st MCP B. 2nd MCP C. 3rd MCP D. 4th MCP

C. 3rd MCP

Lateral displacement of big toe A. Hallux varus B. Claw toes C. Hallux valgus D. Bunion

C. Hallux valgus

Hormone that causes cancer due to chronic stress A. Cortisol B. Norepinephrine C. Dopamine D. GABA

A. Cortisol

Stimulation of this specific part of the adrenal cortex will release cortisol? A. Fasciculata B. Reticularis C. Medullaris D. Glomerulosa

A. Fasciculata

Low cortisol A. Addison's B. Cushings

A. Addison's

Primary Neurotransmitter of Parasympathetic Nervous system A. Norepinephrine B. Epinephrine C. Acetylcholine D. Histamine

C. Acetylcholine

Sympathetic Nervous System: A. Cholinergic B. Adrenergic

B. Adrenergic

C6, C7, C8 A. Deltoids B. Brachioradialis C. Biceps brachii D. Triceps

D. Triceps

Loss of function of the biceps brachii muscle results FROM a lesion to which of the following structure of the brachial plexus? a. lateral cord b. medial cord c. upper trunk d. lower trunk

a. lateral cord

What are the cords of your median nerve? a. lateral and posterior b. lateral and medial c. posterior only d. posterior and medial

b. lateral and medial

Active insufficiency of biceps brachii a. SH extension, elbow flexion, FA supination b. SH extension, elbow flexion, FA pronation c. SH flexion, elbow flexion, FA supination d. SH flexion, elbow flexion, FA pronation

C. shoulder flexion, elbow flexion, FA supination

Which is NOT part of the limbic system? a. parahippocampal area b. pituitary gland c. cingluate gyrus d. hippocampus

b. Pituitary gland remember: PUCHA

Most common type of parkinsons's disease a. idiopathic b. drug-induced c. parkinsonism d. secondary

a. Idiopathic

ligamentous instability: a. 0-5 b. 6-10 c. 11-15 d. > 15

b. 6-10 (mild to moderate)

Meyerding's classification: 50% a. I b. II c. III d. IV

b. II Grading: I 1-25% II : 26-50% III : 51-75% IV : 76-100% V : >100% = complete displacement (spondyloptosis)

In class 1 of Cardiac rehabilitation, what is the recommended METS? a. 6.5 b. 4.5 c. 3.5 d. 4.0

a. 6.5

4.5 METS of functional classifications of patients with diseases of the heart: a. I b. II c. III d. I

b. II

On average, self-care activities are at what MET level? a. 1 b. 5 c. 3 d. 7

C. 3 METs

METS for lying down : a. 1.0 b. 3.0 c. 2.0 d. 4.0

a. 1.0

METS for quiet standing: a. 1.0 b. 2.0 c. 3.0 d. 4.0

B. 2.0

4-5 METS for : a. Archery b. Ballet c. Standing quietly D. playing cards

b. Ballet

How to stimulate pituitary gland? a. interstitial cell something b. thyroid stimulating hormone c. corticotrophin

b. Thyroid stimulating hormone

Posterior pituitary a. ADH b. FSH c. TSH D. Corticotrophin

a. ADH

Rotator cuff tendinitis is an overuse syndrome, which leads to the degeneration of the tendinous insertion of the cuff muscles. What are the rotator cuff muscles? a. Pectoralis major, teres major, infraspinatus, supraspinatus b. Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis c. Teres major, infraspinatus, supraspinatus, pectoralis minor d. pectoralis minor, subscapularis, infraspinatus, supraspinatus

B.Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis

Rotator cuff tear: what are the rotator cuff muscles?? a. supraspinatus b. infraspinatus c. teres minor d. AOTA

d. AOTA

After certain degree of hip flexion, what happens to the action of piriformis? a. IR-ER b. ER-IR c. Flexion - extension d. Extension- flexion

b. ER- IR

Movement of piriformis to the hip changes from external rotation to internal rotation after performing what motion? a. Abduction b. adduction c. flexion d. extension

c. Flexion

Most common type of scoliosis: a. juvenile onset b. adult onset c. familial onset d. adolescence

d. adolescence

281. What is NOT a common symptom for ulnar nerve injury at wrist? a. decreased sensation b. decreased forearm tough (text unclear in photo) c. loss of wrist extension d. loss of strength

c. Loss of wrist extension

282. What is the best way to measure the ideal height of a cane? a. From the greater trochanter to the floor b. From the ASIS to the floor c. From the PSIS to the floor d. From the umbilicus to the floor

a. From the greater trochanter to the floor

283. Which of the following is/are movement/s at the atlantooccipital joint? a. Lateral bending and rotation b. Forward bending and rotation c. Flexion and lateral bending d. Rotation and backward bending

c. Flexion and lateral bending

284. Which of the following is/are movement/s at the atlantoaxial joint? (modified choices) a. Rotation and flexion b. Extension and flexion c. Rotation extension

b. Extension and flexion

285. A 14-year-old gymnast who practices 3–4 hours daily suddenly complained of low back pain. It was found that there is stress fracture in L5 vertebra. What motion might have caused this pain? a. Hypertension b. Rotation c. Forward flexion d. Sideward flexion

a. Hypertension

286. What would you expect in a median and ulnar nerve injury? a. Weakness of flexion of the distal phalanx of the thumb b. Loss of thumb opposition c. Claw hand deformity d. Hypothenar wasting

c. Claw hand deformity

287. Drugs with suffix “-pam” are drugs used to treat a. Depression b. Blood thinner c. Seizure d. Anxiety

d. Anxiety

288. Suffix for blood thinners a. -arin b. -pam c. -ide d. -lis

a. -arin

289. Suffix for anxiety medications a. -pam b. -arin c. -ide d. -lis

a. -pam

290. Injury at L1 a. Affected hip flexors b. Absence of cremasteric reflex c. Pain/sensation at groin d. Pain at anterior leg

c. Pain/sensation at groin

291. Bowel & Bladder control roots: a. L1–L3 b. S2–S4 c. S2–S5

b. S2–S4

292. Bilateral Motor Apraxia, what trunk/branch of the Left MCA is affected? a. Upper b. Medial c. Lateral d. Lower

a. Upper

293. Patients with Spina Bifida are allergic to: a. Latex b. Vinyl c. Rubber d. Aluminum

a. Latex

294. Patients with spina bifida are lacking which of the following? a. Cyanocobalamine b. Folic acid c. Vitamin B d. Vitamin D

b. Folic Acid

295. Which of the following SCI levels would not benefit from a universal cuff? a. C7 b. C8 c. C6 d. C4

d. C4

296. Slow, involuntary, writhing, twisting, “wormlike” movements: a. Chorea b. Hemiballismus c. Tremor d. Athetosis

d. Athetosis

297. Involuntary, rapid, irregular, jerky movements involving multiple joints, most apparent in UE: a. Chorea b. Hemiballismus c. Tremor d. Athetosis

a. Chorea

298. Primary external rotator: a. Infraspinatus b. Subscapularis c. Biceps Brachii d. Teres major

a. Infraspinatus

299. Which of the following is the appropriate activity to test the trapezius? a. Shrug shoulder b. Looking to either left or right c. Shoulder flexion d. Looking down

a. Shrug shoulder

300. Gluteus medius muscle contracts maximally at what phase of gait? a. Heel off b. Swing c. (Something in stance) d. Midstance

d. Midstance

APK 2 Flashcards

(300 cards)