PT APPS 1 Flashcards

(300 cards)

1
Q

The organizational plan of a PT department usually has the following objectives, EXCEPT:

A. Reflects the operation of the services
B. Provides supervising functions within the program/services
C. Provides the direction of the services
D. Describes the interrelationship within the overall organization

A

A. Reflects the operation of the services

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2
Q

In most Code of Ethics of a profession, the first principle usually refers to:

A. Provision of accurate information to the consumer
B. Exercising sound judgment
C. Receiving remuneration of services
D. Respecting rights and dignity of individuals

A

D. Respecting rights and dignity of individuals

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3
Q

The functional outcome reporting method of writing notes must be:

A. Sustainable, simple, quantifiable
B. Meaningful, utilitarian, sustainable
C. Meaningful, quantifiable, sustainable
D. Utilitarian, meaningful, quantifiable

A

B. Meaningful, utilitarian, sustainable

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4
Q

A patient with a long-standing rheumatoid arthritis of the MP and IP joints is referred to PT. Upon evaluation, therapist observed that patient can flex IP when MCP Is in neutral position but cannot flex IP when MCP is hyperextended. The MOST LIKELY cause of this is:

A. Lateral band slippage on volar aspect
B. MCP joint subluxation
C. Finger muscle tenosynovitis
D. Intrinsic muscle tightness

A

D. Intrinsic muscle tightness

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5
Q

Which is NOT a test for rotatory instability of the knee?

A. Ballottement
B. Jerk test of Hughston
C. Active pivot shift
D. Dial

A

A. Ballottement

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6
Q

This is a test for posterior shoulder instability. The patient lies supine with the shoulder abducted to 100 degrees and laterally rotated 90 degrees and with the elbow flexed to 90 degrees so that the arm is horizontal. The examiner stabilizes the scapula with one hand palpating the posterior humeral head with the fingers and stabilizes the upper limb by holding the forearm and elbow at the elbow. The examiner then brings the arm into forward flexion. The test is Known as:

A. Push - pull
B. Load and shift
C. Norwood stress
D. posterior apprehension or stress

A

C. Norwood stress

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7
Q

When planning to establish a PT clinic, it is BEST to
first:

A. Plan a marketing strategy
B. Research on the needs of the community
C. Plan a budget to determine how much business loan is required
D. Look for a location where to set up

A

B. Research on the needs of the community

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8
Q

A PT is increasing a patient’s functional mobility in a seated position. To manage the patient MOST effectively and efficiently, the following should be performed in what order?
1 - weight shifting of the pelvis
2 - isometric contractions of the lower extremity
3 - trunk range of motion exercises
4 - isotonic resistance of the quadriceps

A. 1,2,3,4
B. 3,2,1,4
C. 2,3,1,4
D. 4,3,2,1

A

B. 3,2,1,4

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9
Q

A PT is instructing a stroke patient with gait training, PT noted that learning is going well because errors are decreasing and overall endurance is inproving.
The BEST strategy to promote continued motor learning at this time in the patient’s rehabilitation is to:

A. Intervene early whenever errors appear before bad habits become firmly entrenched
B. Have the patient practice walking in different environments
C. Provide continuous feedback after every walking trial
D. Have the patient continue to practice in the parallel bars until all errors are gone

A

B. Have the patient practice walking in different environments

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10
Q

A PT is evaluating the gait of a 5-year-old girl. PT notices that the child is unsteady and has a wide base support. She appears to lurch at times with minimal truncal bobbing in an anterior and posterior position. The child cannot maintain standing position with the feet placed together for more than 5 seconds. The area of the brain MOST LIKELY affected is the:

A. Cerebellar atmosphere
B. Substantia nigra
C. Corticospinal tracts
D. Basal ganglia

A

A. Cerebellar atmosphere

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11
Q

A TBI injured patient is sometimes disoriented to time and place, has poor memory for recent events and almost no carry over for new learning. The MOST important goal in this case is:

A. Different daily tasks to increase ease of cognitive retrieval
B. Daily structure to reduce distraction
C. Independence to tasks with varying environments
D. Increase arousal and attention through sensory stimulation

A

B. Daily structure to reduce distraction

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12
Q

An injury of the median nerve at the level of the wrist and hand can cause the following functional loss,
ЕХСЕРТ:

A. Thumb opposition
B. Weak or no pinch
C. Flexion of the little finger
D. Thumb flexion

A

C. Flexion of the little finger

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13
Q

A patient with vascular problem develops an infected skin ulcer on the left heel. The modality that would NOT be applied for this patient is:

A. Low intensity direct current - can be used for wound healing
B. Ultraviolet radiation - can be used for wound healing
c. High voltage galvanic stimulation - still a galvanic type of current that can be used for wound healing
D. Hot moist pack

A

D. Hot moist pack

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14
Q

Which ultrasound treatment parameter is recommended for a stage 2 chronic dermal wound?

A. 1 MHz at 1.5 watt/cm2
B. 3 MHz at .2-1 watt/cm2
C. 3 MHz at 1.5 watt/cm
D. 1 MHz at .2-1 watt/cm2

A

B. 3 MHz at .2-1 watt/cm2

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15
Q

Electrical stimulation of spastic muscles has been proven to effectively reduce spasticity. The following are parameters to apply, EXCEPT:

A. waveform: symmetrical or asymmetrical biphasic pulses with 200-500 microseconds duration
B. stimulus: amplitude adjusted to maximum tolerable contraction
C. duty cycle: 1:2
D. pulse rate: greater than 60 pps biphasic pulses to produce tetanic muscle contraction

A

C. duty cycle: 1:2

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16
Q

Ohm’s Law describes the relationship among:

A. Voltage, resistance and amperage
B. Amperage, conductance and resistance
C. Conductance, voltage and resistance
D. Voltage, conductance and amperage

A

A. Voltage, resistance and amperage

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17
Q

A PT will apply electrical stimulation to a patient with venous stasis ulcer on the right lower extremity. The correct type of electrical stimulation to promote wound healing is:

A. Direct
B. Biphasic pulsed
C. Interferential
D. TENS

A

A. Direct

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18
Q

In electrotherapy, the frequencies generated by high voltage units are usually no greater than 100 to 140 Hz while that produced by low voltage units are ____ Hz.

A. 500 - 1,000
B. 2,000 - 3,000
C. 3,000 - 4,000
D.1,000 - 2,000

A

D.1,000 - 2,000

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19
Q

Patient is a 16-year-old female student with idiopathic scoliosis. PT plans to apply bipolar or quadripolar electrodes over the overstretched and weakened muscles. He can select the following parameters, ЕХСЕРТ:

A. duration: gradually increased until patient tolerates 8 hours of stimulation
B. Pulse rate: 50 pps
C. Waveform: rectangular monophasic waveform with 220 microseconds output
D. Stimulus amplitude: 50 to 70 mmA

A

B. Pulse rate: 50 pps

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20
Q

PT was referred a patient with a pulmonary condition. She was to evaluate chest expansion using a tape measure. The 3 sites involved in the assessment are.
I. 3rd intercostal space
Il. under the axilla
Ill. nipple line or xiphisternal junction
IV. 5th intercostal
V. T10 rib area

A. If I, III, V are correct
B. If II, III, V are correct
C. If I, II, III are correct
D. If III, IV, V are correct

A

B. If II, III, V are correct

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21
Q

The following prosthetic causes may result in vaulting during gait of an amputee, EXCEPT:

A. Prosthesis may be too long
B. Excessive alignment stability
C.Inadequate socket suspension
D. Foot in inadequate plantarflexion

A

D. Foot in inadequate plantarflexion

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22
Q

A PT is carrying out mobilization techniques to regain normal mid-thoracic extension. After 4 sessions, the patient complained of localized pain that lasts more than 24 hours. The PT’s strategy should be:

A. Stop PT for one week
B. Change to self-stretching activities because the patient does not tolerate mobilization
C.Stay with current mobilization techniques and follow with a cold pack to the thoracic spine
D. Change mobilization technique to gentle, low amplitude oscillations to reduce the joint and soft tissue irritation

A

D. Change mobilization technique to gentle, low amplitude oscillations to reduce the joint and soft tissue irritation

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23
Q

A 16-year-old high school student was being evaluated for scoliosis. On standing, a right thoracolumbar curve was present but when seated it disappeared. This is MOST LIKELY due to:

A. Leg length discrepancy
B. Unilateral weak gluteus medius
C. Short iliopsoas muscle
D. Lumbar facet dysfunction

A

A. Leg length discrepancy

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24
Q

The following prosthetic causes may result in rotation of forefoot at heel strike of an amputee, EXCEPT:

A. Excessive toe-out built in
B. Rigid SACH heel cushion
C. Excessive suspension
D. loose fitting socket

A

C. Excessive suspension

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25
The PRIMARY absolute cardiac contraindication to exercise testing is: A. Untreated life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias B. Unstable angina with recent chest pain c. Advanced atrioventricular block D. Uncompensated congestive heart failure
B. Unstable angina with recent chest pain
26
The treatment of lower extremity edema with intermittent pneumatic compression is MOST appropriate in this condition. A. Acute thrombophlebitis B. Core pulmonale D. Post operative inguinal node dissection D. Portal hypertension.
D. Post operative inguinal node dissection
27
You are evaluating a 63-year-old housewife with peripheral vascular disease. She complains of intermittent claudication and frequently complains of getting tired. The MOST important treatment goal is to increase ____. A. Mobility B. Lower extremity strength C. Collateral circulation D. Range of motion
C. Collateral circulation
28
Bluish discoloration of the skin and nailbeds of fongers and toes along with the palms. That and cold and mist all point to: A. Liver disease B. Hypothyroidism C. Cyanosis D. Carotenemia
C. Cyanosis
29
A PT discusses the importance of a proper diet with a patient diagnosed with a congestive heart failure. Which of the following substance would MOST likely be restricted in the patient's diet? A. Sodium B. Low-density lipoprotein C. High-density lipoprotein D. Triglycerides
A. Sodium
30
In research it is a concept in statistical test referring to which data have the capacity to vary once certain limits have been imposed. A. Coefficient of concordance B. Degree of freedom C. t value D. p value
B. Degree of freedom
31
In normal cadence, the knee flexes after heel strike to approximately ____ degrees. A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 25
C. 15
32
A patient is performing concentric strengthening exercises of the triceps. In this type of technique, maximum force is generated at: A. Full extension B. Mid-range C.Full flexion D. All throughout the range
B. Mid-range
33
Which of these statements on water temperature during aquatic exercise is TRUE? A. heat transfer increases with velocity B. water retains heat 1000 times more than air C. differences in temperature between an immersed object and water will equilibrate with minimal change in temperature of the water D. water conducts temperature 5 times faster than air
D. water conducts temperature 5 times faster than air
34
A newborn is 5 weeks premature and evaluated at birth using the APGAR test. The AGAR score that may result in a possible neurological complication is: A. 3 at 10 minutes B. 9 at 1 minute C. 8 at 5 minutes D. 8 at 1 minute
A. 3 at 10 minutes
35
A 16-year-old female dancer complains of subpatellar pain after 2 weeks of vigorous rehearsal for a hip-hop competition. PT's evaluation shows a large Q angle, pain on palpation at the inferior pole of the patella and mild swelling at both knees. The BEST strategy for this condition is: A. Vastus medialis (VM) muscle strengthening B. Taping to increase lateral patellar tracking C. Hamstring strengthening D. Vastus lateralis strengthening
A. Vastus medialis (VM) muscle strengthening
36
These statements on the comparison of plantar fasciitis and tarsal tunnel syndrome are TRUE, ЕХСЕРТ: A. Pain is worse in walking, running and in the mórning (sometimes improves with activity) in plantar fasciitis but worst with standing, walking and at night for tarsal tunnel syndrome B. Pain in plantar fasciitis is usually on the plantar aspect of the foot, at the anterior calcaneus while in tarsal tunnel syndrome it is in the medial heel and medial longitudinal arch C. When resisted isometric movements are done, both exhibit normal strength D. Plantar fasciitis is due to overuse while tarsal tunnel syndrome is usually brought about by trauma, a space occupying lesion or inflammation
C. When resisted isometric movements are done, both exhibit normal strength
37
37. The following are symptoms of a rotator cuff tear, EXCEPT: A. Reduction of ROM B. Drop arm test is positive C.Poor scapula thoracic and glenohumeral rhythm D. Significant reduction of AROM into abduction
C.Poor scapula thoracic and glenohumeral rhythm
38
A PT designs a research work that will examine body composition as a function of aerobic exercise and diet. Which method of data collection would provide the MOST Valid measurement of body composition? A. Hydrostatic weighing B. Bioelectrical impedance C. Skinfold measurements D. Anthropometric measurements
A. Hydrostatic weighing
39
PT wants to begin behavior modification techniques as part of a plan of care to help shape the behavioral response of a patient recovering from traumatic brain injury. The BEST form of intervention is to: A. Scold patient every time a wrong behavior happens B. Encourage the staff to tell patient which behaviors are correct and which are not C. Allow patient enough time for self-correction of the behavior D. Use frequent reinforcements for all desired behaviors
D. Use frequent reinforcements for all desired behaviors
40
A 43-year-old male worker suffered carbon monoxide poisoning in a chemical plant. He sustained permanent damage to the nervous system affecting the basal ganglia. The exercise program should be feared to neutralize expected impairment of: A. Motor planning with use of guided and cued movement B. Motor paralysis with the use of full weights to increase strength C. Muscular spasms and hyperreflexia with ice wrap application D. Impaired sensory organization of balance using standing balance training
A. Motor planning with use of guided and cued movement
41
The maximum strength of a tetanic contraction of a muscle operating at a normal length is approximately ____ of a muscle. A. 3.5 kg/sq cm B. 5.5 kg/sq cm С.1.5 kg/sq cm D. 2.5 kg/sq cm
A. 3.5 kg/sq cm
42
In the modified Ashworth Scale for Grading Spasticity a grade 2 is described as: A. Slight increase in muscle tone, manifested by a catch, followed by minimal resistance throughout the remainder (less than half of the ROM) B. Considerable increase in muscle tone, passive movement difficult C. Slight increase in muscle tone, manifested by a catch and release or by minimal resistance at the end of the range of motion when the affected part(s) is moved in flexion or extension D. More marked increase in muscle tone through most of the ROM, but affected part(s) easily moves
D. More marked increase in muscle tone through most of the ROM, but affected part(s) easily moves
43
In the functional balance grades, what rate will you give a patient who is able to maintain balance while weight shifting? A. Fair B. Poor C. Normal D. Good
D. Good
44
A patient with multiple sclerosis is a subject in a research study testing the efficacy of a new medication. The patient reports that the medication she is taking makes her feel much better and allows her to move more easily. At the end of the study, it is revealed that she was part of the control groups. Her responses are MOST LIKELY due to: A. Sampling bias b. Pretest - treatment interference C. Placebo effect D. Hawthorne effect
C. Placebo effect
45
Patient comes to therapy because of poor motor control of the Lower extremities PT determines that to work efficiently toward bringing the patient back to prior level of ambulation, he must follow this sequence of control: A. stability, controlled stability, mobility skill B. mobility, stability, controlled mobility, skill C. mobility, controlled mobility, stability, skill D. skill, controlled stability, controlled mobility
B. Mobility, stability, controlled mobility, skill
46
This is a test for thoracic outlet syndrome where patient is positioned in sitting or supine. The therapist moves the patient’s arm overhead in the frontal plane while monitoring the patient’s radial pulse. A positive test is indicated by an absent or diminished radial pulse and may be indicative of compression in the costoclavicular space. A. Roos B. Allen C. Adson maneuver D. Wright test
D. Wright test
47
While performing ROM, your patient with dermatomyositis complains daily about pain. For BEST long-term positive result, the PT’s strategy should be: A. Discontinue exercise and use only positioning splint B. Do ROM to the maximum limits possible C. Continue to stretch slightly past the point of pain D. Stop exercise as soon as patient complains of pain
D. Stop exercise as soon as patient complains of pain
48
Joint stiffness, a common complaint of RA and OA patients, has these physical components. A. Inertia, viscosity, friction, plasticity, elasticity B. Elongation, viscosity, friction, plasticity, inertia C. Texture, inertia, viscosity, plasticity, elasticity D. Friction, elongation, texture, viscosity, elasticity
A. Inertia, viscosity, friction, plasticity, elasticity
49
Of the following ligaments situated around the ankle joint, the one that is MOST susceptible to strain is the: A. Calcaneofibular B. Talofibular C. Tibiofibular D. Talotibial
B. Talofibular
50
A patient is evaluated after a stroke. When tested for two-point discrimination on the right hand, the patient cannot tell whether the PT is touching with one or two points. PT suspects that there is impaired function in the: A. Spinotectal tract and somatosensory cortex B. Dorsal column/lemniscal pathways and somatosensory cortex C. Anterior spinothalamic tract and thalamus D. Lateral spinothalamic tract and somatosensory cortex
B. Dorsal column/lemniscal pathways and somatosensory cortex
51
A 52-year-old male weighing 175 lbs. complained of left neck pain radiating to his left thumb. His Spurling’s sign was positive in the left with depressed left biceps jerk. His X-rays showed a spondylosis with narrowing of his C5-C6 interspace. The program would MOST LIKELY include _____. A. Continuous traction, sitting, with neck at neutral with 20 lbs weight B. Intermittent cervical traction, supine with neck in 20 degrees of flexion and poundage gradually increasing to 30 lbs C. Continuous traction lying down with a single pulley in the headboard holding a weight of 10 lbs which may be increased to 30 D. Intermittent cervical traction while sitting with neck fixed at 45 degrees and poundage gradually increasing to 10 newtons
B. Intermittent cervical traction, supine with neck in 20 degrees of flexion and poundage gradually increasing to 30 lbs
52
A grade of Fair of lumbar extensors means that the patient is able to do this: A. Clear the upper chest off the table B. Clear the umbilicus off the table C. Clear the costal rib off the table D. Clear the xiphoid process off the table
B. Clear the umbilicus off the table
53
In measuring wrist flexion with a goniometer, the bony landmark used to align the instrument are: A. Lateral condyle of the humerus and the ulna B. Styloid process of the ulna and the fifth proximal IP joint C. Lateral midline of the ulna and the fifth metacarpal D. Lateral midline of the radius and first metacarpal
C. Lateral midline of the ulna and the fifth metacarpal
54
A 50-year-old paraplegic was referred for evaluation and management after one week of bed inactivity. The MMT yielded: upper extremity muscles were grossly graded 3+/5, both hip flexors and extensor graded 3/5, both quadriceps are 2+/5 and both ankle dorsiflexors are 2-/5. Initial goals of treatment should be to: A. Inc. muscle strength B. All of these C. Inc. postural tolerance D. Independence in ADL
A. Inc. muscle strength
55
Which of these statements on water temperature should NOT be considered when preparing an aquatic exercise program? A. Cardiovascular training and aerobic exercise should be performed in water temperature between 22 degrees C and 25 degrees C. B. Therapeutic exercise performed at 33 degrees C may be beneficial for patients with acute, painful musculoskeletal injuries because of the effects of relaxation, elevated pain threshold and decreased muscle spasm. C. Flexibility and strengthening exercises; gait training and relaxation may be performed in temperatures between 26 degrees C and 33 degrees C. D. Intense aerobic training performed above 80 percent of a patient’s maximum heart rate should take place in temperature between 22 degrees C and 26 degrees C to maximize risk of heart illness.
A. Cardiovascular training and aerobic exercise should be performed in water temperature between 22 degrees C and 25 degrees
56
Which of these statements on water temperature during aquatic exercise is TRUE? EXCEPT: (TYPO BY THE EXAMINER ACC. TO MS. JEN) A. Differences in temperature between an immersed object and water will equilibrate with minimal change in temperature of the water. B. Water retains heat 1000 times more than air. C. Heat transfer increases in velocity. D. Water conducts temperature 5 times faster than air.
D. Water conducts temperature 5 times faster than air.
57
The middle score of a distribution which divides a group of scores into equal parts with half of the scores falling above and half of the scores falling below is the____. A. Quota B. Median C. Mode D. Mean
B. Median
58
A patient standing in a corner wall with arm bilaterally abducted and externally rotated againsr the wall is MOST LIKELY stretching the ___. A. Clavicular portion of pectoralis major B. Clavicular portion of pectoralis minor C. Sternal portion of pectoralis major D. Sternal portion of pectoralis minor
A. Clavicular portion of pectoralis major
59
Patients with peripheral nerve injury demonstrate optimal peripheral nerve integrity and muscle performance over the course of ____ months. A. 18-24 months B. 2-3 months C. 9-12 months D. 4-8 months
D. 4-8 months
60
A 54-year-old female bank executive was referred to clinic after right breast lumpectomy with axillary lymph node dissection. PT noted that scapular control is poor when upper extremity flexion or abduction is begun. Given the limitation, the PT intervention at this time should focus on_____. A. Active assistive pulley exercises to assist rotator cuff muscles following damage to the suprascapular nerve B. Strengthening of the right deltoids to help stabilize the shoulder, which compensates for damage to the dorsal scapular nerve C.Strengthening of the right rhomboid to promote normal function of the scapula as a result of damage to the dorsal scapular nerve D. Gravity-assistive right upper extremity exercises to promote scapular control following damage to the long thoracic nerve
D. Gravity-assistive right upper extremity exercises to promote scapular control following damage to the long thoracic nerve
61
A child stimulated for negativee support reaction will respond positive through increased ______ A. Extensor tone in lower extremities B. Flexor tone in upper extremities C. Flexor tone in lower extremities D. Extensor tone in upper extremities
C. Flexor tone in lower extremities
62
Ultrasound vibrations propagated through the housing of the applicator into the hand of the PT are called: A. Parasitic vibrations B. Oscillating conversion C. Ultrasound conversion D. Bactericidal vibration
A. Parasitic vibrations
63
A patient with stage II primary lymphedema of the left lower extremity is referred to PT for increased limb girth with evident skin folds. An essential component of lymphedema management is manual lymphatic drainage which includes: A. decongesting the proximal portion of the lib first and working distally B. decongesting the distal portions of the limb first and working proximally C. deep tissue friction massage for several minutes on fibrotic areas D. decongesting the trunk after the limb segments
A. Decongesting the proximal portion of the limb first and working distally
64
A 66-year-old female patient complains of difficulty of walking. During the rest period, the skin in the lower leg appears discolored. After walking for about 2 minutes, patient complains of pain in the leg. A marked pallor is also evident in the skin over the lower third of the extremity. These symptoms are synonymous with _____. A. peripheral neuropathy B. restless leg syndrome C. neurogenic claudication D. vascular claudication
D. Vascular claudication
65
A patient has a 13-year-old history of peripheral vascular disease (PVD) affecting the left lower extremity. During auscultation of the popliteal artery, the PT would expect to find a/an _____. A. Bruit B. + Homan's sign C. + pulses D. intense pain and cramping
A. Bruit
66
Which statement is NOT TRUE about blood pressure? A. Blood pressure response is higher during weight training than incorporate concentric and eccentric phase compared to isokinetic B. Blood pressure is directly related to cardiac output and peripheral vascular resistance and therefore is an effective non-invasive performance measure of the pumping mechanism of the heart C. Blood pressure tends to be lower when the Valsalva maneuver is applied D. Blood pressure increases during dynamic resistance exercise. such as free weights, machines or isokinetics and continues to increase as an exercise set progresses
C. Blood pressure tends to be lower when the Valsalva maneuver is applied.
67
Which statement is NOT TRUE about systoliv blood pressure? A. If systolic pressure does not rise with increasing workload, it may indicate that the functional reserve capacity of the heart has been exceeded B. Systolic pressure increases with exertion in a linear progression, often at a rate of 10-14 mmHg per metabolic equivalent C. Normally, systolic blood pressure in the legs is 10-20 percent higher than the pressure in the arms (brachial artery) D. Systolic pressure measures the force exerted against the arteries during the ejection cycle, while diastolic pressure measures the force exerted against the arteries during rest
B. Systolic pressure increases with exertion in a linear progression, often at a rate of 10-14 mmHg per metabolic equivalent.
68
A patient with asthma is on medication (albuterol) ventolin from the sympathomimetic group. The MOST important effect of this drug is _____. A. lowers airway resistance by reducing bronchospasm B. lower brochial construction and high blood pressure (BP) that accompanies exercise C. increases heart rate (HR) and BP to enhance a training effect during aerobic activity. D. raises airway resistance and reduces secretion production
A. Lowers airway resistance by reducing bronchospasm
69
A patient with multiple sclerosis demonstrates a significant instability and hypertonicity in the hips. To regain stability, the most appropriate strategy is _____. A. slow-reversal-hold to lock hip in prone position B. slow-reversal-hold to lower truck in sitting position C. rhythmic stabilization at the hips with the patient on elbows and knees D. rhythmic stabilization to trunk in sidelying position
C. Rhythmic stabilization at the hips with the patient on elbows and knees
70
Patient was on bed rest for several months. Which of these does NOT occur in a patient after an extended bed rest? A. Increase in the heart rate response to activity B. A negative nitrogen and calcium balance C. Increase in lung volume D. Decrease in physical work capacity
C. Increase in lung volume
71
If a patient presents with the following symptoms: hoarse wheezes and altered breath sounds and may be clubbing at the fingers, may be short of breath and fatigue and a large quantity of puss-filled sputum that may also contain blood, you will entertain the presence of _____. A. chronic bronchitis B. emphysema C. bronchiectasis D. asthma
C. Bronchiectasis
72
A PT is inspecting the work station of patient with cumulative trauma. When seated before a video display terminal, the screen should be positioned ____ inches from the patient. A. 30 B. 10 C. 20 D. 40
C. 20
73
A 76-year-old male patient demonstrates significant proprioceptive losses in both lower extremities, distal greater than proximal useful compensatory strategies in is ambulation training would include ____ A. Shorten ambulation and focus on wheelchair mobility B. Constant verbal cueing about his foot position C. Practice walking on a smooth surface floor D. Letting patient watch position of his feet while practicing standing and stepping
D. Letting patient watch position of his feet while practicing standing and stepping
74
A plumb line is a tool that consists of a weight suspended at the end of a string to determine vertical. Ideal positioning of selected body parts in relation to the plumb line is described below, EXCEPT: A. Slightly anterior to the axis of the knee joint B. Slightly anterior to the hip joint C. Slightly anterior to the lateral malleolus D. Through the calcaneocuboid joint
B. Slightly anterior to the hip joint
75
The Rule of Nines assigns percentage of burn to an adult;s anterior leg as _____. A. 12.0 B. 4.5 C. 6.0 D. 9.0
D. 9.0
76
A PT examines a patient seated in a wheelcahir and notices that it has inadequate seat width. The MOST LIKELY consequence to this is excessive pressure ______. A. on the greater trochanters B. in the popliteal fossa C. under the distal thigh D. under the ischial tuberosities
A. on the greater trochanters
77
A PT notices a bluish discoloration of the skin and nail beds of a 57-year-old male referred to PT for pulmonary rehabilitation. This finding indicates _____> A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperoxemia C. Hyperoxia D. Hypoxemia
D. Hypoxemia
78
Which of the following statements about developmental motor control is FALSE? A. Trunk control develops prior to distal ismoetric control B. Isotonic control develops before isometric control C. Gross motor control develops prior to fine motor control D. Eccentric movement develops prior to concetric movement
B. Isotonic control develops before ismoteric control
79
A PT is evaluating a 50-year-old housewife with vestibular problems. Patient is asked to assume a long sitting position with the head turned to the left side. PT then moves the patient backward so that the head is extended over the end of table about 30 degrees below horiontal. This manuever causes severe dizziness and vertigo. A special test with the head turned to the right produces no sympotoms. PT document the results as a positive. A. sharpened Romberg's test B. positional test C. left Dix-Hallpike test D. right Dix-Hallpike tests
C. left Dix-Hallpike test
80
A PT is evaluating a patient diagnosed with an acute posterior cruciate sprain. The mechanism of injury for the posterior cruciate is _____. A. a forceful landing on the anterior tibia with the knee hyperflexed B. hyperextension medial rotaion of the leg with lateral rotation of the body C. a valgus force applied to the knee when the foot is fixed D. an anteriorly directed force applied to the tibia when the foot is fixed
A. a forceful landing on the anterior tibia with the knee hyperflexed
81
A positive crossover sign is indicative of _____. A. possible disc lesion causing traction on the ipsilateral nerve roots B. tightness if iliotibial band C. malingering patient D. possible disc lesion causing traction on the contralateral nerve roots
D. possible disc lesion causing traction on the contralateral nerve roots
82
A basic facility standard that should be included in the construction of PT department is the ____. A. parking facilites B. basic space and staffing requirements C. geography and population to be served D. type and size of hospital to be served
B. basic space and staffing requirements
83
The following are tests to assess manual dexterity and coordination, EXCEPT: A. Jebson-Taylor Hand Function B. Minnesota Rate of Manipulation C. Grind D. Purdue Pegboard
C. Grind
84
Professional negligence is commonly identified as_____ A. An unnecessary risk taken by a practitioner B. The unintended injury to person or property C. "Res ipsaloquitor" D. The intended injury to person or property
A. An unnecessary risk taken by a practitioner
85
Patellar tracking dysfunction is a common problem especially those with active lifestyles. Dynamic factors for patellar tracking dysfunction include _____. A. a lateral femoral condyle that is not sufficiency prominent anteriorly B. shallow trochlear groove C. vastus medialis obliquus muscle insufficiency D. increase in the angulation between the quadriceps muscle and the patellar tendon
C. vastus medialis obliquus muscle insufficiency
86
A 57-year-old male patient with sciatica complains of sever lumbar pain and paresthesia extending to the left ankle. Straight leg raising is positive in the left lower extremity. The MOST LIKELY source of pain is ____. A. a lumbar disc with a posterior herniation or protrusion B. piriformis syndrome C. Sacroiliac joint dysfunction D. a lumbar disc is with a right posterior herniation or protrusion
A. a lumbar disc with a posterior herniation or protrusion
87
A basketball player of a major professional league was prescribes a knee derotation brace for all his games. The condition that would BEST benefit the use of derotation brace is _____. A. posterior cruciate ligament reconstruction B. anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction C. medial meniscus tear D. anterior cruciate ligament insufficiency
D. anterior cruciate ligament insufficiency
88
A PT is applying electrical stimulation to treat a patient with shoulder subluxation due to a stroke. The electros palcement should be over the _____. A. posterior deltoid and teres minor B. middle deltoid and supraspinatus C. posterior deltoid and supraspinatus D. serratus anterior and pectoralis major
C. posterior deltoid and supraspinatus
89
Which of the following factors is likely to cause subluxation and shoulder pain in hemiplegia? A. spastic retraction with elevation of scapula B. traction acting on a depressed, downwardly rotated scapula C. PROM with normal scapulohumeral rhythm D. spastic paralysis of the biceps
B. traction acting on the depressed, downwardly rotated scapula
90
A PT assigned in the oncology department of a large medical center is going over the medical chart of a male patient before initiating airway clearance techniques. The patient's cell counts are as follows: hematocrit - 44 percent, white blood cells - 8,500 mm, platelets - 30,000/ul, hemoglobin level - 15 gm/dl. Which blood test values suggests that chest percussion for airway clearance is contraindicated? A. Platelets B. Hemoglobin C. White blood cells D. Hematocrit
A. Platelets
91
A patient exhibits quadriceps weakness 4/5 and difficulty descending stairs. The BEST intervention to restore functional strength in the quadriceps is ___. A. progressive resistance exercises, 70 percent 1 repetition maximum, three sets of 10 B. partial squats, progressing to lunges C. maximum isometric exercise at 45 degrees and 90 degrees of knee extension D. isokinetic exercise at 36 degrees per second
B. partial squats, progressing to lunges
92
Consider the following clinical picture of the knee joint: there is marked swelling, tibia can be displaces forward in the femur, pain and marked instability of the knee joint. The structure LIKELY involved is the ____ ligament. A. posterior cruciate B. anterior cruciate C. tibial collateral D. fibular collateral
B. anterior cruciate
93
The body weight transmitted to a uniateral cane opposite the affected side is about ___ percent. A. 20-25 B. 80 C. 40-45 D. 10-15
A. 20-25
94
A PT prepares to complete a sensory examination on a patient recovering from a lower extremity burn. Which of the following would serve as the BEST predictor of altered sensation? A. presence of skin graft B. percentage of body surface affected C. depth of burn injury D. extent of hypertrophic scarring
C. depth of burn injury
95
A 66-year-old female is recovering from stroke and at 14 months is ambulating with a straight cane inside the house. During therapy, PT asks patient to practice walking without assisstive device. Recurvatum is observed that worsens with continued walking. The BEST strategy for the PT is ____. A. Put the patient on an exercise machine and work on increasing quadriceps torque outpatient at higher loads and increasing speeds. B. Practice isolated small-range quadriceps eccentric control work in standing and continue with the straight cane C. Give the patient a small-based quad cane to improve stability, and have him/her practice active ROM in supine D. Give the patient a KAFO to control the hyperextension and a hemi walker
B. Practice isolated small-range quadriceps eccentric control work in standing and continue with the straight cane
96
A PT chooses the Six-Minute Walk Test as a means of quantifying endurance for a patient rehabilitating from a lengthy illness. Which variable would be most appropriate to measure when determining the patient's endurance level with this objetive test? A. Heart rate response B. Perceived exertion C. Elapsed time D. Distance walked
D. Distance walked
97
A 48-year-old female was referred to PT with a C6 nerve root injury. Which of the clinical findings would NOT be expected with this type of injury? A. Diminished brachioradialis reflex B. Paresthesias of the long and ring fingers C. Diminished sensation on the anterior arm and index finger D. Weakness in the biceps and supinator
B. Paresthesias of the long and ring fingers
98
The following are characteristics of the left hemisphere of the brain, EXCEPT: A. Understand language B. Express negative emotions C. Mathematical calculations D. Analytical
B. Express negative emotions
99
A PT is getting a gross measurement of hamstrings length by passively extending the lower extremity of a patient in short sitting. The MOST common substitution to exaggerate hamstring length is ___. A. Anterior rotation of the pelvis B. Hiking of the contralateral hip C. Posterior rotation of the pelvis D. Weight shift to the contralateral side
C. Posterior rotation of the pelvis
100
A 43-year-old patient is recovering from a complete SCI at L2 level. The expected outcome would MOST LIKELY include ___. A. Loss of motor function and pain and temperature sensation below the level of the lesion with light touch, proprioception and position sense preserved B. Loss of arm function is greater than leg function with early loss of pain and temperature sensation C. A spastic or reflex bladder D. Some recovery of function since damage is to peripheral nerve roots
D. Some recovery of function since damage is to peripheral nerve roots.
101
A 64-year-old patient will undergo total hip replacement in a week. Which of these is NOT included among pre-operative instructions? A. gait training with an appropriate device that will be used post operatively B. deep breathing and coughing exercise C. basic precautions for early bed mobility D. proper use of an abduction pillow for 1-2 weeks post operatively
D. proper use of an abduction pillow for 1-2 weeks post operatively
102
A patient 4 months post total knee replacement is referred for ROM ans strengthening exercises. Which strategy would NOT be appropriate for tha patient? A. active strengthening using the contract-relax technique B. exercise on a stationary bicycle against mild resistance C. joint mobility to increase joint play D. performing straight leg raising, short arc extension and knee flexion exercise using light weights
C. joint mobility to increase joint play
103
A football player suffered a grade II inversion ankle sprain 2 weeks ago. The best intervention in the early subacute phase of rehabilitation would most likely include: A. functional football related drills B. mobilization at the talocrural and subtalar joints C. plyometric based exercise D. closed chain strengthening and proprioceptive exercises
D. closed chain strengthening and proprioceptive exercises
104
While talking to a patient about a previous exercise program, the patient mentioned that his PT from another clinic said that he performed negative work. Negative work or a negative muscular contraction is BEST defined as: A. the muscle develops tension and increase in length B. purposeful voluntary motion C. the muscle develops tension and decreases in length D. muscle length remains constant as tension is developed
A. the muscle developes tension and increases in length
105
A PT is conducting a pre-operative training for a patient scheduled for repair of a large rotator cuff tear. Patient is a 56-year-old bank executive and he wants to know how long before he can resume his formet recreational activities such as golf and badminton. The MOST appropriate time fram is ___. A. 24 - 48 B. 6 - 8 C. 12 - 14 D. 36 - 40
A. 24 - 48
106
This is to test brachial plexus injury, brachial plexus neuritis or Meningitis. A. Westphal B. Keri C. Lhermittes D. Bikele
D. Bikele
107
The silver fork deformity results from an unreduced or inadequately reduced A. fracture of the lower ulna B. fracture of one or more carpals C. fracture of the first metacarpal D. Colle's fracture
D. Colle's fracture
108
A golfer, while swinging to drive the ball, felt an immediate sharp pain in the right lower back. The days after patient reported stiffness with easing of pain after a shower. With these information, the source of pain is MOST LIKELY: A. Nerve root compression B. Facet joint impingement C. A stress fracture D. Diminsihed blood supply to the spinal cord
B. Facet joint impingement
109
A patient immersed in the pool up to the umbilicus effectively off-loads ___ percent of his body weight. A. 30 B. 40 C. 60 D. 50
D. 50
110
A patient with pain in the left lateral face and head is found to have limited active and passive mouth opening range of motion. However, passive lateral deviation is full to both sides. The probable cause for the limitation in mouth opening range of motion is ___. A. An anteriorly displaced disc without reduction in the left temporomandibular joint B. Decreased flexibility in the muscles of mastication on the left C. Capsular restriction of the left tempormandibular joint D. Decreased flexibility in the muscles of mastication on the left
B. Decreased flexibility in the muscles of mastication on the left
111
In order to determine if an exercise session should be terminated, the patient assesses the level of exertion using the BORG Rating of Perceived Exertion Scale. The patient rates the level of exertion as 11 on the 6-19 scale. A rating of 11 corresponds to which of the following ___. A. Very, very light B. Very light C. Somewhat hard D. Fairly light
D. Fairly light
112
The principle that states that there will only be an increase in muscle strength if adequate resistance is given is ____. A. Overload B. McGill C. Davies D. Action-reaction
A. Overload
113
This statement is TRUE of the peak torque of a concentric contraction of the plantarflexors. A. It occurs at the end of the range where the plantarflexors are the most shortened. B. It does not change with different velocities of isokinetic testing C. It is measured in joules D. It decreases as the muscles fatigue
D. It decreases as the muscles fatigue
114
A 34-year-old motorcycle delivery crew who figured in a vehicular accident was referred to you. Evaluation revealed that he had no function of the biceps and the brachialis but has functions of the triceps and deltoid muscles. You can suspect: A. Nerve root lesion is at C5-C6 B. Lesion is at the lateral cord of the brachial plexus C. None of these D. Lesion is at the posterior cord of the brachial plexus
B. Lesion is at the lateral cord of the brachial plexus
115
A PT is implementing a closed kinetc chain exercises for a patient diagnosed with anterior cruciate ligament insufficiency. Which is INAPPROPRIATE to include in the program? A. Walking backwards on a treadmill B. Exercise in a stair climber C. Isokinetic knee extension and flexion D. Limited squats to 45 degrees
C. Isokinetic knee extension and flexion
116
Your patient with Pakinson's disease was prescribed levodopa. The side effects of the drug are the following, EXCEPT: A. arrhythmias B. gastrointestinal distress C. orthostatic hypotension D. impaired visual accommodation
D. impaired visual accommodation
117
In behavior therapy, this is a process where learning occures when an individual engages in specific behaviors in order to receive certain consequences. Examples of this include postive reinforcement, extinction and punishment. A. Operant conditioning B. Role playing C. Flooding D. Modeling
A. Operant conditioning
118
A sports PT was invited to deliver a talk on plyometrics before athletes of a university-based athletic association. Which of the following does NOT refer to plyometric? A. A criteria to begin plyometric training usually includes 60-70 percent level of strength and 75 percent range of motion B. It is appropriate only in the later stages of rehabilitation of active individuals who must achieve a high level of physical performance in specific high demand activities C. It is characterized by a rapid eccentric contraction during which muscle elongates, followed immediately by a rapid reversal of movement with a resisted shortening contraction of the same muscle D. It is a sytem of high velocity resistance training
A. A criteria to begin plyometric training usually includes 60-70 percent level of strength and 75 percent range of motion
119
A 29-year-old male with a history of schizophrenia, disorganied type, is reffered for ambulation after a femoral fracture. Patient recently had an exacerbation of the condition. PT will expect this behavior from patient ____. A. Feelings of low self-esteem B. Poor ability to perform tasks that need abstract problem solving C. Sleep disturbance and flashbacks D. Increased fear of crowd
B. Poor ability to perform tasks that need abstract problem solving
120
A PT observes an electrocardiogram of a patient on beta-blockers. Which of the following electrocardiogram changes could be facilitated by beta-blockers? A. premature ventricular contractions B. sinus bradycardia C. ST segment sagging D. sinus tachycardia
B. sinus bradycardia
121
A patient with left sided CHF class II, is referred for physical therapy. During exercises, the patient can be expected to exhibit ____. a. Anorexia, nausea with abdominal pain and distension b. Dyspnea with fatigue and muscular weakness c. Severe, uncomfortable chest pain with shortness of breath d. Weight gain with dependent edema
B. Dyspnea with fatigue and muscular weakness
122
In comparing the clinical features of cerebral artery thrombosis with cerebral embolism, the former: a. presents an abrupt onset with rapidly developing symptoms b. has the most common site of occlusion in the internal carotid artery c. usually includes a sudden loss of consciousness d. includes more generalized disturbance of cerebral function
B. has the most common site of occlusion in the internal carotid artery
123
A patient is on immune suppressants following renal transplantation was referred to the clinic for mobility training using crutches. Initial evaluation revealed paresthesia in both lower extremities with peripheral weakness in both hands and feet. PT suspects that patient is MOST LIKELY experiencing: a. leukopenia b. peripheral neuropathy c. myopathy d. quadriparesis
B. peripheral neuropathy
124
The correct sequence in the hierarchy of the criteria of a profession is: a. lifetime commitment, representative organization, specialized education, service to clients, autonomy of judgment b. representative organization, lifetime commitment, service to clients, specialized education, autonomy of judgment c. autonomy of judgment, lifetime commitment, specialized education, representative organization, service to clients d. service to clients, autonomy of judgment, specialized education, representative organization, lifetime commitment
A. lifetime commitment, representative organization, specialized education, service to clients, autonomy of judgment
125
A PT working in the provincial hospital was asked to cover an interscholastic football league competition. During a game, a player is knocked down on the field. The PT rushed to the scene and determines that the player is unconscious. What should be the NEXT action of the PT? a. Proceed to give mouth to mouth resuscitation check for shock b. Start with the head and determine first if there is any bleeding or fluid coming from the nose, ears, eyes, or mouth c. Check the carotid pulse for a heart beat d. Check breathing and if it is impaired, clear the airway, and if necessary
D. Check breathing and if it is impaired, clear the airway, and if necessary
126
Which of the following is widely considered the MOST accurate body composition assessment? a. hydrostatic weighing b. eyeballing method c. electrical impedance d. anthropometric measurements
A. hydrostatic weighing
127
A 28-year-old fast food delivery man figured in a bad vehicular accident that landed him in the intensive care unit. Patient is confused. His laboratory findings include: hematocrit – 28 percent, hemoglobin – 9 g/100 ml, and serum white blood cell count of 12,000/mm³. With these, the PT can say that: a. all values are abnormal b. only hematocrit value is abnormal c. hematocrit and hemoglobin values are abnormal; WBC is normal d. only serum WBC is abnormal
A. all values are abnormal
128
A patient exhibiting symptoms of thalamic pain syndrome, cortical blindness, and memory impairment. PT will suspect occlusion in the artery: a. vertebral-basilar b. middle cerebral c. posterior cerebral d. anterior cerebral
C. posterior cerebral
129
While evaluating a patient with cerebral palsy, the spastic diplegic type, PT will observe the following abnormalities, EXCEPT: a. Ankle dorsiflexion b. Scissoring gait pattern c. Hips flexed and adducted d. Knees fixed with valgus
A. Ankle dorsiflexion
130
The MOST important consideration among the major factors below in the clinical assessment of wheelchair and seating systems is: a. Abnormal reflexes b. Sensory deficits c. Contracture d. Muscle tone
C. Contracture
131
The patient is now able to pronate and supinate his affected forearm with the elbow extended. This means he is in the stage ______ of Brunnstrom’s stages of development. a. 3 b. 2 c. 4 d. 5
D. 5
132
After complete healing, wound will have only how many percent strength of intact skin? a. 80 b. 70 c. 50 d. 60
A. 80
133
The treatment plan for a patient with hemiplegia is based on the theory of reinforcing normal movement through key points of control and avoiding all reflex movement patterns and associated reactions. The approach MOST closely illustrates: a. Kabat b. Rood c. Brunnstrom d. Bobath
D. Bobath
134
Postural drainage is prescribed to a patient with cystic fibrosis. If the superior segment of the lower lobes are the target areas, how will PT proceed? a. patient lies prone, head down, 20 inches foot elevation with pillows under the hips b. patient lies supine, head down 20 inches with pillows under the knees c. patient lies supine with 2 pillows under hips, bed flat d. patient lies supine with pillows under the knees, bed flat
A. patient lies prone, head down, 20 inches foot elevation with pillows under the hips
135
A PT is part of a health team that will examine applicants for flight attendants of an airline company. His task was to examine the posture of applicants. Which of these descriptions would NOT match a good posture? a. chest is slightly up and forward b. front of pelvis and thighs are in a straight line c. shoulder blades pulled back and separated about 2 inches from each other d. arms hang relaxed at the sides with palms of hand facing toward the body
C. shoulder blades pulled back and separated about 2 inches from each other
136
PT is evaluating a 40-year-old male patient referred by a pulmonary specialist. PT observes a pattern of breathing with periods of alternate deep breathing and apnea. Patient reports the same occurs at bedtime. This type of breathing or disorder in rate and rhythm is consistent with: a. diaphragmatic b. Biot’s c. ataxic d. Cheyne-Stokes
D. Cheyne-Stokes
137
The plumb line is a tool that consists of a weight suspended at the end of a string to determine verticality. Ideal positioning of selected body parts in relation to the plumb line is described below, EXCEPT: a. midway through the tip of the shoulder b. through the external auditory meatus c. slightly anterior to the odontoid process d. slightly anterior to the coronal suture
D. slightly anterior to the coronal suture
138
A patient with a deep partial thickness burn over 30% of the body is referred to PT from the Burn Unit. The expected healing process in this type of burn is: a. minimal grafting b. depressed skin area that heals with grafting and scarring c. marked edema with slow healing and extensive hypertrophic scarring d. blisters and minimal edema with spontaneous healing
C. marked edema with slow healing and extensive hypertrophic scarring
139
A patient using a wheelchair is about to be discharged from the hospital. He asks his family to build a ramp that will allow entry into the house. What is the MAXIMUM recommended grade for the ramp? a. 10.4 percent b. 8.3 percent c. 9.3 percent d. 6.5 percent
B. 8.3 percent
140
A PT should have sustainable understanding of the normal development of the human body to treat effectively and efficiently. Which of the following principles is NOT TRUE? a. Early motor activity is influenced by spontaneous activity b. Increasing motor ability is independent of motor learning c. Early motor activity is influenced primarily by reflexes d. Motor control develops from proximal to distal and from head to toe
B. Increasing motor ability is independent of motor learning
141
A medial or lateral whip during gait of an amputee can occur because of the following reasons, EXCEPT: a. inadequate rotation of the knee b. tight socket fit c. improper alignment of toe break d. valgus in the prosthetic knee
A. inadequate rotation of the knee
142
A patient who sustained burns on 25 percent of his body was admitted! If patient has hypovolemia, the laboratory value MOST affected is: a. oxygen saturation ratio b. hemoglobin c. prothrombin time d. hematocrit
D. hematocrit
143
The range of motion requirements for normal gait include the following, EXCEPT: a. knee flexion: 0–60 degrees b. ankle dorsiflexion: 0–10 degrees c. hip extension: 0–30 degrees d. hip flexion: 0–30 degrees
C. hip extension: 0–30 degrees
144
A patient with right lateral epicondylitis reports that symptoms are the same after 2 weeks of treatment. PT evaluated the patient and found that the left biceps reflex is +1. The PT’s next strategy is to conduct a complete examination of the region: a. midcervical b. cervicothoracic c. upper cervical d. cervicocranial
A. midcervical
145
A patient with a spinal cord injury finds it difficult to transfer from mat to wheelchair. The patient can’t seem to process the idea of how to coordinate this movement. In this situation the MOST effective use of feedback during the early motor learning is to: a. focus on guided movement and proprioceptive input b. concentrate on knowledge of results and visual inputs c. give feedback only after a short (5 sec) delay d. concentrate on knowledge of performance and results
B. concentrate on knowledge of results and visual inputs
146
The following impairments may result in visual perception problems, EXCEPT: a. perseveration in attention b. homonymous hemianopsia c. contralateral weakness d. personality changes, antisocial behavior
B. homonymous hemianopsia
147
In designing a ramp for patients with wheelchair, for every inch of threshold height, there should be a corresponding _____ inches of ramp length. a. 12 b. 10 c. 15 d. 8
A. 12
148
At what level may a spinal cord injury patient begin to be a functional ambulator? a. T1–T8 b. T9–T12 c. L4–L5 d. L1–L3
D. L1–L3
149
The following conditions can cause pressure ulcers to develop in SCI patients, EXCEPT: a. voluntary motor paralysis b. sensory impairment c. autonomic dysfunction d. bladder incontinence
C. autonomic dysfunction
150
Patient figured in a traction injury to the anterior division of the brachial plexus. PT expected to see weakness of the elbow flexors, wrist flexors and forearm pronation. The PT would also expect to find more weakness in: a. wrist extension b. forearm supination c. thumb abduction d. lateral rotation of the shoulder
C. thumb abduction
151
A post-stroke patient can maintain standing without any external support and has some sway. If he can remain standing while turning his head or trunk, the functional grade is: a. Normal static and dynamic standing balance b. Good static and fair dynamic standing balance c. Good static and normal dynamic standing balance d. Fair static and good dynamic standing balance
B. Good static and fair dynamic standing balance
152
A major reason cervical traction is done intermittently is: a. machine will not overheat b. to increase blood flow to that area c. greater poundage can be tolerated d. all of these
C. greater poundage can be tolerated
153
In a wellness center, a PT was assigned to do a study that determines body composition as a function of aerobic exercise and diet. The method of data collection that would provide the MOST accurate of body composition is: a. Skin fold measurements b. Hydrostatic weighing c. Bioelectrical impedance d. Anthropometric measurement
B. Hydrostatic weighing
154
Body composition is defined as the relative percentage of body weight that is comprised of fat and fat-free tissue. Aside from skinfold measurement and hydrostatic weighing, the other methods are the following, EXCEPT: a. Bioelectrical impedance analysis b. Body mass index c. Plethysmography d. Fat content analysis
D. Fat content analysis
155
A 40-year-old male diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis reports progressive stiffness of the back and morning low back pain. The PT notes the patient’s MOST typical standing posture demonstrates: a. Lateral curvature of the spine with fixed rotation of the vertebrae b. Posterior thoracic rib hump c. Excessive lumbar curve flattened thoracic curve d. Flattened lumbar curve, exaggerated thoracic curve
D. Flattened lumbar curve, exaggerated thoracic curve
156
Pain in the calf aggravated by walking and elevation of the lower extremity is MOST LIKELY caused by: a. Arterial insufficiency b. Sciatica c. Venous insufficiency d. Lymphedema
A. Arterial insufficiency
157
Sudden muscle cramps brought on by exertion and relieved by rest describes this condition. a. Embolic occlusion b. Thrombophlebitis c. Lymphedema d. Claudication
D. Claudication
158
Your patient is a 65-year-old female diagnosed with venous problem. The following therapeutic procedures are usually indicated to prevent progression of condition EXCEPT: a. Patient with problems in the lower extremities should be encouraged to walk, run, rise on toes b. Electric stimulaton is not recommended c. Gentle massage can be given to move the stagnant blood and relieve the pressure d. Intermittent pneumatic compression treatments are commonly given, often followed by exercises
B. Electric stimulaton is not recommended
159
A PT is treating a 39-year-old female diagnosed with thoracic outlet syndrome. During exercise, the patient begins to complain of light headaches and dizziness. PT immediately takes patient to a chair and monitors her vital signs. Her respiration rate is 11 breaths per minute, pulse rate 50 beats per minute, and BP 120/85 mmHg. Which of the following statements is MOST accurate? a. Pulse rate and respiration rate are below normal levels b. The patient’s vital signs are within normal levels c. Pulse rate and BP are above normal levels d. BP and respiration rate are above normal levels
A. Pulse rate and respiration rate are below normal levels
160
A 70-year-old patient with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia comes to therapy confused and has shortness of breath and general weakness. You will suspect that the patient a. Is experiencing unstable angina b. Is showing signs of early Alzheimer’s disease c. Failed to take prescribed hypertension medication d. Is showing early signs of myocardial infarction
D. Is showing early signs of myocardial infarction
161
The correct sequence for a positive Landau reflex response is: a. First back extends, then the neck flexes with legs in extension b. First the head, then the back and legs extend c. Simultaneous neck and back in flexion with legs extended d. First the legs will extend, then neck extension with back flexion
B. First the head, then the back and legs extend
162
A PT is completing a developmental assessment of a 7-month-old infant with normal development. The reflex that would NOT be integrated is: a. ATNR b. STNR c. Landau d. Moro
C. Landau
163
Which of these is NOT TRUE about the pre-operation stage of cognitive development? a. Children develop tools for representative scheme symbolically through language imitation, imaginary play and drawing b. Preceded by the sensorimotor stage c. Ends at 5 years d. Starts when child begins to learn language
C. Ends at 5 years
164
The condition that may result in persistent wearing of high heels is: a. Diabetic peripheral neuropathy b. Bilateral bunion c. Metatarsalgia d. Pes Planus
C. Metatarsalgia
165
Which of the following is MOST important goal for treating pediatric patients with postural reaction deficits? a. Automatic response b. Age-appropriate responses c. Lower extremity control before upper extremity control d. Conscious responses
A. Automatic response
166
A child with cerebral palsy has difficulty releasing food from the hand to the mouth. To assist the hand opening when the food is in the mouth, the caregiver should: a. Passively extend the fingers b. Slowly stroke the finger flexors in a distal to proximal direction c. Slowly stroke the finger extensors in a proximal to distal direction d. Apply a quick stretch to the finger flexors
C. Slowly stroke the finger extensors in a proximal to distal direction
167
A female PT is treating a 1-year-old child with Down Syndrome at home. She notices decreasing strength in the extremities with neck pain and limited neck motion. Deep tendon reflexes are 1+. PT suspects a. Atlanto-axial subluxation with lemniscal impingement b. Lower motor neuron signs consistent with Down Syndrome c. Upper motor neuron signs consistent with Down Syndrome d. Atlanto-axial subluxation with spinal cord impingement
D. Atlanto-axial subluxation with spinal cord impingement
168
A 50-year-old golfer complains of pain on getting up that eases with ambulation. There’s also pain when running and upon palpation of the distal end of calcaneus. Evaluation also reveals pes planus. PT suspects plantar fasciitis. Initial strategy would include: a. Use of night resting splint b. Strengthening of ankle dorsiflexors c. Modalities to reduce pain d. Use of customized orthosis
A. Use of night resting splint
169
An infant is independent in sitting, including all protective extension reactions and can pull-to-stand through kneeling, cruise sideways and stand alone. The infant still exhibits plantar grasp in standing. These infants’ chronological age is close to a. 5 b. 8-9 c. 10-15 d. 6
B. 8-9
170
Prematurity is associated with neonatal morbidity and mortality. It is defined as birth before completion of a. 32nd week of gestation b. 35th week of gestation c. 37th week from the first day of the last menstruation d. 30th week of intrauterine development
C. 37th week from the first day of the last menstruation
171
A PT reviews a laboratory result of an inpatient who sustained burns over 25 percent of her body in a fire. Granting the patient exhibits hypovolemia, which of the following laboratory values would be MOST significantly affected? a. Hematocrit b. Prothrombin time c. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate d. Oxygen saturation rate
A. Hematocrit
172
Because of a traumatic brain injury, a patient is unable to bring foot up into the next step during stair climbing. The PT’s BEST strategy to promote learning the task is to have patient do a. Step-ups into a low step while in parallel bars b. Standing up from half kneeling c. Balancing of stairs while PT brings the foot up d. Marching in place between parallel bars
A. Step-ups into a low step while in parallel bars
173
A patient with a left CVA demonstrates right hemiparesis and strong and dominant hemiplegia synergies in the lower extremity. The PT’s BEST strategy to break up these strategies is: a. Supine, PNF D2F with knee flexing and D2F with knee extending b. Foot tapping in a sitting position c. Bridging, pelvic elevation d. Supine-lying hip extension with adduction
C. Bridging, pelvic elevation
174
A 2-year-old child with Down Syndrome and moderate developmental delay is treated in an early intervention program. Daily training activities that can be considered include: a. Rolling activities, initiating movement with stretch and tracking resistance b. Stimulation to postural extensors in sitting using rhythmic stabilization c. Locomotor training using body weight support d. Holding and weight shifting in sitting and standing using tactile and verbal cueing
D. Holding and weight shifting in sitting and standing using tactile and verbal cueing
175
A 3-year-old child with spastic cerebral palsy and at a 6-month-old gross developmental level is referred to the clinic. The plan of care would include: a. Visually tracking a black and white object held 9 inches from his/her face b. Reaching for a black and white object while in the supine position c. Reaching for a multi-colored object while in an unsupported standing position d. Reaching for a multi-colored object while in an unsupported, guarded sitting position
D. Reaching for a multi-colored object while in an unsupported, guarded sitting position
176
A PT has been invited to be resource speaker during a workshop for budding athletes on plyometrics. Among the exercises below, what can be included? a. Running downhill b. Skip and hop in all directions c. Walking backwards d. Lateral movement to stabilize knee
B. Skip and hop in all directions
177
A PT is performing a cognitive function test on a patient status post stroke. As part of the test, PT examines the patient’s abstractability. Which of these tasks is MOST appropriate? a. Discuss how two objects are similar b. Identify letters or numbers traced on the skin c. Copy drawn figures of varying size and shape d. Orientation to time, person and place
A. Discuss how two objects are similar
178
The following are characteristics of the right hemisphere of the brain EXCEPT: a. Process information in a holistic manner b. Hand-eye coordination c. Produce written and spoken language d. Artistic abilities
C. Produce written and spoken language
179
A sports PT is tasked to prescreen athletes to identify who are susceptible to heat illness. Which of these elements would be MOST useful to the project? a. Flexibility b. Height c. Percent body fat d. Weight
C. Percent body fat
180
A 36-year-old fast food delivery crew got involved in a motorcycle accident. He sustained an injury to the posterior cord of the brachial plexus. Which muscle would not be affected by the injury? a. Latissimus dorsi b. Infraspinatus c. Teres major d. Subscapularis
B. Infraspinatus
181
The use of hyperbaric oxygen in treating chronic dermal wounds is more useful in: a. wounds from insect bites b. arterial insufficiency ulcers c. venous insufficiency ulcers d. burn wounds
c. venous insufficiency ulcers
182
The following are Bobath's concepts of muscular weakness, EXCEPT: a. sensory deficit cannot result in weakness b. weakness is due to being relatively overcome by spastic antagonistic muscles c. a muscle may be weak only as a prime mover but "strong" whenever an abnormal mass movement pattern occurs d. soft tissue periarticular contraction can enhance or stimulate weakness
a. sensory deficit cannot result in weakness
183
A short-term goal for a patient with a neurological deficit is as follows: The patient will transfer from tall kneeling to half kneeling with supervision. This activity is an example of: a. controllled mobility b. skill c. mobility d. stability
a. controllled mobility
184
Which PNF pattern has the patient "hold" in that part of the range where weakness exists? a. contract-relax b. slow reversal c. rhythmic stabilization d. approximation
c. rhythmic stabilization
185
A PT measures a patient for a wheelchair. Which measurement technique is used to determine armrest height in a wheelchair? a. femur to radial head distance b. seat to anterior superior iliac spine c. seat to olecranon process d. elbow to acromion process
c. seat to olecranon process
186
Crutches for an elderly hip fracture patient might differ from those for the young paraplegic patient of the same height in that: a.they would have suction tips for greater safety b. there would be no more padding at the axillary piece c.they would be shorter d. the hand piece would be lower
a.they would have suction tips for greater safety
187
A PT is performing a respiratory evaluation including the following test: respiratory rate, blood pressure, pulse and measurement of chest expansion. A normal measurement of difference between the rest eriod and full expansion over the xiphoid process is: a.1 1/2 inches b.1 inches c.2 inches d.2 1/2 inches
a.1 1/2 inches
188
A PT is performing segmental breathing exercises with a patient follwing atelectasis. When implementing manual control, the MOST appropriate technique to emphasize lingual expansion is when the hands are placed a.below the clavicle on the anterior chest wall b.on the right side of the chest below the axilla c.over the posterior aspect of the lower ribs d.on the left side of the chest below the axilla
d.on the left side of the chest below the axilla
189
A patient who sustained CVA a month ago is starting to exhibit ability to produce movement patterns outside limb synergies. According to Brunnstrom, this is in the stage of recovery. a.fourth b.fifth c.third d.second
a.fourth
190
Criteria that can be used to assess motor learning include all of the following, EXCEPT: a.ability to remember response-produced augmented feedback b.resistance to contextual change c.performance acquisition of a motor task d.retention-recall of a motor task after a period of no practice
a.ability to remember response-produced augmented feedback
191
A PT teaches a patient in supine to posteriorly tilt pelvis. The patient has full active and passive range of motion in the upper extremity but cannot do full shoulder flexion while in posterior pelvic tilt position. What could be the BEST explanation for this? a.Latissiumus dorsi tightness b.Capsular tightness c.Quadratus lumborum tightness d.Pectoralis minor tightness
a.Latissiumus dorsi tightness
192
A PT is working on a male inpatient on therapeutic positioning. Due to financial problems, he was referred to PT only recently. The patient has developed significant weakness of the diaphragm and is hypertensive. The MOST appropriate patient position to initial treatment is: a.prone b.trendelenburg c.reverse trendelenburg d.supine
c.reverse trendelenburg
193
A PT should have adequate understanding of the normal development of the human body to treat effectively and efficiently. Which of the following principles is INCORRECT? a.early motor activity is influenced primarily by reflexes b.motor control develops from proximal to distal and from head to toe c.early motor activity is influenced by spontaneous activity d.increasing motor ability is independent of motor learning
d.increasing motor ability is independent of motor learning
194
When comparing the gait cycle of young adults with the gait cylce of the older adults, the TRUE statement is: a.The younger population has a shorter period of double support b.The younger population has a shorter stride length c.The younger population has a decrease in speed of ambulation d.The younger population has a shorter step length
a.The younger population has a shorter period of double support
195
_______ is issued to a PT who passes the board examination, after approval of his ratings and payment of required fees. a.Diploma from the Board Examiners b.Certificate of recognition for passing the board examinations c.Certificate of Completion d.Certification of Registration
d.Certification of Registration
196
For a research study to be ethical, which of the following should take place FIRST? a.patient should be informed that he has the right to terminate the experiment at any time b.end results of the experiment should be explained to the patients c.have patient sign the informed consent document d.patient should be debriefed following the experiment
c.have patient sign the informed consent document
197
The CORRECT technique in stretching the iliotibial band is: a.patient is positioned in sidelying on the uninvolved side. The uppermost thigh is adducted with the hip in 90 degrees flexion b.patient is positioned in sidelying on the uninvolved side close to the edge of the table. Externally rotate and extend the involved thigh and allow a gravity assisted stretch. c.all of these d.patient is positioned in hook lying with the uninvolved leg crossed over the leg to be stretched. The involved leg is adducted with gentle isometric abduction contraction
b.patient is positioned in sidelying on the uninvolved side close to the edge of the table. Externally rotate and extend the involved thigh and allow a gravity assisted stretch
198
A patient status medial meniscus repair is referred to PT. The responsibility of the physician post operatively is: a.determine weight bearing status b.select an appropriate resistive exercise program c.specific the frequency and duration of ROM exercises d.specify the parameter for superficial modality application
a.determine weight bearing status
199
When doing range of motion exercises with a patient who suffered a head injury, a PT notes that the patient lacks full elbow extension and classifies the end-feel as hard. The MOST LIKELY casue is: a.anterior capsular tightness b.triceps weaken c.heterotrophic ossification d.spasticity of the biceps
c.heterotrophic ossification
200
A licensed physical therapist may append the following initials after his/her name. a.RPT b.LPT c.PTRP d.PTR
c.PTRP
201
A 65-year old former banker with mild dementia is included in a national study teasing of efficacy of a new drug to increase memory. The patient's family reports that he is perky while taking the medication and memory seem to be better. At the conclusion of the study, it is revealed tha the patient was part of the control group. These responses are MOST LIKELY due to: a.Hawthorne's effect b.Sampling bias c.Placebo effect d.Pretest treatment interference
c.Placebo effect
202
At what phase of gait cycle would a PT expect to notice an everted posture of the calcaneus a.terminal stance (heel off) to pre swing (toe off) b.from midstance through heel off (toe off) c.from initial contact (heel strike) through loading response (foot-flat) d.initial swing (acceleration) through midswing
c.from initial contact (heel strike) through loading response (foot-flat)
203
Patient is suffering from complete paralysis of the gluteus maximus. To compensate during the stance phase of the gait cycle, teh patient will exhibit: a.external tibial torsion at heel strike b.increased plantarflexion c.hyperextension of the spine d.maintenance of knee flexion
c.hyperextension of the spine
204
A patient fatugues early while performing progresive resistive exercises. Which of the following exercise techniques will produce LESS fatigue? a.Oxford b.De Lorme c.Brandon d.Borg
a.Oxford
205
Which is NOT a characteristic of isometric exercise? a.contractions should be held for at least 12 seconds to obtain adaptive changes in muscle b.occurs when a muscle contracts without a length change c.resistance is variable and accomodating d.strengthening is developed at a point in the range, not over entire length of muscles
a.contractions should be held for at least 12 seconds to obtain adaptive changes in muscle
206
Which of these statements on the center of boutancy should NOT be considered when designing a pool program for a patient who underwent a below knee amputation? a.In the vertical position, posteriorly placed buoyancy devices will cause the patient to lean backward, anterior bouyancy will cause the patient to lean forward b.A patient with a unilateral lower extremity amputation will lean toward the residual limb side in a vertical position c.During unilateral manual resistance exercises the patient revolves around the therapist in a circular motion d.In the vertical position, the human center of buoyancy is located at the sternum
a.In the vertical position, posteriorly placed buoyancy devices will cause the patient to lean backward, anterior bouyancy will cause the patient to lean forward
207
The major advantage of using red-glass in heat lamp is __________. a.there is less light glare b.it filters out long infrared rays c.it increases the physiological effects of radiation d.it filters out harmful ultraviolet rays
a.there is less light glare
208
A patient has difficulty going down ramps. His knees wobble and are unsteady. The action to take is: a.prolonged icing to reduce hamstring pain b.progressive resistance trianing for the quadriceps c.stretching thru posterior resting splint for tight plantarflexors d.continuous passive movement machine to keep the range
b.progressive resistance trianing for the quadriceps
209
The MOST effective energy utilization takes place in _______ contraction. a.eccentric b.isometric c.concentric d.isokinetic
a.eccentric
210
Patient can only reach 60 degrees of passive straight leg raising. To improve the range of motion, the hold-relax technique should be applied to a.adductors and hip extensors b.quadriceps and hip flexors c.abductors and hip flexion d.hamstrings and hip extensors
d.hamstrings and hip extensors
211
A patient recently admitted to an acute care hospital is referred to physical therapy. The PT documents the following clinical signs: pallor, cyanosis, and cool skin. These clinical signs are MOST consistent with ____. a.Hypertension b.Anemia c.Diaphoresis d.Cor pulmonale
b.Anemia
212
In electrotherapy, if the peak pulse duration in high voltage generators ranges from 50-100 usec, for low voltage generators it is _____ msec. a.600-800 b.01-02 c.900-950 d..03-500
d..03-500
213
Pt applies ultraviolet treatment to a female patient who the day after complained of peeling and itching. These disappear after 3 days. The dosage received was __ dose. aMinimal erythemal b.First degree erythemal c.Suberythemal d.Third degree erythemal
b.First degree erythemal
214
A PT applies 3.0 MHz ultrasound at 1.5 w/cm2 to treat a patient with Carpal Tunnel Syndrome. Majority of the ultrasound energy will be absorbed within a depth of ____ centimeters. a. 4-5 b. 1-2 c. 5-6 d. 2-3
b. 1-2
215
According to the temperature law of Vant Hoff for every rise of 10 degrees C the rate of oxidation is increased how many times? a. Once b. 2.5 c. 3 d. Twice
b. 2.5
216
These statements on reflex heating are TRUE EXCEPT: a. it is also termed consensual heating and Landis Gibbon's Reflex b. the effect is felt after several hours c. it is useful for patients with circulatory problems such as diabetes or peripheral vasuclar disease d. the technique involves the application of heat to one area of the body that results in an increase in cutaneous circulation and other reactions in another area
b. the effect is felt after several hours
217
A patient who was in cast for 3 weeks after a grade III left ankle sprain was referred to PT for mobility exercises. Evaluation shows a loss of 10 degrees of dorsiflexion. The MOST difficult activity for this patient is: a. ambulating barefoot b. ambulating over rough surfaces c. descending a ramp d. descending stairs
d. descending stairs
218
An 82 y.o. female is referred to PT for pain in the left sacroiliac joint. Initial evaluation reveals the following: higher left ASIS than right ASIS. shorter leg length on the left side (measured in supine position) and the left PSIS lower than the right PSIS. In what position should you place patient to perform the correct sacroiliac mobilization of the left innomate? a. Supine b. Prone c. None of these d. Right sidelying
c. None of these
219
A PT treats a 40 y.o. male status post knee surgery. The PT performs goniometric measurements to quanitify the extent of the patient's extension lag. Which of the following would not provide a plausible rationale for the extension lag? a. Muscle weakness b. Inhibition by pain c. Patient apprehension d. Bony obstruction
d. Bony obstruction
220
A sports PT was conducting evaluation of female varsity volleybal players. One of them complained of a chronic right knee pain and recurrent effusion. The PT performed an apprehension test and patient immediately grimaced and contracted her quadriceps maximally. The PT would suspect the presence of: a. chondromalacia patella b. internal knee derangement c. recurrent patellar dislocation d. rheumatoid arthritis
c. recurrent patellar dislocation
221
During 180 degrees of abduction in the scapulohumerl rhythm, there is roughly a ratio of movement of the humerus to the scapula a. 2:1 b. 1:1 c. 1:3 d. 1:2
a. 2:1
222
When utilizing the skinfold measurement procedure to check body composition, the following guidelines are followed, EXCEPT: a. wait one to two seconds before reading the caliper b. skinfold calipers should be positioned one centimeter away from the examiner's fingers when pinching the side, positioned perpendicular to the skinfold and centered between the base and top of the fold c. take only one measurement at each site d. maintain pinching of the site during the reading of the caliper
c. take only one measurement at each site
223
Which test of aerobic capacity is a reliable and valid functional capacity measure with reported minimal detectable change scores in patients with heart failure? a. Canadian Aerobic Fitness Step test b. 6 Minute Walk Test c. Bruce protocol treadmill test d. Lower extremity ergometer test
b. 6 Minute Walk Test
224
When reduction of weight transmission through the lower limb is desired, the ideal weight bearing device is ___. a. Ischial ring b. Quadrilateral socket c. Patellar tendon bearing d. Any of these
d. Any of these
225
In a normal gait, the stance phase usually takes up approximately ___ percent of the pattern. a. 40 b. 20 c. 80 d. 60
d. 60
226
Herzberg's Two Factor Motivation Theory includes which of the following a. responsibility and growth b. advanceent and promotion c. longer work hours and increased work load d. satisfies and dissatisfies
d. satisfies and dissatisfies
227
If a patient presents with the following symptoms: hoarse wheezes and altered breath sounds and may be clubbing at the fingers, may be short of breath and fatigue and a large quantity of pus-filled sputum that may also contain blood, you will entertain the presence of _____. a. chornic bronchitis b. emphysema c. asthma d. bronchiectasis
d. bronchiectasis
228
The parents of a child with cerebral palsy offers the PT a cash gift. He refuses but family insists saying it is their way of saying thank you for the services he has rendered. The PT's BEST response is to ____. a. accept money and use it to buy small needs for the PT deparment b. accept money and use it to set up a feeding program c. decline the gift d. accept money and donate to charity
c. decline the gift
229
While doing postural screening for a patient referred for low back pain, PT notices that the knees are in genu recurvatum. The possible contributory postures include _____. a. forefoot varus and posterior pelvic tilt b. ankle dorsiflexion and hip abduction c. lateral tibial torsion and anterior pelvic tilt d. ankle plantarflexion and anterior pelvic tilt
d. ankle plantarflexion and anterior pelvic tilt
230
A study of a local community population was necessary to determine the need for a Senior's Day care center in the area. The PT performing the stuyd divided the population by sex and selected a random sample for each group. This is an example of what type of sampling? a. stratified random sample b. random cluster sample c. systematic random sample d. two stage cluster sample
a. stratified random sample
231
The following are contraindications of traction, EXCEPT: a. vascular condition b. patients with subacute state of degenerative joint disease c. hypermobility d. local and systemic disease affecting joints, ligaments, bones and muscles such as tumors and infections
b. patients with subacute state of degenerative joint disease
232
World Health Organization defines this term as abnormalities of anatomical, physiological or psychological origin within specific organs or systems of the body a. functional limitation b. handicap c. functional disability d. impairment
d. impairment
233
A 75 y.o. female was referred to PT for a fall risk assessment. Patient fell twice at home. If patient's timed up and go (TGU) score is 33 seconds, her fall risk is: a. moderate, based on a mildly abnormal score b. low, based on a midly abnormal score c. high, based on an abnormal score d. moderate, based on poor sensory adaptation response
c. high, based on an abnormal score
234
A PT is treating a 1 y.o. child with Down Syndrome at home and noted decreasing strength in the extremities, with neck pain and limited neck motion. Upper extremity deep tendon reflexes are 3+. The PT thinks it is: a. lower motor neuron signs consistent with Down Syndrome b. upper motor neuron signs consistent with Down Syndrome c. Atlanto-axilla subluxation with lemniscal impingement d. Atlanto-axilla subluxation with spinal cord impingement
d. Atlanto-axilla subluxation with spinal cord impingement
235
A PT received a referral for a patient behaving like an autistic child. During evaluation, what is the MOST pertinent factor that can be observed in the patient? a. Defensive when touched b. responsive to most but not all commands c. quiet and did not want to separate from the mother d. Adelayed in gross motor skills
a. Defensive when touched
236
A 15 y.o. grade 10 female was being evaluated for scoliosis. On standing, a right thoracolumbar curve was present but when seated the curve disappears. The MOST LIKELY cause of this is _____. a. short iliopsoas muscle b. lumbar facet dysfunction c. leg length discrepancy d. unilaterally weak gluteus medius
c. leg length discrepancy
237
A PT conducts an upper quarter screening evaluation of a patient with rotator cuff tendonitis. With the patient sitting, the MOST appropriate technique to facilitate palpation of the rotator cuff is a. passive abducton of the humerus b. passive extension of the humerus c. active medial and lateral rotation of the humerus d. active extension and flexion of the elbow
b. passive extension of the humerus
238
The PT manager of a big rehabilitation center is insistent about conducting a bimonthly meeting to solve the problem of declining productivity. In the meantime, he turns his back on the increased load placed on managerial grid, the BEST classification of this manager is a. 9.1 b. 9.9 c. 1.9 d. 5.5
a. 9.1
239
During an exercise session, the mother of a 15 y.o. patient was making inappropriate comments that upset the patient and made her lose her cool. The MOST appropriate action for the PT to take is a. ask mother to wait at the reception area b. give patient a 15 minute break c. ask another PT to treat the pt. d. discontinue treatment
a. ask mother to wait at the reception area
240
A patient presents with a vague hip pain that radiates to the lateral knee, a negative FABERES test, negative Grind test and a positive Noble's compression test. A possible cause can be a. irritation of the L5 spinal nerve root b. DJD of the hip c. an iliotibial band friction disorder d. SI joint dysfunction
c. an iliotibial band friction disorder
241
While performing a finger to nose test, a patient demonstrates hesitancy in getting start and is then unable to control the movement. The moving finger hits the side of the face and misses the nose completely. These findings are consistent with moderate impairment in: a. Response orientation b. Dysmetria c. Dyssynergia d. Dysdiadochokinesia
b. Dysmetria
242
A study was made to determine the need for a new wellness center in the community. The population was divided by sex and random sampling was selected from each group. This is an example of a. Random cluster b. Stratified random c. Two stage cluster d. Systematic random
b. Stratified Random
243
The test for the presence peripheral arterial involvement in patient with calf musculature pain is: a. Percussion test b. Homan's sign c. Claudication time d. Blood pressure
c. Claudication time
244
A 220-month-old child with Down Syndrome and moderate developmental delay is being treated at an early intervention program. Daily training activities that should be considered include a. Locomotor training using motorized treatment b. Holding and weight shifting in sitting and standing using tactile and verbal cueing c. Rolling activities d. Stimulation to postural extensors in sitting using rhythmic stabilization
b. Holding and weight shifting in sitting and standing using tactile and verbal cueing
245
While performing a postural screening for chronic pain, the PT notices excessive internal rotation of the shoulders and winging of the scapula during overhead motion. Treatment should concentrate on strengthening of the: a. Upper trapezius and stretching of pectoral muscles b. Middle and lower trapezius and stretching of pectoral muscles c. Rhomboids and stretching of upper trapezius d. Pectoral muscles and stretching of upper trapezius
b. Middle and lower trapezius and stretching of pectoral muscles
246
A patient has chronic pulmonary disease. A contraindication to starting extremity joint mobilization is a. Reflex muscle guarding b. Long term corticosteroid therapy c. Concurrent inhalation therapy d. Function chest wall immobility
b. Long term corticosteroid therapy
247
A 68-year-old male patient with a 10-year history of diabetes complains of cramping, pain, fatigue of the left buttock after walking 500 feet or climbing the stairs. Pain is relieved during rest. The skin of the involved leg is pale and slightly cold. These symptoms point to a. Raynaud's phenomenon b. Spinal root impingement c. Peripheral arterial disease d. Peripheral nerve injury
c. Peripheral arterial disease
248
A 68-year-old male patient has an irregular dark pigmented ulcer over the medial malleolus. Patient did not complain of pain. These symptoms are consistent with an/a a. Arterial ulcer b. Diabetic ulcer c. Venous ulcer d. Arterial insufficiency
c. Venous ulcer
249
A PT attempts to assess the integrity of cranial nerve XI. The test that would provide the PT with desired information is a. Patient reads selected items from a chart b. Patient is asked to identify odors with eyes closed c. Patient performs a shoulder shrug against resistance d. Patient protrudes tongue while PT checks for lateral deviation
c. Patient performs a shoulder shrug against resistance
250
Because of the complex vascularity of this artery system, severe impairment can cause locked in syndrome, coma or vegetative state and Wallenburg syndrome which presents with I/L facial pain, I/L ataxia and vertigo a. Anterior cerebral b. Posterior cerebral c. Middle cerebral d. Vertebral basilar
d. Vertebral basilar
251
Which of the statements about developmental motor control is NOT TRUE? a. Isotonic control develops before isometric control b. Gross motor control develops prior to fine motor control c. Eccentric movement develops prior to concentric movement d. Trunk control develops prior to distal extremity control.
a. Isotonic control develops before isometric control
252
A PT is evaluating a 76-year-old female with chronic forward head posturing in standing and sitting. To decrease the forward beading, the PT should stretch the a. Longus capitis and longus colli muscles b. Rectus capitis posterior minor and rectus capitis posterior major muscles c. Rectus capitis anterior muscle d. Middle trapezius and rhomboid muscles
b. Rectus capitis posterior minor and rectus capitis posterior major muscles
253
A PT is evaluating a 50-year-old male patient who underwent a total knee arthroplasty 2 weeks ago. PT noticed that the entire leg has started swelling. There is pitting edema throughout the lower leg and foot with tenderness in the midcalf. Girth measurement showed a 3.7 increase in the size of the midcalf. What is the NEXT step that the PT should take? a. Call physician after treatment to report result of evaluation b. Send patient to the emergency room right away c.Elevate the affected extremity d. Send patient home with instruction to monitor the affected extremity
b. Send patient to the emergency room right away
254
254. A 60-year-old male patient was referred to PT for an exercise testing after experiencing shortness of breath twice 2 weeks prior to consultation. After monitoring the vital signs, the data collected are interpreted. The BEST indicator that patient had exerted maximal effort is a. Decrease in diastolic BP of mmHg when compared to the resting value b. Rating of 12 on a perceived exertion scale c. Failure of the heart rate to increase with further increase in intensity d. Rise in systolic diastolic BP of 50 mmHg when compared to the resting value
c. Failure of the heart rate to increase with further increase in intensity
255
A PT checks the water temperature of the hot pack machine after several patients report the heat being very strong Which of the following temperatures would be acceptable? a.83 degrees Celsius (181 degrees F) b. 64 degrees Celsius (147 degrees F) c.94 degrees Celsius (201 degrees F) d. 71 degrees Celsius (160 degrees F)
d. 71 degrees Celsius (160 degrees F)
256
Erb's Law states that a. All of these b. Opening currents are more effective than closing currents in causing normal depolarization c. Cathode currents are more effective than anodal in causing normal depolarization d. Less current is necessary to produce minimum contraction with cathode than anodal closing current
c. Cathode currents are more effective than anodal in causing normal depolarization
257
In the reeducation and facilitation of muscles, electrical stimulation is used as a guide to improve proprioceptive and visual sense of the motions and activities being facilitated. When bipolar electrodes are placed over the large muscles or muscle groups, you select the following parameters, EXCEPT: a. waveform: symmetrical or asymmetrical biphasic pulses with a duration of 200-500 microseconds b. stimulus amplitude: amplitude adjusted to maximum tolerable contraction c. duty cycle: 1:1 cycle to produce rhythmical muscle contractions d. pulse rate: lesser than 60 pps biphasic pulses to produce tetanic muscle contractions
d. pulse rate: lesser than 60 pps biphasic pulses to produce tetanic muscle contractions
258
A 65-year-old with breast cancer underwent a surgical removal of the mass followed by 12 weeks of chemotherapy and 8 weeks of radiation. PT program is directed towards mobilization of her upper extremity. An important quideline to the PT when treating a patient after radiation is a. avoid stretching exercises that pull on the radiated site b. observe infection control procedures c. avoid all aerobic exercises for at least 2 months d. observe skin care precautions
d. observe skin care precautions
259
Pulsed ultrasound is applied to a patient diagnosed with rotator cuff tendonitis. The statement about pulsed ultrasound that is MOST consistent when compared with continuous ultrasound is: a. The peak intensity of output for pulsed ultrasounc is reduced b. The average intensity of output over time for pulsed ultrasound is reduced c.The peak intensity of output for pulsed ultrasound is increased d. The average intensity of output over time for pulsed ultrasound is increased
b. The average intensity of output over time for pulsed ultrasound is reduced
260
A PT employee of a rehabilitation center of a hospital evaluates a patient showing several signs and symptoms of anemia Which of these questions would be the MOST useful to gather additional information in relation to anemia? a. Does it hurt to take a deep breath? b. Are you susceptible to bruising? c. Do you frequently experience dizziness, headaches or blurred vision? d. Do you experience heart palpations or shortness of breath at rest or with mild exertion?
d. Do you experience heart palpations or shortness of breath at rest or with mild exertion?
261
A patient was referred to PT with fingertips that are rounded and bulbous. The nail plate is more convex than normal. These changes were considered by the PT as indicating ________ a. Trauma to the nail bed b. Inflammation of the proximal and lateral nail folds c. Psoriasis d. Chronic hypoxia from heart disease
d. Chronic hypoxia from heart disease
262
Many of the patients seen in physical therapy are susceptible to excessive heat exposure. Heat exhaustion occurs when a person is exposed to more heat than the thermoregulatory mechanisms are capable of controlling. Although it rarely occurs in pure forms, it can be categorized as any of the following EXCEPT ______ heat exhaustion a. Exercise induced (heat syncope) b. Salt exhaustion c. Protein depletion d. Water depletion
c. Protein depletion
263
A patient with a left sided congestive heart failure, class II, is referred to PT. while exercising, patient may exhibit a. Weight gain with dependent edema b. Anorexia, nausea with abdominal pain and distension c. Severe, uncomfortable chest pain with shortness d. Dyspnea with fatigue and muscular weakness
d. Dyspnea with fatigue and muscular weakness
264
A traumatic brain injured patient reports to physical therapy feeling lethargic after being placed on phenobarbital. The primary purpose of the medication is to: a. Prevent seizures b. Reduce spasticity c. Limit arrythmias d. Decrease agitation
a. Prevent seizures
265
A post-MI patient is about to begin phase 3 cardiac rehabilitation. During the initial exercise session, the patient’s ECG responses are monitored via radio telemetry. PT noticed three PVCs occurring in a run with no P wave. PT’s next strategy is: a. Have the patient sit down and rest for a few minutes before resuming exercise b. Stop the exercise and notify the physician immediately c. Continue the exercise session but monitor closely d. Modify the exercise prescription by decreasing the intensity
b. Stop the exercise and notify the physician immediately
266
A 75-year-old frail female is being treated at home for general strengthening and mobility. The patient has a 5-year history of taking NSAIDs such as aspirin for joint pain and recently added calcium channel blockers. The possible adverse reactions/side effects include: a. Weight increase, hyperglycemia, hypotension b. Stomach pain, bruising, confusion c. Paresthesia, incoordination, bradycardia d. Increased sweating, fatigue, chest pain
b. Stomach pain, bruising, confusion
267
To reduce inflammation of the tracheobronchial mucosa in asthma, COPD, and sarcoidosis, steroids are often prescribed. Which of these is not a side effect of steroid therapy? a. Increased susceptibility to infection b. Decrease in BP c. Tachycardia d. Osteoporosis
b. Decrease in BP
268
An infant is independent in sitting. All protective extension reactions and can pull-to-stand through kneeling, cruise sideways, and stand alone. The infant still demonstrates plantar grasp in standing. The infant’s chronological age is: a. 5 months b. 8–9 months c. 10–15 months d. 6 months
b. 8–9 months
269
An infant who was thirty-three weeks gestation age at birth and is now 3 weeks of chronological age would best respond to: a. Neutral warmth b. Fast vestibular stimulation c. Visual stimulation with a colored object d. Vibration
a. Neutral warmth
270
If a child exhibits emerging hand dominance, has crude release, can seat self in chair, and walk backward, he is: a. 2 years old b. 10 months old c. 14 months old d. 18 months old
d. 18 months
271
Which test is done when a PT suspects an unreduced anterior shoulder dislocation? The patient is asked to place the hand on the opposite shoulder and then attempts to lower the elbow to the chest. a. Sulcus sign b. Feagin test c. Dugas test d. Protzman
c. Dugas test
272
A test to determine if there are loose bodies in the knee joint is called: a. McMurray’s test b. Patello-femoral test c. Valgus/varus stress test d. Apley’s test
a. McMurray's test
273
A positive Kleiger’s test indicates: a. Deltoid ligament tear b. Achilles tendon rupture c. Flatfoot d. Tibiotalar dislocation
a. Deltoid ligament tear
274
A PT is treating a patient with a behavior pattern involving his speech. There is absence of spontaneous speech but prompt repetition of your words. The type of aphasia most likely present in this patient is: a. Transcortical motor b. Transcortical sensory c. Conduction d. Wernicke’s
a. Transcortical motor
275
Choose a form of resistance seen during range of motion of a hypertonic joint where there is greatest resistance at the initiation of range that lessens with movement through the range of motion. a. Clasp-knife response b. Hemiballism c. Clonus d. Cogwheel rigidity
a. Clasp-knife response
276
A patient who has been diabetic for more than 20 years has vascular insufficiency and diminished sensation of both feet with poor healing of superficial skin lesions. It is essential that the patient understand precautions and guidelines on foot care. Which of these is a contraindication to diabetic care? a. Wash feet daily and hydrate with moisturizing lotion b. Inspect skin daily for inflammation, swelling, redness, blisters, or wounds c. Do daily hot soaks d. Wear flexible shoes that allow adequate room and change shoes frequently
c. Do daily hot soacks
277
A PT is preparing a 45-year-old female patient for treatment. The latter asked if she could go to the comfort room. After several minutes, PT checked and found the patient slumped on the floor face down. The appropriate course of action the PT should take is: a. Check level of response, call for help, establish airway, and assess breathing b. Check level of response, call for help, assess breathing, and establish airway c. Call for help, check level of response, breathing, and establish airway d. Call for help, check level of response, establish airway, and assess breathing
a. Check level of response, call for help, establish airway, and assess breathing
278
A 63-year-old male CVA patient was applied functional electrical stimulation on the affected ankle dorsiflexors in conjunction with gait training. The rationale for the application of FES in this case is: a. To promote substituting actions b. Used as an orthotic device c. To delay muscle atrophy d. To facilitate muscle tone
b. Used as an orthotic device
279
On initial standing, a patient with a chronic stroke is pushing strongly backward, displacing the center of mass at or near the posterior limits of stability. The most likely cause of this is: a. Contraction of the hip extensors b. Contracture of the hamstrings c. Spasticity of the tibialis anterior d. Spasticity of the gastrocnemius soleus
d. Spasticity of the gastrocnemius soleus
280
The following impairments may result in patients with a lesion in the temporal lobe of the brain EXCEPT: a. Emotional lability b. Difficulty with memory loss c. Wernicke’s aphasia d. Learning deficits
a. Emotional lability
281
A newborn with whole arm paralysis resulting from a traction injury at birth was referred for physical therapy. The initial plan of care for the patient should include: a. Passive mobilization of the shoulder in overhead motions b. Age-appropriate task training of the upper extremity c. Splinting the shoulder in abduction and internal rotation d. Partial immobilization of the limb across the abdomen, followed by gentle ROM after immobilization
d. Partial immobilization of the limb across the abdomen, followed by gentle ROM after immobilization
282
A 65-year-old male with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) was referred to PT. Pulmonary testing reveals that forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) and vital capacity (VC) are within 60% of predicted values. What is the correct exercise prescription? a. Exercise at 75–80% of the target heart rate, 7 times per week b. Exercise at 75–80% of the target heart rate, 3 times per week c. Begin exercise with levels of 1.5 METs and increase slowly, 7 times per week d. Begin exercise with levels of 1.5 METs and exercise slowly, 3 times per week
c. Begin exercise with levels of 1.5 METs and increase slowly, 7 times per week
283
A female patient with a 10-year history of scleroderma is referred to PT to improve function and endurance. She was recently treated with corticosteroids for a bout of myositis. Evaluation shows limited ROM and fibrotic soft tissue with hyperesthesia. The MOST essential strategy in the beginning is: a. Treadmill walking with body weight support at intensity 40 percent HR max b. Closed-chain and modified aerobic step exercises c. Soft tissue mobilization and stretching d. AROM exercises and walking in the pool
d. AROM exercises and walking in the pool
284
A postpartum patient with stress incontinence is referred to the clinic for pelvic floor exercises. During the beginning of the exercise program, the BEST technique should include: a. Supine, squeeze the sphincters and hold for 3 seconds b. Hooklying, bridge and hold for 5 seconds c. Supine, squeeze sphincters and hold for 10 seconds d. Sitting in toilet bowl, stop and hold the flow for 5 seconds
d. Sitting in toilet bowl, stop and hold the flow for 5 seconds
285
The recommended time duration for endotracheal suctioning is ______ seconds. a. 10–15 b. 1–5 c. 5–10 d. 15–20
a. 10–15
286
A patient is not able to take in enough supply of nutrients by mouth because of the side effects of radiation therapy. Because of this, the physician ordered the implementation of tube feeding. What type of tube is MOST commonly used for short-term feeding? a. Endotracheal b. Endobronchial c. Nasogastric d. Tracheostomy
c. Nasogastric
287
Republic Act 5680 mandates that the Board of PT-OT should be composed of: a. A PT as Chairman, 2 Physiatrists and 2 OTS b. A PT as Chairman, 1 Physiatrist and 1 OT c. A Physiatrist as Chairman, 1 PT and 1 OT d. A Physiatrist as Chairman, 2 PTs and 2 OTs
d. A Physiatrist as Chairman, 2 PTs and 2 OTs
288
Schematic drawings on the construction of a PT department should include: a. All of these b. Actual size of each department section c. Arrangement of various major elements of the department depicting an orderly traffic flow in the department d. Very detailed arrangement of the fixed and non-fixed equipment
c. Arrangement of various major elements of the department depicting an orderly traffic flow in the department
289
What is the test for anterior meniscus pathology and also termed the “tenderness displacement test”? a. Apley’s b. Steinmann’s c. McMurray’s d. Lachman’s
b. Steinmann's
290
This is a tool to assess and treat balance dysfunction but does not assist to diagnose the cause of balance dysfunction. It consists of eight test conditions used in the battery with each leg measured on two counts, the time spent in each test position and the number of steps that a patient performs. a. Functional Reach b. Berg Balance Scale c. Fugl Meyer Sensory Assessment d. Fregley Graybiel Ataxia Test Battery
d. Fregley Graybiel Ataxia Test Battery
291
The functional outcome reporting method of writing notes must be: a. Meaningful, quantifiable, sustainable b. Sustainable, simple, quantifiable c. Meaningful, utilitarian, sustainable d. Utilitarian, meaningful, quantifiable
c. Meaningful, utilitarian, sustainable
292
This is a test for epicondylitis where the patient is positioned in sitting. The therapist palpates the lateral epicondyle, pronates the patient’s forearm, flexes the wrist and extends the elbow. A positive test is indicated by pain in the lateral epicondyle region and may be indicative of lateral epicondylitis. a. Mill’s b. Lateral epicondylitis test c. Medial epicondylitis test d. Cozen’s
a. Mill's
293
This is a test associated with a pars interarticularis stress fracture or spondylolisthesis. The patient stands on one leg and extends the spine while balancing on the left. The test is repeated with the patient standing on the opposite leg. A positive test is indicated by pain in the back. a. Segmental instability b. Stork standing c. Pheasant d. Quadrant
b. Stork standing
294
A 58-year-old female is recovering from a surgical resection of an acoustic neuroma and presents with symptoms of dizziness, vertigo, horizontal nystagmus and postural instability. To manage these problems, the program should include: a. Strengthening exercises focusing on spinal extensors b. Repetition of movements and positions that provoke dizziness and vertigo c. Hallpike’s exercises to improve speed in movement transitions d. Prolonged bedrest to allow vestibular recovery to occur
b. Repetition of movements and positions that provoke dizziness and vertigo
295
What is the FIRST step in controlling organizational behavior in a PT Department? a. Establish system of measuring performance b. Develop system of review c. Determine types of jobs and skills needed d. Monitor performance and provide feedback
c. Determine types of jobs and skills needed
296
PT is conducting an exercise class for geriatrics. Below, which would be of LEAST benefit among the exercises the participant? a. Active neck extension b. Active stretching of the pectoral muscles c. Active neck flexion d. Active hip extension
c. Active neck flexion
297
Froment’s sign is a test used to determine function of the: a. Ulnar b. Axillary c. Median d. Radial
a. Ulnar
298
PT was referred a patient with vague hip pain that radiates to the lateral knee. The findings include: negative FABERE test, negative grind test and a positive Noble’s compression test. These test results MOST LIKELY point to: a. DJD of the hip b. Irritation of the L5 spinal nerve root c. An iliotibial band friction disorder d. SI joint dysfunction
c. An iliotibial band friction disorder
299
A 75-year-old male patient with persistent balance difficulty and a history of recent falls (2 in the past month) is referred for evaluation and management. During the initial session, it is important to examine the: a. Level of dyspnea during functional transfers b. Sensory losses and sensory organization of balance c. Spinal musculoskeletal changes secondary to degenerative joint disease (DJD) d. Cardiovascular endurance during a 5-minute walking test
b. Sensory losses and sensory organization of balance
300
A 64-year-old female patient who underwent a minimally invasive total knee replacement was referred to PT. The referring physician stated in the chart that the patient has stage 1 Alzheimer’s disease. The PT will therefore NOT expect to find: a. Memory loss b. Anxiety and irritability c. Cannot concentrate d. Profound communication deficits
d. Profound communication deficits