MISC 3 Flashcards by Ralph Senarlo

GMFCS in children can be used until:
a. 2 years old
b. 5 years old
c. 18 years old
d. any age

C. 18 years old

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What is the most common thyroid condition of patients
with Down Syndrome?
a. Hyperthyroidism
b. Hypothyroidism

b. Hypothyroidism

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Patient insists they have a present illness despite
medical assurance that none are present. What is the
patient exhibiting?
a. Hуpochondria
b. Hypothyroidism
c. Anosognosia
d. Munchausen Syndrome

a. Hуpochondria

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MC necrosis in tuberculosis:
a. Caseous necrosis
b. Fat necrosis
с. Coagulative
d. Liquefactive necrosis

a. Caseous necrosis

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Pulse is irregular. What should you do?
a. Check the pulse in 60 seconds
b. Check the pulse in 120 seconds

a. Check the pulse in 60 seconds

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First line drug for Myasthenia Gravis:
a. Pyridostigmine
b. Tramadol

a. Pyridostigmine

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First line drug for depression:
a. SNRIs
b. SSRIs
c. Benzodiazepines

b. SSRIs

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Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor:
A. LEVODOPA
B. TRAMADOL
C. NAPROXEN
D. FLUOXETINE

D. FLUOXETINE

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No man’s land:
a. Zone I
b. Zone II
c. Zone III
d. Zone IV

b. Zone II

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A newborn is examined at birth using the APGAR test. The APGAR does NOT include:
A. HEART RATE, BLOOD PRESSURE, RESPIRATORY RATE
B. HEART RATE, RESPIRATORY RATE, COLOR
C. MUSCLE TONE, HEART RATE, REFLEX IRRITABILITY
D. REFLEXES, MUSCLE TONE, AND COLOR

A. HEART RATE, BLOOD PRESSURE, RESPIRATORY RATE

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Pivot prone:
A. 6–7
B. 8–9
C. 3–5
D. 2–3

C. 3–5

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Not seen in hypovolemic shock:
A. DEHYDRATION
B. SLOW PULSE RATE
C. LOW BLOOD PRESSURE
D. COOL SKIN
E. RAPID HEART RATE

B. SLOW PULSE RATE

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Which of the following is true about first class lever?
A. THE FULCRUM IS LOCATED BETWEEN THE EFFORT AND THE LOAD
B. THE LOAD IS POSITIONED BETWEEN THE FULCRUM AND THE EFFORT
C. THE EFFORT IS SITUATED BETWEEN THE FULCRUM AND THE LOAD
D. NONE OF THESE

A. THE FULCRUM IS LOCATED BETWEEN THE EFFORT AND THE LOAD

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Deficient neurotransmitter in Alzheimer’s disease:
A. DOPAMINE
B. NOREPINEPHRINE
C. ACETYLCHOLINE
D. SEROTONIN

C. ACETYLCHOLINE

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Rockwood classification: torn AC, sprained CC (2x):
A. TYPE I
B. TYPE II
C. TYPE III
D. TYPE IV

B. TYPE II

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Which of the FF has the highest osmotic pressure?
A. 100 MM GLUCOSE
B. 50 MM GLUCOSE
C. 100 MM CACL2
D. 50 MM CACL2

C. 100 MM CACL2

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Medication for Depression:
A. LEVODOPA
B. FLUOXETINE
C. MORPHINE
D. TRAMADOL

B. FLUOXETINE

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Degrees of pelvic rotation during gait:
A. 2
B. 6
C. 8
D. 4

C. 8

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Thumb participation in functional activities:
A. 20
B. 30
C. 40
D. 50
E. 75

C. 40

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Muscles involved in Froment’s sign:
A. ADDUCTOR POLLICIS
B. PALMAR INTEROSSEI
C. EXTENSOR POLLICIS BREVIS
D. OPPONENS POLLICIS BREVIS

A. ADDUCTOR POLLICIS

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In thumb what joint equate the MCP in the fingers:
A. CMC
B. MCP

B. MCP

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Which muscles cross more than 1 joint, EXCEPT?
A. TRICEPS
B. BICEPS
C. PRONATOR TERES
D. ANCONEUS

D. ANCONEUS

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Peripheral nerve regeneration:
A. 2–5 CM
B. 1–2 MM

B. 1–2 MM

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Hawkins Kennedy:
A. SUBACROMIAL IMPINGEMENT
B. SLAP LESION
C. FROZEN SHOULDER
D. NONE

A. SUBACROMIAL IMPINGEMENT

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Dyskinetic CP: A. DYSTONIA-ATHETOID B. RIGIDITY-SPASTICITY

A. DYSTONIA-ATHETOID

Type of cells that produces surfactant: A. Type 1 B. Type 2

B. TYPE 2

Likert scale: a. nominal b. ordinal C. ratio

B. ORDINAL

Law for radiant energy, except: a. Cosine law b. Inverse law C. Quantum d. Benson

D. BENSON

The metacarpophalangeal joint is held slightly extended while the examiner moves the proximal interphalangeal joint into flexion, if possible. If the test is positive (which is indicated by inability to flex the proximal interphalangeal joint), there is a tight intrinsic muscle or contracture of the joint capsule. If the metacarpophalangeal joints are slightly flexed, the proximal interphalangeal joint flexes fully if the intrinsic muscles are tight, but it does not flex fully if the capsule is tight. What is this special test used to test the structures around the metacarpophalangeal joint? a. Bunnel-Littler b. Finkelstein test c. Kleiger test d. Schober test

A. BUNNEL-LITTLER

A patient is referred to physical therapy after an antero-inferior dislocation of the right shoulder. What positive examination finding is expected as a result of this dislocation? (2x) a. Weak rhomboids b. Positive drop arm test c. Positive Neer's test d. Weak deltoids

D. WEAK DELTOIDS

Not a part of tendon pathology: a. Yergason b. Drop arm test c. Speed's test d. Wright test

D. WRIGHT TEST

Children hip disloc, what sign: a. Galleazi b. Abduction c. Telescoping d. Barlows

C. TELESCOPING

With the patient's elbow flexed to 90° and stabilized against the thorax and with the forearm pronated, the examiner resists supination while the patient also laterally rotates the arm against resistance. If the examiner palpates the biceps tendon in the bicipital groove during the supination and lateral rotation movement, the tendon will be felt to "pop out" of the groove if the transverse humeral ligament is torn. Tenderness in the bicipital groove alone without the dislocation may indicate bicipital paratenonitis/tendinosis. What is this special test? a. Hawkins-Kennedy b. Neer impingement test C. Yergason test d. Yocum's test e. Speed's test

C. YERGASON TEST

The mother indicates that she pulled the child from a seated position by grasping the wrists. The child then experienced immediate pain at the right elbow. The physician's orders are for right elbow range of motion and strengthening. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? a. Radial head fracture b. Nursemaid's elbow C. Erb's palsy d. Ulnar coronoid process fracture

B. NURSEMAID'S ELBOW

Redness, swelling, inflammation. What phase? a. Inflammatory b. Proliferative

A. INFLAMMATORY

Borg Scale 7 a. Very very light b. Very light c. Fairly light d. Somewhat hard e. Hard

A. VERY VERY LIGHT

Borg Scale 11 a. Very very light b. Very light c. Fairly light d. Somewhat hard e. Hard

C. FAIRLY LIGHT

Correct sequence of the stages of wound healing: I. Remodeling Il. Activation Ill. Inflammation IV. Hematoma a. I, II, III, IV b. IV, III, II, I c. I, IV, III, II d. II, III, IV, I

B. IV, III, II, I

Waiter's tip description a. C5-C6 b. C7-C8 c. C8-T1

A. C5-C6

Blood Clot in large arteries: a. Varicose veins b. Thromboembolism c. ASO

C. ASO

Muscle for frowning A. Zygomaticus B. Nasalis C. Corrugator SUpercilli

C. CORRUGATOR SUPERCILLI

Responsible for 50% rotation a. AA joint b. AO joint

A. AA JOINT

SSRI for depression (2x): A. Tramadol B. Naprozen C. Tramadol D. Fluoxetine

D. FLUOXETINE

A patient complains of difficulty walking. At rest, the skin in the lower leg appears discolored, after walking for about 2 minutes, the patient complains of pain in the leg. A marked pallor is also evident in the skin over the lower third of the extremity. The PT suspects: (2x) a. Restless leg syndrome b. Vascular claudication c. Peripheral neuropathy d. Neurogenic claudication

B. VASCULAR CLAUDICATION

The following statements describe the acromioclavicular joint EXCEPT: a. no loss of scapular rotation was apparent with acromioclavicular joint fixation b. range of motion of the scapula is equal to the sum of sternoclavicular and acromioclavicular ranges of motion. c. the joint has two axes and two degrees of freedom. It contributes 20 degrees of scapular elevation and about 20 degrees of upward rotation during full arm elevation. d. the glenoid fossa is aligned with the humeral head during shoulder flexion or abduction through small anterior and posterior movements of the acromion

C. THE JOINT HAS 2 AXES AND 2 DEGREES OF FREEDOM. IT CONTRIBUTES 20 DEGREES OF UPWARD ROTATION DURING FULL ARM ELEVATION

C5, C6 and the lateral cord receive contributions from the: a. middle trunk. b. upper trunk. c. medial cord. d. lower trunk. e. anterior cord.

A. MIDDLE TRUNK

A therapist checks the water temperature of the hot pack machine after several clients report the heat being very strong. Which of the following temperatures is acceptable? a. 190 degrees Fahrenheit b. 130 degrees Fahrenheit c. 88 degrees Celsius d. 71 degrees Celsius

D. 71 DEGREES CELSIUS

The feet slap the ground in this high stepping ataxic gait pattern. a. Tabetic b. Antalgic c. Double step d. Steppage

D. STEPPAGE

Gluteus medius is MOST active during gait at a. Swing phase b. Toe off c. Heel strike d. Midstance

D. MIDSTANCE

The stability of the wrist joint principally depends on: a. Ligaments b. Intrinsic muscles of the hand c. Capsule d. Extrinsic muscles of the hand

A. LIGAMENTS

This test will show if squeezing the calf muscle while the leg is extended ruptures the Achilles tendon. a. Thomas b. Lachman c. Thompson d. Apley e. Yergason

C. THOMPSON

A therapist assesses the ligamentous integrity of a client's knee by completing a series of special tests. The most accurate way to determine if the client's ligamentous integrity is compromised is to instruct the referring physician t order radiographs a. compare the ligamentous laxity to his family without knee pathology b. compare the ligamentous laxity to other clients in the clinic without knee pathology c. compare the ligamentous laxity in the involved knee to the uninvolved knee d. compare the millimeters of ligamentous laxity to established norms

C. COMPARE THE LIGAMENTOUS LAXITY IN THE INVOLVED KNEE TO THE UNINVOLVED KNEE

A patient is seen walking on the ball of the foot with the heel off the ground on one of his lower limbs. One can conclude that he has a. Poliomyelitis b. Pes valgus c. Pes equinus d. Genu varum

C. PES EQUINUS

Neurotransmitter for Alzheimer's: a. Dopamine b. Norepinephrine c. Acetylcholine d. Serotonin

C. ACETYLCHOLINE

Major side effects of chemotherapy: a. Alopecia b. Myelosuppression c. Nausea

B. MYELOSUPRESSION

Muscle for lat epi, except: a. ECU b. ECRB c. Supinator d. Pronator teres

D. PRONATOR TERES

Most abundant intracellular cation: a. Potassium b. Sodium c. Chloride d. Calcium

A. POTASSIUM

Sprengel's deformity, except: a. Most common congenital deformity of shoulder b. Fully developed muscle in scapula c. Shoulder asymmetry d. Eulenberg's deformity e. NOTA

B. FULLY DEVELOPED MUSCLE IN SCAPULA

Most common type of stroke ma'am a. Thrombotic b. Embolic c. Hemorrhagic d. TIA

A. THROMBOTIC

Lumbar orthosis that prevents Flexion-Extension: a. William b. Jewett c. Chairback d. Knight Taylor

C. CHAIRBACK

Correct sequence of bone healing: a. Hematoma, hard callus, soft callus, remodeling b. Hematoma, remodeling, soft callus, hard callus c. Remodeling, soft callus, hard callus, hematoma d. Hematoma, soft callus, hard callus, remodeling

D. HEMATOMA, SOFT CALLUS, HARD CALLUS, REMODELING

What type of joint is the tibiofibular joint?

PLANE SYNOVIAL JOINT

CN that innervates post tongue: a. CN 5 b. CN 7 c. CN 9 d. CN 12

C. CN IX

Carpal bones in proximal row, EXCEPT: a. Lunate b. Scaphoid c. Capitate d. Triquetrum

C. CAPITATE

Not part of stance phase: a. Initial contact b. Loading response c. Midstance d. Initial swing

D. INITIAL SWING

Pisiform & carpal bones, what type of joints? a. Gliding b. Condyloid c. Ellipsoid d. Hinge

A. GLIDING

Not part of extrapyramidal tract? a. CST b. CBT c. VST d. RST

A. CST et B. CBT

Use to measure the weight bearing: a. Scale b. Tape measure c. Antropometric

A. SCALE

After injection, hives and rash occur. a. Psoriasis b. Allergic reaction

B. ALLERGIC REACTION

Computation of Fahrenheit to Celsius

D. (F-32) /1.8

Bandage to use in shoulder pain: a. 2 inch bandage b. 4 inch bandage c. – d. Triangular bandage

D. TRIANGULAR BANDAGE

GCS: No motor response, no eye opening, no speech: a. 1 b. 2 c. 7 d. 0 e. 3

E. 3

All of the following are true about OA, except: a. Symmetrical b. Morning stiffness <30 minutes c. Usually affects weight-bearing joints d. Persistent joint pain

A. Symmetrical

Pt’s cheek is touched, and pt respond by turning their head towards the touch, opening their mouth a. Galant reflex b. Moro reflex c. Rooting reflex d. Startle reflex

C. Rooting reflex

Corset muscle: a. Rects abdominis b. Transverse abdominis

B. Transverse Abdominis

Filum terminale contains: a. Dura b. Arachnoid c. Leptomeninx

C. Leptomeninx

Stride length: a. 56 inches b. 25 inches

A. 56 inches

A patient who has Parkinson's disease has a festinating gait. What shoe orthosis should be given? a. Toe wedge b. Heel wedge

A. Toe Wedge

Wound healing: a. Direct current b. Alternating

A. Direct Healing

Following an exercise session for patients with heart failure in a Phase 3 cardiac rehabilitation program, what is prevented if the therapist employs a gradual and prolonged cool-down period? а. Exertional dyspnea b. Tachycardia C. Venous pooling d. Hypertension

C. Venous pooling

COG of triceps in UE: a. Lateral head b. Long head C. Medial head

C. Medial head

Inability to recognize written words a. Agraphia b. Agraphesthesia c. Apraxia

b. Agraphesthesia

Pt. in MVA Suffered LOC in less than 2 mins. What is the severity? a. Mild b. Moderate C. Severe d. Very severe

a. Mild

Extension of dura mater: a. Denticulate ligament b. Filum terminale C. Conus medullaris

a. Denticulate ligament

Pt. Has intact biceps and brachioradialis but has loss of wrist extensors and finger flexors. What is the neurological level? a. C8 b. C5 c. C6 d. C7

The position of the patient when testing the muscle for hip extension when the grade is zero to poor? (2x) a. Prone b. Supine C. Sidelying d. Sitting

C. Sidelying

Not active in froment's sign test: a. Palmar interrosei b. Add. Pollicis Longus c. Ext. Pollicis Longus d. Ext. Pollicis brevis

b. Add. Pollicis Longus

When the scapula is stabilized, the following ranges of motion is attributed to the glenohumeral joint, EXCEPT: a. When the glenohumeral joint is externally rotated to 90 degrees by active insufficiency of the brachialis muscles b. Approximately 90 degrees of flexion take place C. 40 to 60 degrees of hyperextension is available, limited by the superior and middle glenohumeral ligaments d. Flexing the elbow to 90 degrees isolates rotation of the glenohumeral joint from forearm supination and pronation

a. When the glenohumeral joint is externally rotated to 90 degrees by active insufficiency of the brachialis muscles

The following statements apply to crutch-walking up the stairs, non-weight-bearing right, EXCEPT: a. To move up onto the next step, patient pushes down on his crutches and hop onto the first step with left foot, the other leg moving up onto the step at the same time. b. Instruct patient to grasp the banister with his left hand and hand crutches to physical therapist, supporting his weight on his left leg c. After moving left foot on the next step, the patient swings up the crutches onto the next step alongside his feet d. Instruct to grasp the banister with his left hand and shift left crutches to right hand supporting his weight on both crutches and his left leg. e. Stand at the bottom of the stairs behind the patient, slightly to his right

b. Instruct patient to grasp the banister with his left hand and hand crutches to physical therapist, supporting his weight on his left leg

Procedures performed together to relieve pain by excising the synovial membrane and removing diseased cartilage, soft tissue, and the bony enlargement from joints: a. Menisectomy b. Arthrodesis c. None of these d. Osteotomy e. Debridement and synovectomy

e. Debridement and synovectomy

This channel communicates with the periosteum at the bone's surface and receives fluid from the haversian canal. a. Volkmann’s canal b. Lamellae c. Canaliculus d. Lacuna e. None of these

a. Volkmann’s canal

A fracture line that forms a right angle with the bone's axis: (2x) a. Oblique b. Transverse c. Spiral d. Linear

b. Transverse

The ability to hold the arms extended above the head is impaired in weakness of the shoulder girdle from any cause. The following statements are true when testing for shoulder and arm strength, EXCEPT: a. When the serratus anterior is weak, the upper angle of the scapula will wing out and be displaced medial ward and up b. When weakness of the deltoid interferes with scapular winging testing, another method is to push against the wall with outstretched arms, first one side and then the other C. When the trapezius is weak, the scapula is displaced down and out d. Impairment in function of the trapezius, serratus anterior or other muscles stabilizing the shoulder girdle may compromise the ability of the deltoid to hold the arms abducted at 90 degrees against the examiner's downward pressure e. A painful atrophic shoulder joint will limit movement and seriously interfere in the diagnosis of a neurogenic lesion

a. When the serratus anterior is weak, the upper angle of the scapula will wing out and be displaced medial ward and up

If your patient cannot support full weight on either of his legs, which crutch-walking gait would you choose? a. Four-point gait b. Two-point gait C. Swing-through three-point gait d. Three-point-gait (non-weight-bearing) e. Three-point-and-one-gait (partial-weight-bearing)

A solution in water crystalloids and colloids: a. Plasma c. Blood platelets b. Phagocytes d. Macrophages

a. Plasma

This test flexes the knee into full extension and passively allows it to extend completely with a sharp and point. It is designed to evaluate a lack of full knee extension, most often secondary to a torn meniscus, or an intracapsular joint swelling. a. Distraction Test b. Apprehension test C. Patella Femoral Grinding Test d. McMurray Test e. "Bounce Home" Test

e. "Bounce Home" Test

The major cation in the intracellular fluid compartment is: a. Cl b. Na+ c. K+ d. Ca++ e. Mg++

c. K+

Patient comes to therapy because of poor motor control of the Lower extremities PT determines that to work efficiently toward bringing the patient back to prior level of ambulation, he must follow this sequence of control: I. Stability Il. Controlled mobility III. Mobility IV. Skill a.I,II,III,IV b. III, I, II, IV C. III, II, I, IV d. I, III, II, IV

b. III, I, II, IV

A group of inherited connective tissue disorders that affect your connective tissues primarily your skin, joints, and blood vessels. Features: joint hypermobility, skin hyperextensibility, and tissue fragility.

Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome (EDS)

Contraindicated in ALS

extension exercises

Least recommended exercise for elderly

flexion bias exercise

30yrs old male pt, RHR 64, (60–70%)

140–153

Effect of botox in cerebral palsy

↓ spasticity & contracture

Elbow extension, internal rotation, wrist flexion

C5–C6

In scapulohumeral rhythm, for every clavicular rotation of 30–50, there is a clavicular elevation of: a. 20 b. 45 c. 60 d. —

a. 20

What cranial nerve has sensory roots that carry taste sensations from the posterior one-thirds of the tongue? a. Hypoglossal b. Glossopharyngeal c. Vagus d. Facial

b. Glossopharyngeal

Sensation in the anterolateral aspect of the thigh is innervated by what nerve? a. Medial femoral cutaneous b. Lateral femoral cutaneous c. Sural d. Saphenous

b. Lateral femoral cutaneous

Patellar reflex: a. L3 b. L4 c. L5 d. L2

b. L4

In proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation, the following statements are TRUE, EXCEPT: a. When performing functional training using PNF, activities are broken down into parts and the parts are practiced b. The use of approximation promotes stability and balance while traction and stretch increase the ability to move c. When using PNF in gait training, resistance is used to increase the patient's ability to balance but not the ability to move d. The use of a firm, large, pliant, smooth mat is ideal when performing PNF mat activities

c. When using PNF in gait training, resistance is used to increase the patient's ability to balance but not the ability to move

An elderly and frail individual is receiving physical therapy in the home environment to improve general strengthening and mobility. The patient has a 4-year history of taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as aspirin for joint pain, and recently began taking a calcium channel blocker (verapamil). The PT examines the patient for possible adverse reactions/side effects that could include: a. Increased sweating, fatigue, chest pain b. Weight increase, hyperglycemia, hypotension c. Stomach pain, bruising, confusion d. Paresthesias, incoordination, bradycardia

c. Stomach pain, bruising, confusion

A 65-year-old female, 5 weeks post myocardial infarction is attending a cardiac rehab program. The PT adds a cooling period and patient asks why it is needed. PT’s answer should be a. “It reduces chances of nausea and vertigo.” b. “it minimizes occurrence of ventricular arrhythmias.” c. “it allows pts to monitor vital signs after exercise.” d. “it prevents pooling of the blood in the extremities.”

d. “it prevents pooling of the blood in the extremities.”

A 66-year-old female patient complains of difficulty of walking. During the rest period, the skin in the lower leg appears discolored. After walking for about 2 minutes, patient complains of pain in the leg. A marked pallor is also evident on elevation of the lower third of the extremity. The symptoms are synonymous with (2x) a. peripheral neuropathy b. restless leg syndrome c. neurogenic claudication d. vascular claudication

d. vascular claudication

For each degree in Fahrenheit rise in body temperature, the heart rate will increase about beats. a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 10

d. 10

A patient with multiple sclerosis is a subject in a research study testing the efficacy of a new medication. The patient reports that the medication she is taking makes her feel much better and allows her to move more easily. At the end of the study, it is revealed that she was part of the control groups. Her responses are MOST LIKELY due to a. sampling bias b. pretest – treatment interference c. placebo effect d. Hawthorne effect

c. placebo effect

Air volume remaining in the lungs after maximum expiratory effort: a. Vital capacity b. Residual volume c. Functional residual capacity d. Expiratory reserve volume

b. Residual volume

During early phase of rehabilitation of a patient post-right total hip arthroplasty, posterolateral approach, precautions for the following exercises are necessary, EXCEPT FOR: I. Crossed-leg sitting II. Ascending stairs with the right leg leading III. Single-leg standing on the (R) lower extremity IV. Bending the trunk forward to tie shoes a. All are allowed b. I, II, III c. IV only d. All of these are not allowed

d. All of these are not allowed

In treating a patient with a diagnosis of right shoulder impingement syndrome, the FIRST intervention the PT should consider is to: a. Instruct the patient in proper postural alignment b. Complete AROM in all shoulder motions c. Implement a stretching program for the shoulder girdle musculature d. Modulate all pain

a. Instruct the patient in proper postural alignment

A 14-year-old girl complains of subpatellar pain after participation in an aerobic exercise program for 2 weeks. The PT’s examination shows a large Q-angle, pain with palpation at the inferior pole of the patella and mild swelling at both knees. The BEST intervention for this situation is: a. Hamstring strengthening b. Vastus medialis (VM) muscle strengthening c. Vastus lateralis (VL) strengthening d. Taping to increase lateral patella tracking

b. Vastus medialis (VM) muscle strengthening

The cardiac rehabilitation team is conducting education classes for a group of patients. The focus is on risk factor reduction and successful lifestyle modification. A participant asked the PT to help interpret cholesterol findings. Total cholesterol is 220 mg/dl, high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol is 66 mg/dl, and low-density lipoprotein (LDL) is 110 mg/dl. Analysis of these values reveals: a. Levels of HDL, LDL and total cholesterol are all abnormally low b. The levels of LDL and total cholesterol are abnormally high, and HDL is abnormally low c. The levels of LDL and total cholesterol are abnormally high, and HDL is within normal limit

c. The levels of LDL and total cholesterol are abnormally high, and HDL is within normal limit

A patient with MS demonstrates strong bilateral lower extremity extensor spasticity in the typical distribution of antigravity muscles. This patient would be expected to demonstrate: a. Skin breakdown on the ischial tuberosities and lateral malleoli b. Sitting with both hips abducted and externally rotated c. Sacral sitting with increased extension and adduction of lower extremities d. Sitting with the pelvis laterally tilted and both lower extremities in windswept position

c. Sacral sitting with increased extension and adduction of lower extremities

Which of the following factors is likely to cause subluxation and shoulder pain in hemiplegia? A. spastic retraction with elevation of scapula B. traction acting on a depressed, downwardly rotated scapula C. PROM with normal scapulohumeral rhythm D. spastic paralysis of the biceps

B. traction acting on a depressed, downwardly rotated scapula

15-year-old grade 10 female was being evaluated for scoliosis. On standing, a right thoracolumbar curve was present but when seated, the curve disappears. The MOST LIKELY cause of this is . A. Short iliopsoas muscle B. Lumbar Facet Dysfunction C. Leg length discrepancy D. Unilaterally weak gluteus mediu

C. Leg length discrepancy

Which statement of Speed's test is FALSE? A. The test may also be performed by forward flexing the patient's arm to 90 degrees and then asking the patient to resist an eccentric movement into extension B. A positive test elicits increased tenderness in the bicipital groove and is indicative of bicipital tenderness C. The examiner resists the shoulder forward flexion by the patient while the patient's forearm is first supinated, then pronated, and the elbow is completely extended D. It is less effective than Yergason's test because the tendon moves over the bone during the test

D. It is less effective than Yergason's test because the tendon moves over the bone during the test

A PT is increasing a patient's functional mobility in a seated position. To manage the patient MOST effectively and efficiently, the following should be performed in what order? 1 - weight shifting of the pelvis 2 - isometric contractions of the lower extremity 3 - trunk range of motion exercises a. 4 - isotonic resistance of the quadriceps A. 1, 2, 3, 4 B. 3, 2, 1, 4 C. 2, 3, 1, 4 D. 4, 3, 2, 1

B. 3, 2, 1, 4

Ohm's Law describes the relationship among A. voltage, resistance and amperage B. amperage, conductance and resistance C. conductance, voltage and resistance D. voltage, conductance and amperage

A. voltage, resistance and amperage

A PT will apply electrical stimulation to a patient with venous stasis ulcer on the right lower extremity. The correct type of electrical stimulation to promote wound heating is A. Direct B. biphasic pulsed C. interferential D. TENS

A. Direct

In the reeducation and facilitation of muscles, electrical stimulation is used as a guide to improve proprioceptive and visual sense of the motions and activities being facilitated. When bipolar electrodes are placed over the large muscles or muscle groups, you select the following parameters, EXCEPT: A. waveform: symmetrical or asymmetrica biphasic pulses with a duration of 200-500 microseconds B. stimulus amplitude: amplitude adjusted to maximum tolerable contraction C. duty cycle: 1:1 cycle to produce rhythmical muscle contractions D. pulse rate: lesser than 60 pps biphasic pulses to produce tetanic muscle contractions

D. pulse rate: lesser than 60 pps biphasic pulses to produce tetanic muscle contractions

Pulsed ultrasound is applied to a patient diagnosed with rotator cuff tendonitis. The statement about pulsed ultrasound that is MOST consistent when compared with continuous ultrasound is: A. The peak intensity of output for pulsed ultrasound is reduced B. The average intensity of output over time for pulsed ultrasound is reduced C. The peak intensity of output for pulsed ultrasound is increased D. The average intensity of output over time for pulsed ultrasound is increased

B. The average intensity of output over time for pulsed ultrasound is reduced

A person's grip is weaker, if his wrist is in a flexed position because of. A. Passive insufficiency of the finger extensors and active insufficiency of the finger flexors B. Passive insufficiency of the finger flexors and extensors C. Active insufficiency of the finger flexors and extensors D. Passive insufficiency of the long finger flexors and active insufficiency of the finger extensors

A. Passive insufficiency of the finger extensors and active insufficiency of the finger flexors

In your C6 SCI px, tenodesis action is preserved by avoiding: A. Finger flexion and wrist extension B. Wrist flexion and finger flexion C. Finger extension and wrist extension D. Wrist flexion and finger extension

C. Finger extension and wrist extension

After total hip surgery, for the next 3 months, the following must be observed as part of the patient's home care, EXCEPT: A. Keep the affected leg facing front at all times whether sitting, lying or walking B. Legs must not be crossed legs whether lying, sitting or standing C. Place a pillow between the legs when lying in unaffected side, with the affected leg uppermost D. Patient may reach down to the end of the bed to pull covers E. Never turning hip or knee inward or outward

D. Patient may reach down to the end of the bed to pull covers

The following are true of anterolateral rotator instability of the knee, EXCEPT: A. Refers to posterior subluxation of the medial tibial plate in an internal rotation direction B. Commonly results from a chronic anterior cruciate ligament insufficiency associated with a lax lateral capsule C. The compressiveforces on the lateral compartment during weight bearing may cause a severely painful sensation of the knee's slipping out of place D. Less commonly, it can be a result of an acute tear of the lateral capsule E. Described to be a reduction of the tibia upon the femur after subluxation which usually occurs when there is knee flexed from 10-20 degrees and when the iliotibial band lies anterior to the axis of knee rotation.

A. Refers to posterior subluxation of the medial tibial plate in an internal rotation direction

You are assigned in pediatric physical therapy clinic and you noticed that your patient is diagnosed with Spastic Hemiplegic Cerebral Palsy. Which of the following describes the manifestation? A. Upper extremities and sensory loss is predominant B. Ataxia as well as incoordination deficits is seen C. Tremors and rigidity can be seen during walking and standing D. More involved lower extremity as compared to the upper extremities

A. Upper extremities and sensory loss is predominant

Cerebral Palsy associated with hyperbilirubinemia A. Athetoid B. Diplegia C. Ataxic D. Dyskinetic E. Spastic

A. Athetoid

Damage to the basal ganglia leads to what type of CP: A. Diplegic B. Quadriplegic C. Hemiplegic D. Athetoid

D. Athetoid

GMFCS Assessment can be used until: A. No limit B. 12yrs C. 6yrs D. 18yrs

D. 18yrs

Sagittal plane (horizontal axis) movement: A. Abduction-Adduction B. IR-ER C. Flexion-extension

C. Flexion-extension

The swaying of the arms when walking occurs around this axis: A. Anteroposterior/horizontal B. Sagittal C. Vertical D. Frontal

D. Frontal

Dividing the body into right and left, flexion and extension occurs in this plane. A. Transagittal B. Transverse C. Horizontal D. Frontal E. Sagittal

E. Sagittal

Which of the following correctly describes the intrapleural pressure during a normal unforced breathing: A. Varies from negative to positive B. Always negative C. Always positive D. None of these

B. Always negative

The anterior cruciate ligament of the knee is taut during: A. Full internal rotation of the femorotibial joint B. Full side extension C. 40-50 degrees of knee flexion D. Knee adduction

A. Full internal rotation of the femorotibial joint

Which of the following statement describe the heart? I. During development, the heart undergoes rotation so that its right side is carried backwards and its left side forwards. II. It is about the size of a clenched fist and occupies central position in the thoracic cavity. III. It lies behind the body of the sternum and in front of the mid thoracic vertebra (T5, 6, 7, and 8). IV. The left ventricle forms the posterior surface and occupies most of the superior border. V. The right ventricle occupies most of the anterior surface and forms all but the extremities of the inferior border. A. II and V only B. I, II and IV C. I and IV only D. II, III and V E. II, III and IV

D. II, III and V

The pulmonary artery leaves the heart via: A. Left aortic B. It enters the heart C. Left ventricle D. Right ventricle E. Right auricle

D. Right ventricle

The aorta leaves this chamber of the heart: A. Right ventricle B. It bypasses the heart C. Right auricle D. Left ventricle E. Left auricle

D. Left ventricle

Cerebrospinal fluid is formed primarily by specialized tissue in the ventricles called: A. Pia mater B. Meninges C. Anterior Commissural D. Choroid plexus E. Dura mater

D. Choroid plexus

Compared to the action potential in ventricular muscle, the action potential of the Sinu-atrial Node shows: A. No plateau B. A slow velocity of upstroke C. A high velocity down stroke D. Rapid influx of sodium ions E. The T wave A. C and E B. B and C C. D and E D. A and C E. A and B

B. B and C

If there is anterior cruciate instability, the tibia will rock A. Backward B. Medially C. Forward D. Laterally E. diagonally

C. Forward

If there is posterior cruciate instability, the tibia will exhibit this movement as it is pushed back: A. Minor lateral movement B. A lot of medial movement C. Some anterior movement D. Some posterior movement E. Extensive diagonal movement

D. Some posterior movement

Most commonly measured/tested in Asthma and CB: A. FEV1 B. TLC C. Force expiratory volume

A. FEV1

Connects the tip of spinal cord: A. Leptomeninges B. Pachymeninges C. Dura mater D. Filum terminale

D. Filum terminale

The following statements are true of the Tibialis Posterior, EXCEPT: A. Innervated by the tibial nerve B. The most deeply situated muscle of the calf C. Inverts and supinate the subtalar joint only in dorsiflexion D. Inserts and assists in ankle plantar flexion

C. Inverts and supinate the subtalar joint only in dorsiflexion

Pt is for ambulation, R LE is 30% WB, pt has good balance and coordination. What is the best gait pattern? a. Swing-through b. 3 pt gait c. 2 pt gait d. 4 pt gait

a. Swing-through

The rehabilitation team is completing a home visit to recommend environmental modifications for a patient who is scheduled to be discharged next week. The patient is wheelchair dependent. The home has not been adapted. Which of the following recommendations is correct? A. Widening the door entrance to 28 inches B. Adding horizontal grab bars in the bathroom positioned at 34 inches C. Raising the toilet seat to 25 inches D. Installing an entry-way ramp with a running slope of 1:10

B. Adding horizontal grab bars in the bathroom positioned at 34 inches

Which crutch-walking technique would you choose for patients with spina bifida, paraplegia or myelomeningocele? a. Two-point gait b. Four-point gait c. Swing-through three-point gait d. Three-point-gait (non-weight-bearing) e. Three-point-and-one-gait (partial-weight-bearing)

c. Swing-through three-point gait

A patient with complete T10 paraplegia is receiving initial ambulation training. The patient has received bilateral Craig-Scott knee akle foot orthoses and is being trained with axillary crutches. Because a reciprocral gait pattern is problematic, the best initial gait pattern to teach is a: A. Four point B. Swing to C. Two point D. Swing through

B. Swing to

Orthosis that limits flexion-extension? A. Knight B. Chairback C. Jewett D. William

B. Chairback

Hallmark of ALS A. Muscle spasticity B. Muscle weakness

B. Muscle weakness

The following statement are true of the shoulder joint EXCEPT: A. The ligaments are few and only provide stability in limited joint ranges of motion B. An implication of the shoulder's structural modification to increase mobility is that it relies on muscles to provide adequate stability C. The articular surfaces of the humeral head and the glenoid fodds of the scapula lack congruity D. The scapula, which forms the mobile base of the shoulder joint, has minimal passive suspension from the skeleton via the acromioclavicular joint and coracoclavicular ligament E. The joint capsule is thin and lax, allowing up to 5 cm of traction between articular surfaces

E. The joint capsule is thin and lax, allowing up to 5 cm of traction between articular surfaces

This is the largest blood vessel in the body and runs up the right sides of the lumbar vertebral bodies and behind the peritoneum of the posterior abdominal wall. It enters the right atrium at the lower right corner of the heart: A. Great Saphenous Vein B. Superior Vena Cava C. Inferior Vena Cava D. Femoral Vein

C. Inferior Vena Cava

A physical therapist discusses common cognitive and behavioral changes associated with stroke with family members of a patient with right hemisphere damage and resultant left hemiplegia. Which terms does NOT accurately describe the most typical patient presentation? A. Poor judgement B. Impulsive C. Quick D. Overly catious

D. Overly catious

The treatment plan for a patient with hemiplegia is based on the theory of reinforcing normal movement through key point of control and avoiding all reflex movement patterns and associated reactions. This approach MOST closely resembles: A. Bobath B. Kabat C. Rood D. Brunnstrom

A. Bobath

A physical therapist working on an oncology unit reviews the medical chart of a male patient prior to initiating airway clearance tecniques. The patient's cell counts are as follows: Hematocrit 44%, White blood cells 8,500/mm3, Platelets 30,000/ul, Hemoglobin level 15gm/dL. Which blood test value suggets that chest percussion for airway clearance is contraindicated? A. Hematocrit B. White blood cells C. Platelets D. Hemoglobin

C. Platelets

A patient with a right radial head fracture is examined in physical therapy. The patient's involved elbow range of motion begins at 15 degrees of flexion and ends at 90 degrees of flexion. The physical therapist should record the patient's elbow range of motion as: A. 0-15-90 B. 15-0-90 C. 15-90 D. 0-90

C. 15-90

A physical therapist attempts to improve a patient's lower extremity strength. Which proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation technique would be the MOST appropriate to achieve the therapist's goals? A. Contract-relax B. Repeated contractions C. Rhythmic stabilization D. Hold-relax

B. Repeated contractions

A physical therapist works with a patient status post stroke on a mat program. The therapist assists the patient in lateral weight shifting activities while positioned in prone on elbows. Which therapeutic exercise technique would allow the patient to improve dynamic stability with this activity? A. Alternating isometrics B. Approximation C. Rhythmic initiation D. Timing for emphasis

B. Approximation

A physical therapist reviews the results of a pulmonary function test for a 58yo male patient recently admitted to the hospital. The therapist notes that the patient's total lung capcaity is significantly increased when compared to established norms. Which medical condition would MOST likely produce this type of result? A. Chronic bronchitis B. Emphysema C. Spinalcord injury D. Pulmonary fibrosis

B. Emphysema

A physical therapist reviews the medical record of a patient recently admitted to an inpatient rehabilitation hospital. The patient sustained a traumatic head injury in a motor vehicle accident five weeks ago. The medical record indicated that the patient is often disoriented and can frequently become agitated with little provocation. The MOST appropriate location for the therapist to make initial contact with the patient is: A. In the patient's room B. In the physical therapy gym C. In a private treatment room D. In the physical therapy waiting room

A. In the patient's room

A physical therapist employes in an acute care hospital reviews the medical record of a patient diagnosed with congestive heart failure. The therapist would like to implement a formal exercise program but is concerned about the patient's exercise tolerance. Which condition is MOST responsible for the patient's limited exercise tolerance? A. Diminished lung volumes B. Arterial oxygen desaturation C. Insufficient stroke volume during ventricular systole D. Excessive rise in blood pressure

C. Insufficient stroke volume during ventricular systole

A physical therapist plants to perform a sensory examination on a patinet wiht a suspected neurological lesion. Which sensation should the therapist assess FIRST? A. Vibration B. Two-point discrimincation C. Temperature D. Kinesthesia

C. Temperature

A physical therapist participates in a formal gait analysis using three-dimensional analysis software for an 11yo with cerebral palsy. Which piece of objective data would LEAST likely be obtained throught this process? A. Decreased seing phase B. Decreased walking velocity C. Decreased quadriceps strength D. Decreased knee extension range of motion

C. Decreased quadriceps strength

A physical therapist instructs a patient to expire maximally after taking a maximal inspiration. The therapist can use these instructions to measure the patient's: A. Expiratory reserve volume B. Inspiratory reserve volume C. Total lung capacity D. Vital capacity

D. Vital capacity

If the forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) test is negative for airway obstruction in 99% of individuals without lung disease, then the measurement of FEV1 is: A. Sensitive B. Specific C. Reliable D. Valid

B. Specific

A physical therapist consults with a teacher regarding a child with autism who has impairments in sensory processing. Which piece of equipment would be the MOST useful to address the child's dypraxia? A. Swing B. Weighted vest C. Sit and spin D. Rocking chair

B. Weighted vest

A patient who has been on bed rest for three weeks has developed a plantar flexion contracture. Which phase pf the gait cycle would be MOST problematic for the patient based on the described impairment? A. Heel strike to foot flat B. Foot flat to midstance C. Midstance to heel off D. Heel off to toe off

C. Midstance to heel off

A physical therapist attempts to examine the relationship between scores on a functional independence measure and another measurement whose validity is known. This type of example BEST describes: a. face validity b. predictive validity c.concurrent validity d. content validity

c.concurrent validity

Four months after surgery to repair a torn biceps tendon, a patient still lacks 40 degrees of elbow extension. Because conservative efforts have failed, the physician orders serial casting to improve the patient's mobility. After one round of casting, what would be the MOST likely expected increase in range of motion? a. 5 degrees b. 10 degrees c. 25 degrees d. 35 degrees

a. 5 degrees

A physical therapist completes a cognitive function test on a patient status post stroke. As part of the test, the therapist examines the patient's abstract ability. Which of the following tasks would be the MOST appropriate? a. orientation to time, person, and place b. copy drawn figures of varying size and shape c. discuss how two objects are similar d. identify letters or numbers traced on the skin

c. discuss how two objects are similar

Common origin of gracilis, adductor brevis, & adductor magnus: a. Inferior ramus of pubis c. Ischial tuberosity b. Ramus of Ischium d. Body of pubis

a. Inferior ramus of pubis

The following statements apply in combined posterolateral and anteromedial rotatory instability, EXCEPT: a. Adduction and abduction stress test results are positive at 30 degrees of flexion b. Result of the anterior drawer test is positive with the tibia in neutral position c. Anterior drawer test causes the tibia to rotate externally and back d. Occurs with tear of the medial and lateral compartment ligaments e. Results of the anterior drawer test is negative with tibia in internal rotation

c. Anterior drawer test causes the tibia to rotate externally and back

Following are true of macrotrauma, EXCEPT: a. Results injuries repetitive injury b. Direct injuries result in ajoint-closing(compression) type of injury c. Results from an injury of a magnitude that causes immediate clinical signs and symptoms d. Indirect macrotraumatic mechanisms include joint distraction and rotation or transmitted torque e. A single-incident injury manifested by strain or sprain or contusion

a. Results injuries repetitive injury

To create electrical neutrality, the major intracellular cation is balanced intracellularly by which anions? a. C1- b. HCO- 3 c. HPO- 4 d. Organic anions e. KMnO4

d. Organic anions

The following describes the "Q" angle, EXCEPT: a. The acute angle formed by the triceps femoris tendon and the ligamentum patellae b. An increase in the "Q" angle above 15 degrees may increasethe tendency for lateral patellar malposition c. An increased "Q" angle associated with another deficiency of the extensor mechanism may allow the patella to sublux more easily d. The second line is drawn from the center of the patella to the center of the anterior-superior iliac spine on the pelvis e. Determined by drawing one line from the middle of the patella to the center of the tibial tubercle

a. The acute angle formed by the triceps femoris tendon and the ligamentum patellae

A patient is able to walk independently with an assistive device in the hall outside the PT gym. When asked to walk across the hospital lobby and through a revolving door, the patient slows down considerably and stops by the revolving door, unable to proceed. The therapist determines: a. Open skills and externally paced skills are impaired while closed skills are intact b. Co-incident timing is impaired while open and closed skills are intact c. Serial skills are intact while continuous skills are impaired d. Both open and closed skills are impaired

a. Open skills and externally paced skills are impaired while closed skills are intact

A patient who is 3 months' post-CVA is being treated in physical therapy for adhesive capsulitis of the right shoulder. Today, the patient complains of new symptoms, including constant burning pain in the right upper extremity that is increased by the dependent position and touch. The right hand is mildly edematous and stiff. In this case, the intervention that is CONTRAINDICATED is: a. Positional elevation, compression and gentle massage to reduce edema b. Stress loading using active compression during upper-extremity weight-bearing activities c. Passive manipulation and ROM of the shoulder d. AROM exercises of the limb within a pain-free range to regain motion

c. Passive manipulation and ROM of the shoulder

A PT receives a referral to ambulate a patient who is insulin-dependent. In a review of the patient's medical record, the PT notices that the blood glucose level for that day is 310 mg/dl. The PT's BEST course of action is to: a. Postpone therapy and consult with the medical staff as soon as possible b. Ambulate the patient as planned, but monitor closely for signs of exertional intolerance c. Talk to the nurse about walking the patient later d. Refrain from ambulating the patient; reschedule for tomorrow before other therapies

a. Postpone therapy and consult with the medical staff as soon as possible

An elderly and frail resident of an extended care facility presents with hot, red and edematous skin over the shins of both lower extremities. The patient also has a mild fever. The MOST LIKELY cause of the symptoms is: a. Dermatitis b. Cellulitis c. Scleroderma d. Herpes simplex infection

b. Cellulitis

A patient with diagnosis of left-sided CHF, class II is referred for physical therapy. During exercise, this patient can be expected to demonstrate: a. Weight gain with dependent edema b. Severe, uncomfortable chest pain with shortness of breath c. Dyspnea with fatigue and muscular weakness d. Anorexia, nausea with abdominal pain and distension

c. Dyspnea with fatigue and muscular weakness

A patient is transferred to a burn clinic with deep, partial thickness burns over 30% of the body. Healing of this type of burn is characterized by: a. Blisters and minimal edema with spontaneous healing b. Depressed skin area that heals with grafting and scarring c. Moderate edema with spontaneous healing and minimal grafting d. Marked edema with slow healing and extensive hypertrophic scarring

d. Marked edema with slow healing and extensive hypertrophic scarring

The PT is reviewing the medical history of a new patient being seen for balance deficits and general deconditioning. Prior to admission, the chief finding by the physician, 3 days ago, was a positive fecal blood test. Which laboratory value would confirm that the patient is safe for balance re-training activities? a. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) - 7 mm/1 h. b. Leukocyte count - 7,000 c. Hematocrit - 42% d. Platelet count - 70,000

c. Hematocrit - 42%

A patient recovering from stroke is taking warfarin(Coumadin). What potential adverse reactions are associated with this medication? a. Hematuria and ecchymosis b. Palpitations and edema c. Edema and dermatitis d. Cellulitis and xeroderma.

a. Hematuria and ecchymosis

A patient falls while walking in the parallel bars. The therapist is required to fill out an incident report of the event. In addition to the names of those involved, what information is required in an incident report? a. A description of the event, where the patient was injured, and the corrective actions to be taken b. Witness reports and therapist's opinion as to the cause c. What occurred, when and where it occurred, and witness statements. d. The cause of this fall and cross-references to others who gave fallen in the parallel bars

c. What occurred, when and where it occurred, and witness statements.

A newborn is examined at birth using the APGAR test. Which of the following APGAR results is a likely indicator of potential neurological complications? a. 3 at 10 minutes b. 9 at 1 minute. c. 8 at 1 minute. d. 8 at 5 minutes.

a. 3 at 10 minutes

A patient is referred for physical therapy with a diagnosis of degenerative joint disease (DJD) affecting C2 and C3. The patient complains of pain and stiffness in the cervical region and transient dizziness with some cervical motions. What is the BEST initial examination procedure? a. Vertebral artery test b. Adson's maneuver C. Lhermitte's test d. Oppenheim's test

a. Vertebral artery test

An examination of a patient reveals drooping of the shoulder, rotary winging of the scapula, an inability to shrug the shoulder, and complaints of aching in the shoulder. Based on these findings, what is the MOST likely cause of these symptoms? a. Strains of the serratus anterior b. A lesion of the spinal accessory nerve c. A lesion of the long thoracic nerve d. Muscle imbalance

b. A lesion of the spinal accessory nerve

An infant is independent in sitting, including all protective extension reactions, and can pull-to-stand through kneeling, cruise sideways, and stand alone. The infant still demonstrates plantar grasp in standing. What is this infant's approximate chronological age? a. 6 months b. 5 months c. 8-9 months d. 10-15 months

C. 8-9 months

A patient with congestive heart failure (CHF) is on a regimen of diuretics (chlorotiazide). What are the potential adverse effects of this medication that the PT should be alert for? a. Hyperkalemia and premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). b. Myalgia and joint pains c. Orthostatic hypotension and dizziness d. Reflex tachycardia and unstable BP

C. Orthostatic hypotension and dizziness

A college soccer player sustained a hyperextension knee injury when kicking the ball. The patient was taken to the emergency room of a local hospital and was diagnosed with "knee sprain." The player was sent to physical therapy the next day for rehabilitation. As part of the examination to determine the type of treatment plan to implement, the therapist conducted a test examining the integrity of which structure? a. Iliotibial band b. Posterior cruciate ligament c. Anterior cruciate ligament d. Medial meniscus

C. Anterior cruciate ligament

A patient who is 5 weeks' post myocardial infarction (MI) is participating in a cardiac rehabilitation program. The therapist is monitoring responses to increasing exercise intensity. The indicator that exercise should be immediately terminated is: a. 1.5 mm of downsloping ST segment depression b. Peak exercise HR > 140 c. Appearance of a PVC on the electrocardiogram (ECG) d. Systolic BP > 140 mm Hg or diastolic BP > 80 mm Hg

A. 1.5 mm of downsloping ST segment depression

A patient who is currently being treated for low back pain arrives for therapy complaining of pain across the middle of the right chest and back. When the therapist inspects the skin, clustered vesicles are apparent in a linear arc. The surrounding skin is hypersensitive. What is the MOST likely diagnosis? a. Herpes simplex infection b. Psoriasis c. Dermatitis d. Herpes zoster infection

D. Herpes zoster infection

A PT should be alert to recognize the signs and symptoms associated with the onset of aspiration pneumonia. Which patient diagnosis is the MOST susceptible to develop this from of pneumonia? a. A circumferential burn of the thorax associated with significant pain b. Severe scoliosis with compression of internal organs, including the lungs c. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) with dysphagia and diminished gag reflex d. A complete spinal cord lesion at T2 with diminished coughing ability and forced vital capacity (FVC)

C. Amyotropic lateral sclerosis (ALS) with dysphagia and diminished gag reflex

A patient is being examined for impairments after stroke. When tested for two-point discrimination on the right hand, the patient is unable to tell whether the therapist is touching with one or two points. The therapist determines that there is impaired function in the: a. Spinotectal tract and somatosensory cortex b. Lateral spinothalamic tract and somatosensory cortex c. Dorsal column/lemniscal pathways and somatosensory cortex d. Anterior spinothalamic tract and thalamus

C. Dorsal column/leniscal pathways and somatosensory cortex

An elderly and frail older adult has low vision. The patient recently returned home from a 2-week hospitalization for stabilization of diabetes. The PT's goal is to mobilize the patient and increase ambulation level and safety. The BEST intervention strategy for this patient is to: a. Practice walking in areas of high illumination and low clutter. b. Color-code stairs with pastel shades of blue and green to highlight steps. c. Practice walking by having the patient look down at all times. d. Keep window shades wide open to let in as much light as possible.

A. Practice walking in areas of high illumination and low clutter

A PT working in the provincial hospital was asked to cover an interscholastic football league competition. During a game, a player is knocked down on the field. The PT rushed to the scene and determines that the player is unconscious. What should be the NEXT action of the PT? a. Proceed to give mouth to mouth resuscitation check for shock b. Start with the head and determine first if there is any bleeding or fluid coming from the nose, ears, eyes, or mouth c. Check the carotid pulse for a heart beat d. Check breathing and if it is impaired, clear the airway, and if necessary

D. Check breathing and if it impaired, clear the airway, and if necessary

A patient immersed in the pool up to the umbilicus effectively off-loads ___ percent of his body weight. a. 30 b. 40 c. 60 d. 50

D. 50

For each degree in Fahrenheit use in body temperature, pulse rate will increase about beats. a. 14 b. 4 c. 6 d. 10

D. 10

The functional outcome reporting method of writing notes must be _____ a. meaningful, quantifiable, sustainable b. sustainable, simple, quantifiable c. meaningful, utilitarian, sustainable d. utilitarian, meaningful, quantifiable

C. meaningful, utilitarian, sustainable

Among the activities below, the BEST way to facilitate walking without support in a 2-year-old patient with Down Syndrome is: a. strengthening exercises for quadriceps using weights b. use of walker with rollers to increase distance c. use of reflex inhibiting patterns in lower extremities d. weight shifting in standing while dancing to music

D. weight shifting in standing while dancing to music

Vibration is often used to facilitate muscle tone in children with Down Syndrome. The muscle group MOST in need of facilitation are ____ a. neck and back flexors and extensors, elbow extensors and knee flexors and extensors b. back extensors, elbow flexors and extensors, hip adductors and knee extensors c. neck flexors and extensors, trunk flexors, hip adductors and knee extensors d. neck and back extensors, elbow extensors hip abductors and knee extensors

D. neck and back extensors, elbow extensors, hip abductors, and knee extensors

A PT will evaluate the shoulder of a patient with hepatitis B. PT finds no open wound abrasions. Patient has good hygiene. The prescription includes passive range of motion because of adhesive capsulitis. Which of these precautions is absolutely necessary to prevent infection for PT? a. PT should wear gloves b. none of these c. PT should wear a mask d. PT should wear a gown

B. none of these

Paraffin melts at 54.5 degrees C but is used as a therapeutic modality because a. paraffin requires a longer treatment time b. paraffin requires fewer calories of heat to raise its temperature c. the addition of mineral oil lowers its specific heat d. it has a low specific gravity

C. the addition of mineral oil lowers its specific heat

A physical therapy plan of care for a child with spastic cerebral palsy who is three years old chronologically and cognitively but at a six month-old gross developmental level would include: a. reaching for a black and white object while in the supine position. b. reaching for a multicolored object while in an unsupported standing position. c. visually tracking a black and white object held nine inches from his face. d. reaching for a multicolored object while in an unsupported, guarded sitting position.

D. reaching for a multicolored object while in an unsupported, guarded sitting position

A patient who is partial weight bearing on the left ambulates with a walker. The patient advances the walker followed by a step with the left and then a step with the right. The gait pattern is termed a. two-point b. three-point c. four-point d. swing to

B. three-point

A physical therapist treats a patient with a fractured left hip. The patient is weight bearing as tolerated and uses a large base quad cane for gait activities. Correct use of the quad cane would include a. using the quad cane on the left with the longer legs positioned away from the patient b. using the quad cane on the right with the longer legs positioned away from the patient c. using the quad cane on the left with the longer legs positioned toward the patient d. using the quad cane on the right with the longer legs positioned toward the patient

B. using the quad cane on the right with the longer legs positioned away from the patient

A physical therapist observes a patient ambulating with a Trendelenburg gait pattern. This deviation is often caused by weakness of the a. gluteus maximus b. gluteus medius c. gluteus minimus d. Piriformis

B. Gluteus medius

It is extremely important to thoroughly instruct patients about specific precautions before and after total hip replacement surgery. Patients that do not understand or choose to disregard this information often experience subluxation or dislocation. Which of the following would be considered good advice after total hip replacement surgery? A. use a raised toilet seat B. use an abduction pillow for one week postoperatively C. avoid sitting in high and hard chairs D. slowly bend forward when picking objects up from the floor

A. use a raised toilet seat

A PT is performing a respiratory evaluation including the following test: respiratory rate, blood pressure, pulse and measurement of chest expansion. A normal measurement of difference between the rest period and full expansion over the xiphoid process is: A. 1 1/2 inches B. 1 inch C. 2 inches D. 1/2 inch

A. 1 1/2 inches

A therapist performs the talar tilt test on a 22-year-old female rehabilitating from an inversion ankle sprain. Which ligament does the talar tilt examine? A. Deltoid ligament B. Posterior talotibial ligament C. Anterior talotibial ligament D. Calcaneofibular ligament

D. Calcaneofibular ligament

A physical therapist studies a normal resting electrocardiogram for one cardiac cycle. What wave or change in shape of the electrocardiogram results from atrial depolarization? A. P wave B. QRS complex C. ST segment D. T wave

A. P wave

A patient is referred to physical therapy after sustaining a Colles' fracture. A Colles' fracture refers to an injury of the: A. Ulna B. Radius C. Olecranon D. Scaphoid

B. Radius

A young adult who is comatose (Glasgow Coma Scale score of 3) is transferred to a long-term care facility for custodial care. On initial examination, the therapist determines the patient is demonstrating decerebrate posturing. Which limb or body position is indicative of this? A. The upper extremities in flexion and the lower extremities in extension B. Extreme hyperextension of the neck and spine with both lower extremities flexed and the heels touching the buttocks C. All four limbs in extension D. All four limbs in flexion

C. All four limbs in extension

While examining a patient diagnosed with Achilles tendonitis, a physical therapist notes that the foot and ankle appear to be pronated. Which motions combine to create pronation in a non-weight bearing foot? A. abduction, dorsiflexion, eversion B. adduction, dorsiflexion, inversion C. abduction, plantar flexion, eversion D. adduction, plantar flexion, inversion

A. abduction, dorsiflexion, eversion

A patient rehabilitating from cardiac surgery is monitored using an arterial line. The PRIMARY purpose of an arterial line is to: A. measure right atrial pressure B. measure heart rate and oxygen saturation C. measure pulmonary artery pressure D. measure blood pressure

D. measure blood pressure

A physical therapist employed in an acute care hospital reviews the medical record of a patient diagnosed with congestive heart failure. The therapist would like to implement a formal exercise program but is concerned about the patient's exercise tolerance. Which condition is MOST responsible for the patient's limited exercise tolerance? A. diminished lung volumes B. arterial oxygen desaturation C. insufficient cardiac output during ventricular systole D. excessive rise in blood pressure

C. insufficient cardiac output during ventricular systole

A physical therapy works with a patient diagnosed with congestive heart failure who presents with dyspnea during ambulation. The patient has an ejection fraction of less than 55 percent. Which of the following interventions would be the MOST appropriate? A. Instruction in pursed-lip breathing B. Progressive resistive exercises C. Education on energy conservation D. Instruction in diaphragmatic breathing

C. Education on energy conservation

A physical therapist designs an exercise program for a patient several weeks following cardiac transplantation. Which of the following would be MOST essential to incorporate into the patient's exercise program based on the transplantation? A. Increased warm-up and cool down period B. Increased duration of training sessions C. Increased target heart rate range during exercise D. Increased monitoring of exercise intensity through heart rate

A. Increased warm-up and cool down period

A patient recently admitted to an acute care hospital is referred to physical therapy. The PT documents the following clinical signs: pallor, cyanosis, and cool skin. These clinical signs are MOST consistent with: A. Cor pulmonale B. Anemia C. Hypertension D. Diaphoresis

B. Anemia

A physical therapist trats a 36-year-old male status post knee surgery. The therapist performs goniometric measurements to quantify the extent of the patient's extension lag. Which of the following would NOT provide a plausible rationale for the extension lag? A. Muscle weakness B. Bony obstruction C. Inhibition by pain D. Patient apprehension

B. Bony obstruction

A physical therapist completes an upper extremity manual muscle test on a patient diagnosed with rotator cuff tendonitis. Assuming the patient has the ability to move the upper extremities against gravity, which of the following muscles would NOT be tested with the patient in a supine position? A. Pronator teres B. Pectoralis major C. Biceps brachii D. Middle trapezius

D. Middle trapezius

A patient's job requires him to move boxes weighing 35 pounds from a transport cart to an elevated conveyor belt. The patient can complete the activity, however, is unable to prevent hyperextension of the spine. The MOST appropriate physical therapist action is to: A. implement a pelvic stabilization program B. design an abdominal strengthening program C. review proper body mechanics D. use an elevated platform when placing boxes on the belt

D. use an elevated platform when placing boxes on the belt

A physician examines a 36-year-old male with shoulder pain. As part of the examination the physician orders x-rays. Which medical condition could be confirmed using this type of diagnostic imaging? A. bicipital tendonitis B. calcific tendonitis C. supraspinatus impingement D. subacromial bursitis

B. calcific tendonitis

Which of the following actions of the drug digitalis is common in patients ith chronic congestive heart failure? A. A decrease in heart rate B. An increase in heart rate C. A decrease in the strength of the contraction D. No effect in heart rate

A. A decrease in heart rate

Upon examination of your patient with quadriceps contusion, you note that he has deep bruising, pain, swelling, and discoloration along the injury site. His active knee ROM is recorded to be 45 degrees. You classify his injury as: A. Mild B. Moderate C. Severe D. Malingering

B. Moderate

The portion of the Achilles tendon that is usually affected in Achilles tendinitis due to hypovascularity: A. Upper portion B. Lower portion C. Midportion D. Outer portion

C. Midportion

On examination of a male elderly patient with ankle pain, he points to pain particularly under the medial malleolus that increases when you do resisted ankle inversion. What is the possible problem of the patient? A. Ankle Osteoarthritis B. Medial collateral ligament sprain C. Posterior tibialis tendonitis D. Lengthened medial ligaments

C. Posterior tibialis tendonitis

281. The nerve most likely to be injured in wrist slashing: a. Median nerve b. Musculocutaneous nerve c. Ulnar nerve d. radial nerve e. Radio-ulnar nerve

A. Median nerve

282. The most important joint in the upper extremity for spatial placement is: a. Sternoclavicular joint b. Shoulder joint c. Claviculohumeral joint d. Elbow joint e. Wrist joint

b. Shoulder joint

283. The major modifiable risk factors for the development and progression of coronary artery disease include the following, EXCEPT: a. Habitual smoking b. Hypertension c. Physical activity d. Habitual smoking e. Hypercholesterolemia

c. Physical activity

284. Supplied by the femoral nerve, this neurologic level crosses the anterior portion of the middle of the thigh: a. L2 b. L1 c. L4 d. L3 e. S1

a. L2

285. Persistent asymmetry of the Moro reflex suggests the following, EXCEPT: a. Hemiparesis b. Fracture of the clavicle c. Injury to the brachial plexus d. Hemiplegia e. Fracture of the humerus

d. Hemiplegia

286. When applied, second class levers can be: a. Levers that operate at a mechanical disadvantage but one of speed b. Levers that work at a mechanical advantage c. Levers of stability and speed d. All of these

b. Levers that work at a mechanical advantage

287. Any bodily movement produced by skeletal muscles results in increased energy expenditure: a. Physical activity b. Training c. Exercise d. Performance e. physical fitness

A. Physical activity

288. These cardinal signs characteristic Inflammation, EXCEPT: a. Edema b. Rubor c. Pain d. Heat e. No disturbance of function

e. No disturbance of function

289. From the frontal plane, the neck of the femur has an ante angle of 13° to 15°. A decrease in this angle— a factor in out-toeing during walking— is called: a. Coxa vara b. Coxa valga c. Retroversion d. Anteversion

c. Retroversion

290. The perpendicular distance from the pivot point to the line of action of the weight is called the: a. Lever Arm b. Mechanical Advantage c. Force Arm d. Weight Arm

d. Weight arm

291. In Moro reflex, when the infant is held in supine and the head is gently, but abruptly, allowed to drop in partial hyperextension, the following response is observed, EXCEPT: a. The legs flex slightly b. Deviates his mouth to a lateral side c. The hips abduct but to a lesser degree than the arms d. The arms return forward over the body in a clasping maneuver e. The arms briskly abduct and extend while the hands open

B. Deviates his mouth to a lateral side

292. A terminal branch of the internal carotid artery: a. None of these b. Ophthalmic artery c. Middle cerebral artery d. Lenticulostriate arteries

c. Middle cerebral artery

293. The following statements apply to motor aphasia, EXCEPT: a. Spoken language is slow and full of effort with poorly produced sounds b. Lesions is in Broca’s area c. Extreme difficulty in expressing certain grammatical words and phrases d. Poor comprehension of spoken and written language

d. Poor comprehension of spoken and written language

294. The following statements are true of the terminal rotation of the knee, EXCEPT: a. Allows humans with an energy-efficient mechanism a mechanical stability to stand erect without quadriceps muscle contraction b. Terminal rotation is seen as internal rotation of the femur on the fixed tibia in a closed-chain motion c. In the last 20 degrees of knee extension, the tibia externally rotates about 20 degrees on the fixed femur d. It is mechanical event that occurs only in active knee extension and can voluntarily be prevented.

d. It is mechanical event that occurs only in active knee extension and can voluntarily be prevented

295. Flexion and extension occurs in this plane, and divides the body into right and left sides: a. Frontal Plane b. Horizontal Plane c. Sagittal Plane d. None of these

c. Sagittal planes

296. A patient presents with pain and paresthesia over the first two metatarsal heads of her left foot. Pain is worse after prolonged periods of weight bearing. She typically wears shoes with 3-inch heels and pointed toes. The best intervention is: a. Pad placed proximal to metatarsal heads b. Scaphoid pad to support the MLA c. Pad placed distal to metatarsal heads d. Thomas heel to support MLA e. NOTA

a. Pad placed proximal to metatarsal heads

297. A patient with a 2-inch stage II decubitus ulcer over the left lateral malleolus is referred for physical therapy. The PT notes a greenish, pungent exudate at the wound site. The PT decides to use electrical stimulation. The best choice of polarity and electrode placement is: a. Anode placed in the wound b. Cathode placed in the wound c. Anode placed proximal to the wound d. Cathode placed proximal to the wound e. NOTA

b. Cathode placed in the wound

298. A patient in an exercise class develops muscle weakness and fatigue. Examination reveals leg cramps and hyporeflexia. Abnormalities on the ECG include: flat T wave, prolonged QT interval, and depressed ST segment. These findings are suggestive of: a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypocalcemia c. Hypokalemia d. Hyponatremia e. Hypernatremia

c. Hypokalemia

299. A physical therapist is scheduled to treat a patient requiring droplet precautions. What type of protective equipment would be necessary prior to entering the patient’s room? a. Gloves b. Mask c. Gloves and mask d. Gloves, gown, and mask

b. Mask

300. A physical therapist teaches a patient positioned in supine to posteriorly rotate her pelvis. The patient has full active and passive range of motion in the upper extremities, but is unable to achieve full shoulder flexion while maintaining a posterior pelvic tilt. Which of the following could BEST explain this finding? a. Capsular tightness b. Latissimus dorsi tightness c. Pectoralis minor tightness d. Quadratus lumborum tightness

b. Latissimus dorsi tightness

MISC 3 Flashcards

(274 cards)