1
Q
A patient has a very large left-sided bacterial pneumonia. Oxygen level is dangerously low. The body position that would most likely improve the patient’s arterial oxygen pressure is:
A. Left side lying with the head of the bed in flat position
B. Prone with the head of the bed in trendelenburg position
C. Supine with the head of the bed in trendelenburg position
D. Right side lying with the head of the bed in flat position
E. NOTA
A
D. Right side lying with the head of the bed in flat position
2
Q
Which of the following gastrointestinal sources of pain can refer to the midback and scapular region?
A. Gall bladder pain
B. Colon pain
C. Spleen or diaphragmatic pain
D. Esophageal pain
E. Appendix pain
A
A. Gall bladder pain
3
Q
A therapist is working on a cardiac care unit in an acute care facility. During examination of a patient recovering from a ventricular infarct, patient complains of right upper quadrant pain, bloating and fatigue. Patient also demonstrates dependent edema of the ankles. PT suspects:
A. Developing pericarditis
B. Left ventricular failure
C. Tietze Syndrome
D. Right Ventricular Failure
E. Impending MI
A
D. Right Ventricular Failure
4
Q
A patient presents with pain radiating down the posterior hip and thighs as a result of a herniated disc in the lumbar spine. The PT decides to perform a mechanical traction. If the patient cannot tolerate it, the preferred patient position is:
A. Prone with pillow under the abdomen
B. Prone with no pillow
C. Supine, with one knee flexed
D. Supine with both knees flexed
E. Side-lying with both knees flexed
A
A. Prone with pillow under the abdomen
5
Q
A patient recovering from stroke is taking Coumadin. During rehabilitation, it would be important to watch out for potential adverse reactions including:
A. Edema
B. Hematuria
C. Palpitations
D. Ecchymosis
E. Both B & D
A
E. Both B & D
6
Q
A patient with left hemiplegia is able to recognize his wife after she is with him for a while and talks to him, but is unable to recognize the faces of his children when they come to visit. The children are naturally very upset by their father’s behavior. The best explanation for his problem is:
A. Ideational apraxia
B. Ideomotor apraxia
C. Somatagnosia
D. Visual agnosia
E. Anosognosia
A
D. Visual agnosia
7
Q
During an examination, a patient complains of abdominal pain while coughing or with light percussion. The patient also shows referred rebound tenderness. This is most likely indicative of:
A. Ventral hernia
B. Peritoneal inflammation
C. Acute cholecystitis
D. Inflamed appendix
E. Cirrhosis
A
B. Peritoneal inflammation
8
Q
A patient with pain in the right lateral face and head is found to have limited lateral deviation towards the left and has a deflection of the mandible towards the (L) with mouth opening. The likely reason for this is:
A. Decreased flexibility in the muscles of mastication on the left
B. Capsular restriction and interarticular restrictions of the right TMJ
C. Decreased flexibility in the muscles of mastication on the right
D. An anteriorly displaced disc without reduction in the right TMJ
E. An anteriorly displaced disc with reduction in the right TMJ
A
B. Capsular restriction and interarticular restrictions of the right TMJ
9
Q
During an examination of a patient who complains of lower abdominal, flank and costovertebral pain. The origin of pain is most likely the:
A. Sartorius muscle
B. Kidney
C. Hip joint
D. Sacroiliac joint
A
B. Kidney
10
Q
A frail elderly individual is referred to physical therapy for fall risk assessment following a fall in the home. The patient’s timed up and go score is 16 seconds. Based on these results, the therapist determines:
A. Patient’s fall risk is High based on abnormal score
B. Patient’s fall risk is Low based on a mildly abnormal score
C. Patient’s fall risk is Moderate based on a mildly abnormal score
D. Patient’s TUG score is normal for a frail elderly
E. Patient’s fall risk is Moderate based on poor sensory adaptation responses
A
D. Patient’s TUG score is normal for a frail elderly
11
Q
A patient is referred to physical therapy for vestibular rehabilitation. The patient complains of episodic vertigo and nausea. Upon further assessment, patient demonstrates autonomic changes and complaints of blurred vision that occur with head movements that typically stop within 30 seconds once the head is static. Based on these findings, the PT determines that the patient is most likely exhibiting signs and symptoms of:
A. Acute unilateral vestibular dysfunction
B. Meniere’s Disease
C. Acoustic neuroma
D. BPPV
E. NOTA
A
D. BPPV
12
Q
After treating a patient for trochanteric bursitis for 1 week, the patient has no resolution of pain and is complaining of problems with gait. After re-examination, the PT finds weakness of the quadriceps femoris and altered sensation at the greater trochanter, this is most likely due to:
A. L4 nerve root compression
B. L5 nerve root compression
C. Sacroiliac dysfunction
D. Degenerative joint disease of the hip
E. NOTA
A
A. L4 nerve root compression
13
Q
A patient is experiencing sensory changes secondary to left CVA. Upon testing, patient complains of pain on her right hand with the application of cotton. This can be best documented as Patient is experiencing:
A. Abarognosis
B. Analgesia
C. Allodynia
D. Allesthesia
E. Anesthesia
A
C. Allodynia
14
Q
A computer programmer in her second trimester of pregnancy was referred to physical therapy with complaints of tingling and loss of strength in both of her hands. Her symptoms are exacerbated if she is required to use her keyboard at work for longer than 20 minutes. The CONTRAINDICATED physical therapy intervention is:
A. Icepacks to the carpal tunnel
B. Placing the wrists in resting splints
C. Dexamethasone phonophoresis to the carpal tunnel
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
A
C. Dexamethasone phonophoresis to the carpal tunnel
15
Q
A patient with recent trauma presents with restricted movement of the right hand. There is decreased motion at the right PIP joint. To differentiate as to whether this is joint restriction or some type of other tightness (not joint), which examination procedure should be employed?
A. Tight retinacular test
B. Froment’s sign
C. Egawa’s sign
D. Bunnel-Littler test
E. NOTA
A
A. Tight retinacular test
16
Q
Therapist hand/finger placements for PA mobilization techniques to improve down-gliding/closure of T7-T8 facet joints should be located at the:
A. Spinous process of T6
B. Spinous process of T8
C. Transverse process of T8
D. Transverse process of T7
E. AOTA
A
C. Transverse process of T8
17
Q
A patient with a transfemoral amputation and an above-knee prosthesis demonstrates knee instability while standing. The patient’s knee buckles easily when performing weight shifts. The PT suspects the cause of his problem is:
A. Tight extension aid
B. Weak gluteus medius
C. Prosthetic knee set too far anterior to the TKA line
D. Prosthetic knee set too far posterior to the TKA line
E. NOTA
A
C. Prosthetic knee set too far anterior to the TKA line
18
Q
The amount of opening between the teeth that is required for normal everyday activity:
A. 65-74 mm
B. 50-64 mm
C. 25-44 mm
D. 15-24 mm
E. 50-44 mm
A
C. 25-44 mm
19
Q
A patient with hypothyroidism and poor drug compliance is referred to physical therapy following a fall. During exercises, the PT should be alert for exercise-induced:
A. Paresthesia of the lower limbs
B. Elevated cardiac output
C. Myalgia and weakness
D. Sinus tachycardia and arrhythmias
E. Death
A
C. Myalgia and weakness
20
Q
A patient presents with decreased motion at the occipitoatlantal joint. The PT wants to use the principles of coupled motions that occur in that area of the spine during manual therapy techniques. In order to improve OA mobility, when the occiput is side bent to the left, the PT should mobilize C1 into:
A. Rotation to the right
B. Rotation to the left
C. Flexion
D. Extension
E. NOTA
A
A. Rotation to the right
21
Q
After surgery a patient develops a stiff pelvis and limited pelvic/ lower trunk mobility. The PT elects to use sitting exercises on a therapy ball to correct these impairments. In order to improve lower abdominal control, the ball would have to move:
a. Backward, producing anterior tilting of the pelvis
b. Forward, producing posterior tilting of the pelvis
c. Backward, producing anterior tilting of the pelvis
d. Forward, producing anterior tilting of the pelvis
e. AOTA
A
b. Forward, producing posterior tilting of the pelvis
22
Q
Independent community ambulation as the primary means of functional mobility is a realistic functional expectation for a patient with the highest level of complete spinal cord injury (ASIA A) at:
a. T9-T10
b. L4-L5
C. T12-L1
d. T6-T9
e. NOTA
A
b. L4-L5
23
Q
A home care PT receives a referral to evaluate the fall risk potential of an elderly community dweller with chronic coronary artery disease. The patient has fallen three times in the past months, with no history of fall injury except for minor bruising. The patient is currently taking a number of medications, the drug most likely to contribute to dizziness and increased fall risk is:
a. Albuterol
b. Nitroglycerin
c. Colace
d. Coumadin sodium
e. AOTA
A
b. Nitroglycerin
24
Q
To reduce an elderly individual’s chronic forward head posturing in standing and sitting the PT should consider stretching exercises to:
a. Rectus capitis anterior
b. Middel trapezius and rhomboid
c. Longus capitis and longus colli
d. Rectus capitis posterior minor and rectus capitis posterior major
e. AOTA
A
d. Rectus capitis posterior minor and rectus capitis posterior major
25
A patient was burned over 40% of the body in an industrial accident, and has full-thickness burns over the anterior trunk and neck and superficial partial-thickness burns over the shoulders. The procedures of greatest benefit to stabilize this patient out of positions of common deformity include:
a. ACTLSO used during all upright activities
b. Soft cervical collar with an intrinsic plus hand splint
c. Plastic cervical orthosis ad axillary splints utilizing airplane position
d. Splints utilizing a flexed position for the shoulders and body jacket for the trunk
e. NOTA
c. Plastic cervical orthosis ad axillary splints utilizing airplane position
26
An elderly frail resident of an extended care facility has S1 nerve root compression. During a scheduled visit from the PT, the PT recognizes the patient may experience pain in the:
a. Lowback, front of the thigh to the knee
b. Medial thigh and leg
c. Anterior hip, groin or thigh region
d. Buttock, thigh and posterior leg
e. Lower abdomen
d. Buttock, thigh and posterior leg
27
To increase the step length of a patient with a right transfemoral amputation who is taking an inadequate step with the limb, the PT should:
a. Provide anterior-directed resistance to the right PSIS during swing
b. Facilitate the gluteals with tapping over the muscle belly
c. Provide posterior-directed resistance to the left ASIS during swing
d. Provide posterior-directed resistance to the right ASIS during stance
e. AOTA
d. Provide posterior-directed resistance to the right ASIS during stance
28
The therapist tests a pateint's hearing by holding a vibrating tuning fork on the vertex of the head. the patient is asked which ear the sound is heard louder.
This is known as:
a. Rinne's test
b. Schwabach
c. Weber's
d. Caloric
e. Hallpike- Dix
c. Weber's
29
During a gait examination, a patient with a transfemoral prosthesis demonstrates terminal swing impact. Additional examination is needed as the PT
suspects the:
a. Prosthesis has insufficient knee friction
b. Prosthesis has too little tension in the extension aid
c. Hip flexors are weak
d. Prosthesis is externally rotated
e. NOTA
a. Prosthesis has insufficient knee friction
30
A comparison of the effects of exercise in water, on land or combined on the rehabilitation outcome of patients with intra-articular ACL reconstruction
revealed that leess joint effusion was noted after 8 weeks in the water group.an appropriate statistical test to compare the girth measurements of the three groups is:
a. ANOVA
b. T test
c. Spearman rho
d. Analysis of covariance
e. Chi square
a. ANOVA
31
A patient has a recent history of strokes (2 in the past 4 months) and demonstrates good return in the right lower extremity. The PT is concentrating on improving balance and independence in gait. Unfortunately, speech recovery is lagging behind motor recovery. The patient demonstrates a severe fluent aphasia. the best strategy to use during physical therapy:
a. Have the family present to help interpret during PT sessions
b. Demonstrate and gesture to get the idea of the task across
c. Utilize verbal cues emphasizing consistency and repetition
d. Consult with the speech pathologist to establish a communication board
b. Demonstrate and gesture to get the idea of the task across
32
An elderly patient is being treated for depression following the death of her husband. She is currently taking trycyclic antidepressants and monoamine
oxidase inhibitors. Expected adverse reactions form this drug combination include:
a. Hypertension, tachycardia & convulsions
b. Hyperalertness, dyspnea, dryness of mouth
c. Hypotension, blurred vision, lethargy
d. Arrhythmiasm hypotension, blurred vision
e. NOTA
a. Hypertension, tachycardia & convulsions
33
Manual glide of talus posteriorly within the ankle joint mortise can be used as a technique to increase:
a. Distal tibiofibular joint extensibility
b. Talocalcaneal pronation
c. Proximal tibiofibular joint extensibility
d. Talocalcaneal supination
e. Tibiotalar dorsiflexion motion
e. Tibiotalar dorsiflexion motion
34
A patient complains of creeping or crawling sensations in both legs resulting in involuntary movements. The PT suspects:
a. Vascular claudication
b. Peripheral neuropathy
c. Neurogenic claudication
d. Restless leg syndrome
e. Myocionus
d. Restless leg syndrome
35
A patient recovering from cardiac transplantation for end-stage heart failure is referred for exercise training.
The patient is receiving immunosuppressive drug therapy. The therapist recognizes that the patient can:
a. Do low to moderate- intensity resistance training
b. Do aerobic exercises 4-6 times a week
c. do progressive increase in duration of training from 15-60 minutes per session
d. AOTA
e. NOTA
d. AOTA
36
A patient presents with a persistently downwardly rotated and adducted scapula
during humeral
elevation. This is best treated with the stretching of the:
a. Serratus anterior and strengthening of both the levator scapula and lower fibers of the trapezius
muscles
b. Pectoralis major and strengthening of the rhomboid muscles
c. Pectoralis minor and strengthening of trapezius muscle
d. Rhomboid muscle and strengthening of serratus anterior muscle
e. NOTA
d. Rhomboid muscle and strengthening of serratus anterior muscle
37
During an examination of gait, the PT observes lateral pelvic tilt on the side of the swing leg during frontal plane analysis. The PT recognizes this finding functions to:
a. Assist the swing leg
b. Reduce peak rise of the pelvis
c. Reduces the width of the base of support
d. Keeps the COG from rising too much
e. AOTA
b. Reduce peak rise of the pelvis
38
A patient with confirmed right C6 nerve root compression foraminal encroachment complains of pain in the right thumb and index finger. The most effective cervical position to alleviate this radicular pain in weightbearing is:
a. Right rotation
b. Lower cervical flexion
c. Left side bending
d. Lower cervical extension
e. Right side bending
b. Lower cervical flexion
39
Nearly two months ago, a patient noticed left shoulder pain after walking the dog. This pain has progressively worsened. The patient now is unable to move the left upper extremity overhead while performing ADLs. Am orthopedic surgeon diagnosed the problem as Adhesive Capsulitis. The most effective direction for Glenogumeral mobilization for this patient would be:
a. Posterosuperior translatory glides
b. Anterospuerior translatoryglides
c. Postroinferior translatory glides
d. Anteroinferior translatory glides
e. Inferior translator glides
c. Postroinferior translatory glides
40
A retired patient is referred to a cardiac exercise group after a mild Mi. from the intake questionnaire; the PT learns the patient has Type I Insulin-Dependent DM, controlled with twice daily insulin injection. In order to minimize the risk of a hypoglycemic event during exercise, the PT should have the patient do the following:
a. Exercise daily with 20 minutes duration, twice a day
b. Ask patient to at carbohydrate snack before and during prolonged exercise bouts
c. Monitor blood glucose levels carefully and frequently throughout the day
d. Avoid exercise during periods of peak insulin activity
e. AOTA
e. AOTA
41
A PT is applying a symmetrical biphasic pulsed current to the vastus medialis to improve patellar tracking during knee extension. The patient complains that the current is uncomfortable. To make the current more tolerable to the patient, yet maintain a good therapeutic effect, the PT should consider adjusting the:
a. Pulse rate
b. Current polarity
c. Frequency
d. Pulse width
e. Current intensity
d. Pulse width
42
A patient is referred for post mastectomy rehabilitation. During the initial examination, the PT observes pin-point round spots on the patient's right thigh. The PT should document this finding as:
a. Papule
b. Petechiae
c. Benign nevus
d. Atypical dysplastic nevus
e. Wheal
b. Petechiae
43
A patient with a 10-year history of Multiple Sclerosis demonstrates 3+ extensor tone in both lower extremities. The PT needs to order a wheelchair. It would be best to recommend a(n):
a. Electric wheelchair with toe loops
b. Standard wheelchair with elevating leg rests
c. Standard wheelchair with a 30° reclining back
d. Tilt-in-space wheelchair with a pelvic belt
e. AOTA
d. Tilt-in-space wheelchair with a pelvic belt
44
After an ST-elevated Myocardial Infarction 3 days ago, under what circumstances should a patient be administered an exercise stress test?
a. An exercise stress test should not be performed for this patient
b. Only a symptom-limited exercise test should be performed
c. Heart rate equal to 85% age-predicted maximum
d. Heart rate equal to 70% age-predicted maximum
e. NOTA
d. Heart rate equal to 70% age-predicted maximum
45
During an initial interview and examination, a patient with a right CVA is found to have Somatoagnosia. The PT correctly identifies that Somatoagnosia means:
a. The patient has denial or neglect of the left extremity
b. Patient cannot recognize his wife
c. Patient cannot locate buttons in a shirt
d. Patient cannot point to his chin when instructed
d. Patient cannot point to his chin when instructed
46
A patient presents with supraspinatus tendinitis. After initial cryotherapy, the PT decides to apply US. To expose the tendon under the acromion process, the PT should place the shoulder joint in:
a. Slight adduction and IR
b. Slight abduction and ER
c. Slight abduction and IR
d. Extension and IR
e. Slight abduction and IR
e. Slight abduction and IR
47
A patient is recovering from a left total hip replacement (posterolateral incision, cementless fixation). The most appropriate type of bed-to-wheelchair transfer to teach is:
a. Squat-pivot transfer to the (L)
b. Stand-pivot transfer to the (R) with some hip extension
c. Stand-pivot transfer to the (L)
d. Lateral slide transfer to the (L) using a transfer board
e. Stand-pivot transfer to the (R) with full flexion
b. Stand-pivot transfer to the (R) with some hip extension
48
A patient with transtibial amputation is learning to walk using a patellar tendon-bearing prosthesis. The PT wants to strengthen the muscles maximally active at initial contact to stabilize the knee and coutneract the flexion moment:
a. Hip flexors
b. Back extensors
c. Knee flexors
d. Knee extensors
e. Hip extensors
d. Knee extensors
49
A patient has been referred to physical therapy with a diagnosis of cervicogenic headaches shows droopy eyelid, pinpoint pupil, and lack of sweating on the same side of the face. What condition is the concern of the therapist?
a. Bell's palsy
b. Myasthenia gravis
c. Tic douloureux
d. Horner's syndrome
e. Balint's syndrome
d. Horner's syndrome
50
A patient presents with weakness in the right lower leg 3 weeks after a motor vehicle accident. Muscle bulk is reduced with a 1-inch girth difference. Reflexes and tone are diminished. The patient is exhibiting:
a. Brainstem dysfunction affecting extrapyramidal
b. Pyramidal dysfunction in the medulla
c. Guillain-Barre Syndrome
d. Poliomyelitis
e. Peripheral nerve injury
e. Peripheral nerve injury
51
While examining a patient diagnosed with Achilles tendonitis, a physical therapist notes that the foot and ankle appear to be pronated. Which motions combine to create pronation in a weight bearing foot?
a. Abduction, dorsiflexion, eversion
b. Adduction, dorsiflexion, inversion
c. Abduction, plantar flexion, eversion
d. Adduction, plantar flexion, eversion
d. Adduction, plantarflexion, eversion
52
A physical therapist treats an infant diagnosed with torticollis with marked lateral flexion of the neck to the left. As part of the infant's plan of care the therapist performs passive stretching. The MOST appropriate stretch is:
a. Lateral flexion to the right and rotation to the right
b. Lateral flexion to the left and rotation to the left
c. Lateral flexion to the right and rotation to the left
d. Lateral flexion to the left and rotation to the right
d. Lateral flexion to the left, rotation to the right
53
A Physical therapist completes a cranial nerve assessment on a patient with a suspected neurological injury by using a tongue depressor. Which cranial nerves are MOST commonly assessed?
1. VII
2. VIII
3. IX
4. X
5. XI
a. 1,3
b. 3,4
c. 4,5
d. 1,2
b. 3,4
54
A 66-year-old female is referred with rheumatoid arthritis. During the examination the therapist notes flexion at the DIP joints and hyperextension at the PIP joints. This deformity is MOST representative of:
a. Boutonniere deformity
b. Mallet finger
c. Swan neck deformity
d. Ulnar drift
c. Swan neck deformity
55
. A physical therapist employed in a subacute rehab facility works on community re-integration prior to discharging a 72-year-old patient to their home. Which aspect of gait should be focused on to ensure the patient's ability to safely cross the street?
a. Step length
b. Velocity
c. Cadence
d. Ulnar Drift
b. Velocity
56
A patient recently admitted to an acute care hospita; is referred to physical therapist. The physical therapist documents the following clinical signs: pallor, cyanosis, and cool skin. These clinical signs are most consistent with:
a. Cor Pulmonale
b. Anemia
c. Hypertension
d. Diaphoresis
b. Anemia
57
A patient presents to the emergency room with multiple burns on their upper extremity and chest. The wounds all appear dry, vary in size, and are poorly defined. Examination reveals irregular cardiac rhythm. MOST likely source:
a. Friction burn
b. Chemical burn
c. Electrical burn
d. Radiation burn
c. Electrical burn
58
A physical therapist works with a patient in an acute care hospital to treat a painful, slow healing wound on the medial lower leg. The patient's leg is swollen and appears dark red/purple in color with thickened skin. Which of tghe following conditions MOST likely contributed to this type of wound?
a. Diabetes
b. Arterial insufficiency
c. Venous insufficiency
d. Prolonged pressure
c. Venous insufficiency
59
A physical therapist selects an assistive device for a patient with traumatic brain injury. The patient is occasionally impulsive, but has fair standing balance and good upper and lower extremity strength. MOST appropriate device:
a. Cane
b. Axillary crutches
c. Lofstrand crutches
d. Walker
d. Walker
60
60. A patient exercising in the PT gym reports chest pain. After resting 20 minutes the patient's conditioon is unchanged, howeverm he isnsits it is something that he can work through. The most appropriate therapist action is
a. Allow the patient to resume exercise and continue to monitor the patient;s condition
b. Reduce the intensity of exercise and continue to monitor the patient's condition
c. Discontinue th treatment session and encourage te patient to make an appointment with his physician
d. Discontinue the treatment session and call an ambulance
d. Discontinue the treatment session and call an ambulance
61
A patient two weeks status post transtibial amputation is instructed by his physician to remain at rest for two days after contracting bronchitis. The MOST appropriate position for the patient in bed is:
a. supine with a pillow under the patient's knees
b. supine with a pillow under the patient's thigh and knees
c. supine with the legs extended
d. sidelying in the fetal position
c. supine with the legs extended
62
A 42-year-old female is admitted to a rehabilitation hospital after sustaining a stroke. During the examination the physical therapist identifies significant sensory deficits in the anterolateral spinothalamic system. Which sensation would be
MOST affected?
a. Barognosis
b. Kinesthesia
c. Graphesthesia
d. Temperature
d. Temperature
63
A physical therapist attempts to improve a patient's lower-extremity strength. Which proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation technique would be the MOST appropriate to achieve the therapist’s goals?
a. contract-relax
b. repeated contractions
c. rhythmic stabilization
d. hold-relax
b. repeated contractions
64
A patient is positioned in supine with the hips flexed to 90 degrees and the knees extended. As the patient slowly lowers her extended leg toward the horizontal, there is an increase in lordosis of the low back. This finding is indicative of weakness of the:
a. Hip flexors
b. Back extensors
c. Hip extensors
d. Abdominals
d. Abdominals
65
A physical therapist employed in a school setting observes a 6-year-old boy attempt to move from the floor to a standing position. During the activity, the boy has to push on his legs with his hands in order to attain an upright position. This type of finding is MOST commonly associated with:
a. Cystic fibrosis
b. Down syndrome
c. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
d. Spinal muscular atrophy
c. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
66
A physical therapist assesses a patient with significant biceps brachii weakness and suspects there may be underlying neurological damage that is causing the weakness. Damage to which portion of the brachial plexus would MOST likely explain this finding?
a. Lateral cord
b. Posterior cord
c. Medial cord
d. Anterior cord
a. Lateral cord
67
A physical therapist attempts to identify an appropriatelu sized wheelchair for a patient recently referred to a rehabilitation hosptial. The physical therapist determines that the patient’s hip width in sitting and the measurement from the back of the buttocks to the popliteal space are each 16 inches. Given these measurements, which of the followin gwheelchair specifications would BEST fit this patient?
a. Seat width 16 inches, seat depth 14 inches
b. Seat width 18 inches, seat depth 18 inches
c. Seat width 16 inches, seat depth 18 inches
d. Seat width 18 inches, seat depth 14 inches
d. Seat width 18 inches, seat depth 14 inches
68
A physical therapist conducts an examination on a patient with suspected ulnar nerve palsy. Which finding is MOST consistent with the hypothesized diagnosis?
a. Wasting of the hypothenar eminence
b. Wrist drop with increased flexion of the wrist
c. Increased flexion of the metacarpophalangeal joint
d. Proximal interphalangeal joint hyperextension and slight flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint
a. Wasting of the hypothenar eminence
69
A patient with right hemiplegia is observed during gait training. The patient performs side stepping towards the hemiplegic side. The physical therapist may expect the patient to compensate for weakened abductors by:
a. Hip hiking of the unaffected side
b. Lateral trunk flexion towards the affected side
c. Lateral trunk flexion towards the unaffected side
d. Hip extension of the affected side
c. Lateral trunk flexion towards the unaffected side
70
A patient diagnosed with an incomplete spinal cord lesion presents with muscle paralysis on the ipsilateral side of the lesion and a loss of pain, temperature, and sensitivity on the contralateral side of the lesion. This presentation BEST describes:
a. Posterior cord syndrome
b. Central cord syndrome
c. Anterior cord syndrome
d. Brown-Séquard syndrome
d. Brown-Séquard syndrome
71
A physical therapist treats a pt c a diagnosis of gouty arthritis. This medical condition would be MOST likely produce sujective reports of pain afecting the:
a. Hip
b. Knee
c. Ankle
d. Toe
d. Toe
72
A physical therapist treats a patient with a fractured left hip. The patient is weight bearing as tolerated and uses a large base quad cane for gait activitics. Correct use of the quad cane would include:
a. Using the quad cane on the left with the longer legs positioned away from the patient
b. Using the quad cane on the right with the longer legs positioned away from the patient
c. Using the quad cane on the left with the longer legs positioned toward the patient
d. Using the quad cane on the right with the longer legs positioned toward the patient
b. Using the quad cane on the right with the longer legs positioned away from the patient
73
A 21-year-old female is examined in physical therapy after sustaining a grade lankle sprain two days ago in a marching band competition. The patient's description of the mechanism of injury is consistent with inversion and plantar flexion. Which of the following ligaments would MOST likely be affected?
a. Anterior talofibular ligament
b. Calcaneofibular ligament
c. Anterior tibiofibular ligament
d. Deltoid ligament
a. Anterior talofibular ligament
74
A physical therapist examines a patient referred to physical therapy diagnosed with anterior compartment syndrome. The patient presents with an inability to dorsiflex the foot and a mild sensory disturbance between the first and second toes. The nerve MOST likely involved is the:
a. Deep peroneal nerve
b. Medial plantar nerve
c. Tibial nerve
d. Lateral plantar nerve
a. Deep peroneal nerve
75
A physical therapist attempts to select an appropriate intervention to treat a patient with a 10 degree limitation in knee extension. Which of the following mobilization techniques would be indicated?
a. Lateral glide of the patella
b. Caudal glide of the patella
c. Posterior glide of the tibia
d. Anterior glide of the tibia
d. Anterior glide of the tibia
76
A physical therapist orders a wheelchair for a patient with C4 tetraplegia. Which wheelchair would be the MOST appropriate for the patient?
a. manual wheelchair with friction surface handrims
b. manual wheelchair with handrim projections
c. power wheelchair with sip and puff controls
d. power wheelchair with joystick controls
c. power wheelchair with sip and puff controls
77
A physical therapist administers the Functional Reach Test to a patient rehabilitating from a neurological disorder. Which bony landmark would be the MOST appropriate to utilize when formally measuring the distance the patient reached during each trial?
a. Distal tip of the 3rd digit
b. Third metacarpal
c. Radial styloid process
d. Ulnar styloid process
b. Third metacarpal
78
A physical therapist examines a patient diagnosed with patellofemoral syndrome. As part of the examination the therapist elects to measure the patient's Q angle. Which three bony landmarks are used to measure the Q angle?
a. Anterior superior iliac spine, superior border of the patella, tibial tubercle
b. Anterior superior iliac spine, midpoint of the patella, tibial tubercle
c. Anterior superior iliac spine, inferior border of the patella, midpoint of the patella tendon
d. Greater trochanter, midpoint of the patella, tibial tubercle
b. Anterior superior iliac spine, midpoint of the patella, tibial tubercle
79
A physical therapist instructs a patient to make a fist.
The patient can make a fist, but is unable to flex the distal phalanx of the ring finger. This clinical finding can BEST be explained by:
a. a ruptured flexor carpi radialis tendon
b. a ruptured flexor digitorum superficialis tendon
c. a ruptured flexor digitorum profundus tendon
d. a ruptured extensor digitorum communis tendon
c. a ruptured flexor digitorum profundus tendon
80
A patient has weakness of the quadriceps secondary to a femoral nerve Injury. When examining the patient's gait from heel strike to foot flat, the physical therapist would MOST likely observe the patient compensate for their injury by:
a. Using excessive dorsiflexion
b. Leaning the trunk forward
c. Using excessive knee flexion
d. Vaulting on the contralateral limb
b. Leaning the trunk forward
81
A physical therapist assesses a patient's sensation of light touch in the lower extremities. The therapist documents that the patient has impaired sensation of the entire right leg, yet normal sensation of the left leg. Which injury is MOST likely present?
a. compression of a lower extremity peripheral nerve
b. compression of a lumbar nerve root
C. spinal cord transection
d. left hemisphere stroke
d. left hemisphere stroke
82
A physical therapist examines several superficial reflexes on a patient diagnosed with an upper motor neuron lesion. When assessing the cremasteric reflex the MOST appropriate stimulus is:
a. stroke the skin beneath the costal margins and above the inguinal ligament
b. stroke the skin of the superior and medial thigh
c. prick the skin of the perianal region
d. prick the skin of the glans penis
b. stroke the skin of the superior and medial thigh
83
A patient is unable to take in an adequate supply of nutrients by mouth due to the side effects of radiation therapy. As a result, the patient's physician orders the implementation of tube feeding. What type of tube is MOST commonly used for short-term feeding?
a. Endobronchial
b. Nasogastric
c. Endotracheal
d. Tracheostomy
b. Nasogastric
84
A physical therapist reviews the results of a pulmonary function test for a 58-year-old male patient recently admitted to the hospital. The therapist notes that the patient's total lung capacity is significantly increased when compared to established norms.
Which medical condition would MOST likely produce this type of result?
a. chronic bronchitis
b. emphysema
c. spinal cord injury
d. pulmonary fibrosis
b. emphysema
85
A physical therapist treats a female patient with multiple sclerosis for impaired balance and coordination. The patient reports that since being diagnosed four years ago, her symptoms have gradually gotten worse without any plateau or lessening in severity. Which terminology would MOST accurately describe the patient's disease course?
a. relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis
b. primary-progressive multiple sclerosis
C. secondary-progressive multiple sclerosis
d. progressive-relapsing multiple sclerosis
b. primary-progressive multiple sclerosis
86
A physical therapist observing a patient complete a leg cur exercise notices two prominent tendons visible on the posterior surface of the patient's left knee. The visible medial and lateral tendons are MOST likely associated with the:
a. Semimembranosus and semitendinosus muscles
b. semitendinosus and biceps femoris muscles
c. popliteus and semitendinosus muscles
d. semimembranosus and biceps femoris muscles
b. semitendinosus and biceps femoris muscles
87
A physical therapist administers ultrasound over a patient's anterior thigh. After one minute of treatment, the patient reports feeling a slight burning sensation under the soundhead. The therapist's MOST appropriate action is to:
a. explain to the patient that what she feels is not out of the ordinary when using ultrasound
b. temporarily discontinue treatment and examine the amount of coupling agent utilized
c. discontinue treatment and contact the referring physician
d. continue with treatment utilizing the current parameters
b. temporarily discontinue treatment and examine the amount of coupling agent utilized
88
A physical therapist instructs a patient to close her eyes and hold out her hand. The therapist places a series of different weights in the patient's hand one at a time. The patient is then asked to identify the comparative weight of the objects. This method of sensory testing is used to examine:
a. Barognosis
b. Graphesthesia
c. recognition of texture
d. stereognosis
a. Barognosis
89
A physical therapist examines a patient diagnosed with left-sided heart failure. Which finding is NOT typically associated with this condition?
a. pulmonary edema
b. persistent cough
С. dependent edema
d. muscular weakness
С. dependent edema
90
A patient two days status post arthrotomy of the knee completes a quadriceps setting exercise while lying supine on a mat table. During the exercise the patient begins to experience severe pain. The MOST appropriate physical therapist action is:
a. have the patient perform the exercise in sidelying
b. have the patient flex the knee prior to initiating the exercise
C. place a pillow under the ankle
d. discontinue the exercise
d. discontinue the exercise
91
A physical therapist inspects a patient's wound prior to applying a dressing. When documenting the findings in the medical record, the therapist classifies the exudate from the wound as serous. Based on the documentation, the MOST likely color of the exudate is:
a. Clear
b. Pink
c. Red
d. Yellow
a. Clear
92
A physical therapist participates in a community-based screening program designed to identify individuals with osteoporosis. Which group would have the HIGHEST risk for developing osteoporosis?
a. Caucasian females over the age of 60
b. African American females over the age of 60
c. Caucasian females under the age of 40
d. African American females under the age of 40
a. Caucasian females over the age of 60
93
A physical therapist uses the Six-Minute Walk Test as a means of quantifying functional status in a patient with heart disease. During testing the patient expresses to the physical therapist that they need to rest. The MOST appropriate physical therapist action is to:
a. allow the patient to rest, however, stop the elapsed time during the rest period
b. allow the patient to rest, however, allow the elapsed time to continue
c. allow the patient to rest, however, discontinue the test
d. offer encouragement to the patient in order to avoid or delay the rest period
b. allow the patient to rest, however, allow the elapsed time to continue
94
A patient diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis exhibits a forward stooped posture. As part of the patient's care plan the physical therapist selects a number of active exercises that promote improved posture. Which proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation pattern would be the MOST appropriate to achieve the therapist's objective?
a. D1 extension
b. D1 flexion
C. D2 extension
d. D2 flexion
d. D2 flexion
95
A physical therapist reviews the medical record of a patient diagnosed with peripheral arterial disease prior to initiating treatment. Which objective finding would MOST severely limit the patient's ability to participate in an ambulation exercise program?
a. Signs of resting claudication
b. Decreased peripheral pulses
c. Cool skin
d. Blood pressure of 165/90 mm Hg
a. Signs of resting claudication
96
A seven-year-old boy sitting in the physical therapy waiting area suddenly grasps his throat and appears to be in distress. The boy slowly stands, but is obviously unable to breathe. The physical therapist recognizing the signs of an airway obstruction should administer:
a. Abdominal thrusts
b. Chest thrusts
c. Rescue breathing
d. Finger sweep
a. Abdominal thrusts
97
A patient diagnosed with patellofemoral syndrome discusses his past medical history with a physical therapist. The patient reports having anterior ruciate ligament reconstruction surgery on his right knee two years ago, however, the therapist is not able to identify a scar over the anterior surface of the right knee. Assuming the surgeon utilized an autograft for the reconstruction, which of the following would be the MOST likely graft site?
a. Semitendinosus and semimembranosus
b. Semitendinosus and gracilis
с. Semimembranosus and gracilis
d. Semitendinosus and biceps femoris
b. Semitendinosus and gracilis
98
A physical therapist treats a patient with right medial epicondylitis. When positioning the patient's ulnohumeral joint in the loose packed position, the therapist should allow for:
a. Full extension
b. 70 degrees flexion, 10 degrees supination
c. 70 degrees flexion, 35 degrees supination
d. Full extension, full supination
b. 70 degrees flexion, 10 degrees supination
99
A physical therapist examines the reflex status of a patient. The therapist should use which technique to assess the patient's superficial reflexes?
a. Brushing the skin with a light, feathery object
b. Passive joint range of motion
c. Stroking the skin with a non-cutting, but pointed object
d. Tapping over a muscle tendon
c. Stroking the skin with a non-cutting, but pointed object
100
A physical therapist elects to use mechanical lumbar traction for a patient rehabilitating from a back injury. The therapeutic goals of the session include decreasing the patient's muscle spasm. The MOST appropriate force based on the stated objective would be:
a. 10% of body weight
b. 15% of body weight
c. 25% of body weight
d. 50% of body weight
c. 25% of body weight
101
During a treatment session, the PT simulates the need for the client to walk up stairs to a kitchen with a painful/weak right leg. The patient should be instructed to move the
a. Left leg up to the next step with the cane
b. Right leg up to the next step with the cane
c. Right leg up and then his left leg/cane
d. Left leg up and then his right leg/cane
d. Left leg up and then his right leg/cane
102
During the opening of a patient’s mouth, a palpable and audible click is discovered in the left temporomandibular joint. The physician informs the therapist that the patient has an anteriorly dislocated disk. This click most likely signifies that
a. The condyle is sliding posteriorly to obtain normal relationship with the disk
b. The condyle is sliding anteriorly and losing normal relationship with the disk
c. The condyle is sliding anteriorly to obtain normal relationship with the disk
d. The condyle is sliding posteriorly and losing normal relationship with the disk
c. The condyle is sliding anteriorly to obtain normal relationship with the disk
103
Osteochondritis dissecans occurs most commonly in:
a. Medial femoral condyle
b. Lateral femoral condyle
c. Capitellum
d. Humeral condyle
a. Medial femoral condyle
104
The physical therapist is reading the physician’s interpretation of an x-ray that was taken of the left humerus of a 7-year-old patient. The physician notes in the report the presence of an incomplete fracture on the convex side of the humerus. Which type of fracture is the physician describing?
a. Comminuted
b. Avulsion
c. Segmental
d. Greenstick
d. Greenstick
105
A child presents to physical therapy with a diagnosis of right Sever’s disease. What joint should be the focus of the therapist’s examination?
a. Right knee joint
b. Right hip joint
c. Right ankle joint
d. Right wrist joint
c. Right ankle joint
106
A patient has recently undergone an acromioplasty. What is the most important goal in early rehabilitation?
a. Regaining muscle strength
b. Return of normal ROM
c. Return to activities of daily living (ADLs)
d. Endurance and functional progression
b. Return of normal ROM
107
Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to initiation of an outpatient cardiac rehabilitation program?
a. Asthma
b. Obesity
c. Third degree heart block
d. CHF
c. Third degree heart block
108
The term that refers to the process of providing information to individuals to assist them in the decision-making process about their own health care is:
a. Informed consent
b. Beneficence
c. Fidelity
d. Autonomy
a. Informed consent
109
During a home health visit, the physical therapist observed several items that require modification in the home of an elderly patient. In terms of priority, the environmental hazard that needs the most immediate attention is:
a. A throw rug
b. The cracked toilet seat
c. A malfunctioning thermostat
d. A cluttered kitchen
a. A throw rug
110
In terminal swing phase of gait, what muscles of the foot and ankle are active?
a. Gastrocnemius
b. Tibialis posterior
c. Flexor hallucis longus
d. AOTA
e. NOTA
e. NOTA
111
Which is the LEAST likely cause of dementia in the elderly?
a. Depression
b. Stroke
c. Alzheimer’s disease
d. Cerebrovascular accident
a. Depression
112
Excessive femoral anteversion in children may result in all of the following EXCEPT (✔):
I. Increased hip internal rotation ROM ↑
II. Reduced hip abductor moment ↑
III. Decreased external rotation range of motion ↑
IV. Increased external rotation range of motion ROM F
V. Toeing in during gait ↑
a. I and III
b. II and IV
c. I, II, III
d. AOTA
e. NOTA
e. NOTA
113
What is the normal TMJ arthrokinematics for wide opening?
a. Bilateral translation
b. Combination of anterior translation occurs first 26 mm then rotation
c. Combination of rotation occurs first 26 mm then anterior translation
d. Bilateral rotation
c. Combination of rotation occurs first 26 mm then anterior translation
114
A patient starting to use antihypertensive medications must be observed when getting up or leaving a warm therapeutic pool in order to avoid an episode of:
a. Dysrhythmias
b. Skeletal muscle weakness
c. Bradycardia
d. Orthostatic hypotension
d. Orthostatic hypotension
115
Which one of the following conditions is characterized by reduced osteoclastic bone resorption?
a. Paget’s disease
b. Osteopetrosis
c. Osteomalacia
d. Osteoporosis
b. Osteopetrosis
116
In most cases, it is considered safe to apply ultrasound over or near:
a. Cemented and plastic implants
b. A pacemaker
c. Reproductive organs
d. Metal screws, plates and implants
d. Metal screws, plates and implants
117
The highest level of spinal cord injury at which you would expect a client to become independent in all self-care and driving with equipment would be:
a. C5
b. C6
c. C7
d. C8
b. C6
118
At what point of the gait cycle is the center of gravity (COG) the highest?
a. Double support
b. Terminal swing
c. Deceleration
d. Midstance
d. Midstance
119
In the single leg stance, when the contralateral hip drops because of weakness, it is considered
a. A compensated hip varus
b. An uncompensated hip varus
c. A compensated Trendelenburg
d. An uncompensated Trendelenburg
d. An uncompensated Trendelenburg
120
To decrease the risk of hypoglycemia in a patient with type I insulin-dependent diabetes, which of the following is inappropriate?
a. Eat or drink a snack high in carbohydrates 30 minutes before exercise.
b. Exercise muscles that have not had an insulin injection recently.
c. A carbohydrate snack for each 30 to 45 minutes of exercise.
d. Exercise at the peak time of insulin effect.
d. Exercise at the peak time of insulin effect.
121
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141
The ulnar collateral ligament of the elbow is injured during which phase of the baseball pitch?
A. Acceleration phase
B. Early cocking phase
C. Late cocking phase
D. Deceleration phase
E. NOTA
C. Late cocking phase
142
During ambulation, a physical therapist notices that the patient is exhibiting genu recurvatum during the stance phase of the gait cycle. Of the choices, the MOST LIKELY cause for the observed gait deviation is
A. A tight gluteus maximus
B. Tight hip flexors
C. A tight gastrocnemius-soleus complex
D. Tight ankle dorsiflexors
E. NOTA
C. A tight gastrocnemius-soleus complex
143
What is the BEST strategy to communicate with a patient diagnosed with Wernicke's aphasia?
A. Use a writing board for communication,
B. Correct patient errors frequently to assist in his learning strategies.
C. Use easier "who/what/when" questions.
D. Attend to nonverbal behaviors and the emotional content of the message.
D. Attend to nonverbal behaviors and the emotional content of the message.
144
A physical therapist is using a cold pack to decrease inflammation after a therapeutic exercise session. Which of the following areas needs to be monitored most closely during the ice pack application?
A. Medial knee
B. Lumbar area
C. Quadriceps area
D. Acromioclavicular joint
E. NOTA
E. NOTA
145
A therapist is attempting to open the spastic and flexed hand of a patient who has suffered a recent stroke. Which of the following does not inhibit hand opening?
A. Apply direct pressure to the thenar eminence.
B. Hyperextend the metacarpophalangeal joint.
C. Touching the interossei.
D. Apply direct pressure to the hypothenar eminence.
E. NOTA
E. NOTA
146
A patient who suffered a myocardial infarction is participating in an exercise test. The therapist notes ST-segment depression of 1.7 mm on the patient's current rhythm strip. What is the most appropriate course of action?
A. Stop the exercise session immediately and send the patient to the emergency room.
B. Continue with the exercise session
C. Contact the patient's cardiologist about continuing exercise.
D. Stop the exercise session to take the patient's heart rate and blood pressure.
B. Continue with the exercise session
147
What side effect is shared by all benzodiazepine agents?
A. Sedation
B. Muscle weakness
C. Hypertension
D. Cross-sensitivity with penicillin-derived antibiotics
A. Sedation
148
What is the most likely cause of anterior pelvic tilt during initial contact (heel strike)?
A. Tight hamstrings
B. Weak abductors
C. Weak abdominals
D. Back pain
C. Weak abdominals
149
The intensity of an infrared or ultraviolet lamp is greatest when the lamp is
A. Positioned closer to the patient at a 45 degree angle
B. Positioned closer to the patient at a 90 degree angle (perpendicular to skin)
C. Positioned further from the patient at a 90 degree angle (perpendicular to skin)
D. Radiating the skin through a sheet or thin towel
B. Positioned closer to the patient at a 90 degree angle (perpendicular to skin)
150
A 3-year-old male sustains a femur fracture after falling off his bike. He received an open reduction internal fixation (ORIF) yesterday. The MD writes an order for PT examination and treatment. He is cleared to ambulate non-weight bearing (NWB) on the affected extremity. The patient's insurance, however, will only authorize one piece of equipment. What is the most appropriate assistive device for this patient?
A. Front wheeled walker
B. Axillary crutches
C. Posterior walker
D. Wheelchair
E. NOTA
D. Wheelchair
151
A person with some type of blindness denies her condition. What is probably her diagnosis?
A. Munchausen's syndrome
B. Patrick's syndrome
C. Anton's syndrome
D. Central achromatopsia
C. Anton's syndrome
152
Field workers exposed to a plant toxin develop painful fluid filled blisters. Analysis of the blister fluid reveals high concentrations of a peptide. Which of the following is a peptide that causes increased capillary permeability and edema?
A. Bradykinin
B. Captopril & Inhibitor
C. Angiotensin Il
D. Histamine
A. Bradykinin
153
Likely causative agent in poisoning/intoxication from improperly canned food
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Clostridium perfringens
C. Clostridium botulinum
D. Vibrio cholera
C. Clostridium botulinum
154
The patient bumped her toe on table which caused excessive extension of the 1st metatarsophalangeal joint. This condition is called:
A. Claw foot
B. Hallux rigidus
C. Turf toe
D. Mallet toe
C. Turf toe
155
Medical Procedure to release a tendon from surrounding adhesions
A. Tendon Graft
B. Tenolysis
C. Tendon Repair
D. Tendon transfer
B. Tenolysis
156
Ollier's disease:
A. A genetic disease in which bones fracture easily, often with no obvious cause or minimal injury
B. A rare inherited disorder whereby the bones harden, becoming denser.
C. A condition that causes benign growths, or enchondromas, to develop in the bone cartilage
D. A condition that leads to weakened bone due to lack of vitamin D
C. A condition that causes benign growths, or enchondromas, to develop in the bone cartilage
157
Why is Vitamin D essential for children with Rickets?
A. Vitamin D increases osteoclastic activity
B. Vitamin D is needed for calcium to be absorbed in the GIT
C. Vitamin D helps in formation of collagen
D. Vitamin D makes protein for blood clotting and building of bones
B. Vitamin D is needed for calcium to be absorbed in the GIT
158
In doing this test, patient shows nystagmus, light headedness, dizziness, and visual disturbances when fully in supine and head and neck rotation to right or left
A. Barre Louie Sign
B. DeBoyd Test
C. Bakody's Sign
D Static Vertebral Artery Test
D Static Vertebral Artery Test
159
During the opening of a patient's mouth, a palpable and audible click is discovered in the left temporomandibular joint. The physician informs the therapist that the patient has an anteriorly dislocated disk. This click most likely signifies that:
A. The condyle is sliding anteriorly to obtain normal relationship with the disk
B. The condyle is sliding posteriorly to obtain normal relationship with the disk
C. The condyle is sliding anteriorly and losing normal relationship with the disk
D. The condyle is sliding posteriorly and losing normal relationship with the disk
A. The condyle is sliding anteriorly to obtain normal relationship with the disk
160
Skin changes associated with aging has the greatest effect on wound healing.
A.Reduction of sensation
B. Decrease elasticity
C. Changes in pigmentation
D. Decrease epidermal proliferation
B. Decrease elasticity
161
The client was told to put his knees on the chair and bend forward to reach the floor. What does this special test measure or indicate?
A. Malingering
B. Spondylosis
C. Spondylolisthesis
A. Malingering
162
UE Prosthesis in children (in months):
A. 6
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
A. 6
163
Tiny purple spots of bleeding under the skin or in the mucous membranes.
A. ecchymosis
B. purpura
C. petechiae
C. petechiae
164
Nerve affected in wrist slashing / anterior wrist laceration:
A. median nerve
B. ulnar nerve
C. radial nerve
D. axillary nerve
A. median nerve
165
A patient is difficult to arouse and falls asleep without constant stimulation from the therapist. Even when the patient is aroused, he has difficulty interacting with the physical therapist. What would be the BEST description of the patient’s level of arousal?
A. Stupor
B. Lethargic
C. Obtunded
D. Alert
C. Obtunded
166
Bacteriostatic agents:
A. inhibit bacterial cell division
B. inhibit young bacterial cell growth
C. kills bacteria
D. always target the cell membrane of bacteria
B. inhibit young bacterial cell growth
167
Which of the following is a side effect of carbamazepine?
A. Thirst
B. Dizziness
C. Cleared vision
D. Insomnia
B. Dizziness
168
Antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis:
A. Beta-lactam antibiotics
B. Aminoglycosides
C. Erythromycin
D. Tetracyclines
A. Beta-lactam antibiotics
169
This is a surgical procedure used to remove fatty deposits/plaques from the carotid artery.
A. Endarterectomy
B. Balloon angioplasty
C. CABG
D. Intra-carotid bypass
A. Endarterectomy
170
The discovery of this drug began the era of antibiotics and has been recognized as one of the greatest advances in therapeutic medicine.
A. opium
B. warfarin
C. penicillin
D. naloxone
C. penicillin
171
All of the following are pressure-prone areas when sitting in the wheelchair, except:
A. Elbow
B. Heel
C. Scapula
D. Ischium
A. Elbow
172
What reflex results in increased leg extensor tones when the client bounces on the sole of his feet several times?
A. Moro
B. Body Righting
C. Negative Support Reaction
D. Positive Support Reaction
D. Positive Support Reaction
173
What branch of the median nerve is spared in CTS because it does not pass through the carpal tunnel?
A. palmar cutaneous branch
B. motor branch
C. anterior interosseous nerve
D. sensory branch
A. palmar cutaneous branch
174
Contraindication to THR:
A. Sepsis / Systemic disease
B. Progressive nerve disorder
C. Fast degenerative bone disease
A. Sepsis / Systemic disease
175
CRPS can be caused by the following, except:
A. CVA
B. MI
C. Major surgery
D. PNI
E. NOTA
E. NOTA
176
Shoulder-hand syndrome typically occurs how long post-stroke?
A. 1–6 years
B. 1–2 years
C. 1–6 months
D. 15–24 months
C. 1–6 months
177
A person with PTSD is unable to remember a traumatic event or has no memory of the event for a few hours to a few days. What kind of dissociative amnesia is this?
A. selective
B. localized
C. generalized
D. systematized
B. localized
178
“Too many toes”
A. pronation
B. supination
C. excessive DF
D. excessive PF
A. pronation
179
Patchy mushy necrosis of tissue debris:
A. caseation
B. liquefaction
C. hematogenous spread
D. dissolution
B. liquefaction
180
Dupuytren’s contracture involves flexion contractures of the __________ digits of the hand, MP, and proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints:
A. 2nd and 3rd
B. 3rd and 4th
C. 4th and 5th
D. 1st and 2nd
C. 4th and 5th
181
An elderly patient suffered a cerebral thrombosis 4 days ago and presents with the following symptoms: decreased pain annd temperature sensation of the ipsilateral face, nystagmus, vertigo, nausea, dysphagia, ipsilateral Horner's syndrome, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation of the body. The MOST LIKELY site of thrombosis is the:
A. Anterior cerebral artery
B. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
C. Internal carotid artery
D. Posterior cerebral artery
B. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
182
The correct sequence for a positive Landau reflex response is
A. First the back extends, then the neck flexes with the leg in extension
B. First the head, then the back and legs extend
C. Simultaneous neck and back in flexion with legs in extension
D. First the legs will extend, then neck extension with back flexion
B. First the head, then the back and legs extend
183
The most common movement disorder:
A. Chorea
B. Tremor
C. Myoclonus
D. Essential tremor
D. Essential tremor
184
Orthosis with best cosmesis
A. STEN foot
B. Seattle
C. SAFE foot
D. Carbon copy II
B. Seattle
185
Which finding should you expect when assessing a child with positive galeazzi sign?
A. Raised iliac crest
B. Pelvic downward tilt on weight bearing
C. Knees are flexed to 90 degrees, one knee higher
D. Involved leg flexed to 90 degrees, audible click with external rotation
C. Knees are flexed to 90 degrees, one knee higher
186
Which organ receives the most cardiac output at rest?
A. Heart
B. Viscera
C. Kidney
D. Liver
D. Liver
187
Most abundant extracellular cation?
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Proteins
D. Bicarbonate
E. Chloride
A. Sodium
188
An emergent condition classically presenting with pleuritic pain and mediastinal shift:
A. Lung abscess
B. Lung tumor
C. Pneumothorax
D. Endometriosis
C. Pneumothorax
189
Blue or purple skin discoloration that occurs as a result of rupture of blood vessels under the skin
A. Ecchymosis
B. Purpura
C. Petechiae
A. Ecchymosis
190
Most common structural kyphosis in adolescents and adults
A. Pott's disease
B. Scoliosis
C. Scheuermann
D. Sacroiliitis
C. Scheuermann
191
A therapist receives a referral for a client who is one week status post head injury. In the client's medical record it notes that the client demonstrates decorticate posturing. This type of posturing is characterized by ___?
A. Upper extremity extension and lower extremity flexion
B. Upper extremity flexion and lower extremity flexion
C. Upper extremity extension and lower extremity extension
D. Upper extremity flexion and lower extremity extension
D. Upper extremity flexion and lower extremity extension
192
Gross Motor Function Classification System that requires wheelchair for household mobility is level
A. Level I
B. Level II
C. Level III
D. Level IV
E. Level V
D. Level IV
193
Used for patients with excessive foot pronation
A. Metatarsal pad
B. Rocker bottom
C. Thomas heel
D. Cushion heel
C. Thomas heel
194
Teenage girl becomes embarrassed infront of her friends due to her weight. She develops fear of eating large quantities of food, affects functionality and ability to eat out with friends, and develops severe weight loss
A. Body dysmorphic disorder
B. Anorexia nervosa
C. Avoidant disorder
D. Bulimia nervosa
B. Anorexia nervosa
195
Prothrombin time delay/ lack, normal clotting time, normal bleeding time, lack of clotting factor IX
A. Hemophilia A
B. Hemophilia B
B. Hemophilia B
196
The nature of the training experience dictates the nature of the plasticity
A. Specificity
B. Salience matters
C. Use it or lose it
D. Intensity matters
A. Specificity
197
Your male patient has gout flare ups after eating purine-rich foods in a party. What drug is taken to avoid resurgence of symptoms of gout as this is considered prophylaxis for gout?
A. Glucocorticoids
B. Low dose colchicine
C. Allopurinol
D. NSAIDS
B. Low dose colchicine
198
A child developed polyarthritis which was preceded by a sore throat and fever. Lab results reveals that the patient is positive for anti-streptolysin O.
A. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
B. Rheumatic fever
C. Dermatomyositis
D. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Rheumatic fever
199
Rheumatoid arthritis: Limited in ability to perform usual self-care, vocational, and avocational activities
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV
D. Class IV
200
Does not have subcutaneous nodules:
A. Dermatomyositis
B. Gout
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Systemis lupus erythematosus
B. Gout
201
True about cortisol:
a.Highest at night lowest in morning
b. Highest in morning lowest at night
c. Same throughout the day
d. Peaks in the afternoon and lowest at night
b. Highest in morning lowest at night
202
"Free association"
a. Sigmund Freud
c. Alfred Adler
b. Carl Jung
d. Erik Erikson
a. Sigmund Freud
203
A drug was introduced/administered to the bone marrow via syringe/injection. What procedure is this?
a. intramuscular
b. interosseous
c. intravenous
b. interosseous
204
You are trying to facilitate extensor activity of wrist and fingers by simultaneously abducting their paretic arm. What do you call this associated reaction?
a. raimiste's
b. soque's
c. homolateral synkinesis
d. motor irradiation
b. soque's
205
Drugs for tuberculosis, except:
a. Rifampicin
c. Pyrazinamide
b. Isoniazid
d. Clindamycin
d. Clindamycin
206
Thrombocytopenia test
a. WBC
b. Platelet count
c. RBC
d. Thyroxine (T4) test
b. Platelet count
207
A 70-year-old woman is brought by her family to the emergency department because she is unable to speak. She obeys commands, except that she is unable to repeat when asked to do so and she cannot write. Where is the lesion?
a. Dominant inferior frontal gyrus
b. Dominant middle frontal gyrus
c. Dominant superior frontal gyrus
d. Dominant superior temporal gyrus
a. Dominant inferior frontal gyrus
208
Anomic aphasia is most likely to occur with a lesion in which region?
a. Frontal operculum
b. Angular gyrus
c. Inferior temporal gyrus
d. Supplementary motor area
b. Angular gyrus
209
Cutting which structure causes blindness in the temporal fields of the left and right eyes?
a. Optic nerve
b. Optic chiasm
c. Optic tract
d. Geniculocalcarine tract
b. Optic chiasm
210
What is the most common type of hip fracture among the elderly?
a. Intracapsular
b. Intertrochanteric
c. Subtrochanteric
d. NOTA
b. Intertrochanteric
211
In strength and movement analysis, the therapist is looking for problems of contractile tissue, which consists of muscles, their tendons, attachments (e.g., bone), and the nervous tissue supplying the contractile tissue. If movement is strong and pain free, this suggests that there is
a. No lesion of the contractile unit
b. Local lesion of the muscle or tendon (maybe muscle or tendon injury)
c. Neurological lesion
d. Overexercise/fatigue
a. No lesion of the contractile unit
212
In strength and movement analysis, the therapist is looking for problems of contractile tissue, which consists of muscles, their tendons, attachments (e.g., bone), and the nervous tissue supplying the contractile tissue. If movement is strong and painful, this suggests that there is most likely:
a. No lesion of the contractile unit
b. Local lesion (maybe 1st & 2nd degree muscle for tendon injury)
c. Neurological lesion
d. Overexercise/fatigue
e. Severe lesion (may be complete avulsion or fracture)
b. Local lesion (maybe 1st & 2nd degree muscle for tendon injury)
213
In strength and movement analysis, the therapist is looking for problems of contractile tissue, which consists of muscles, their tendons, attachments (e.g., bone), and the nervous tissue supplying the contractile tissue. If movement is weak and painful, this suggests that there is most likely:
a. No lesion of the contractile unit
b. Local lesion of the muscle or tendon (maybe muscle of tendon injury)
c. Neurological lesion or muscle & tendon rupture
d. Overexercise/fatigue
e. Severe lesion (may be complete avulsion or fracture)
e. Severe lesion (may be complete avulsion or fracture)
214
What is the correct of sequence of bone healing after a fracture?
a. Hematoma, soft callus, hard callus, remodelling
b. Hematoma, hard callus, soft callus, remodelling
c. Hard callus, soft callus, Hematoma, remodelling
d. Soft callus, Hematoma, hard callus, remodelling
a. Hematoma, soft callus, hard callus, remodelling
215
Cozen's test:
a. Tennis elbow
b. Golfer's elbow
c. De Quervain's Disease
d. Flexor Digitorum Profundus rupture
a. Tennis elbow
216
The 28-year-old male patient came into the clinic with a referral from the orthopedic service. His diagnosis is a Monteggia fracture. What is this fracture?
a. Fracture of the ulna with ulnar subluxation
b. Fracture of the ulnar with radial head subluxation
c. Fracture of the radius with radial head subluxation
d. Fracture of the radius with subluxation of the ulna
b. Fracture of the ulnar with radial head subluxation
217
In Glasgow Coma Scale, what level would you classify a decerebrate response?
a. 2
b. 1
c. 4
d. 3
a. 2
218
Gerstman's syndrome which is lesion in the dominant parietal lobe, present the following symptoms, EXCEPT:
a. agraphia
b. acalculia
c. apraxia
d. R-L confusion
c. apraxia
219
What lobe is affected in Gerstmann's Syndrome?
a. Frontal
b. Temporal
c. Parietal
d. Occipital
c. Parietal
220
A female patient presents with facial weakness, difficulty closing the eyes, difficulty swallowing & fatigue. After administration of 2-mg dose followed by a 8-mg dose of Tensilon, improvement begins in 1 minute. What is the most likely condition?
a. Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome
b. Myasthenia Gravis
c. Botulism
d. MS
b. Myasthenia Gravis
221
Which of the following is/are a negative features of an upper motor neuron syndrome
a. Paresis
b. Paralysis
c. Fatigue
d. AOTA
D. AOTA
222
A 67-year-old man has a stroke. One week later, he experiences sudden and uncontrolled flailing, ballistic movements of his limbs. Which part of the man's brain is most likely to have been damaged by the stroke?
a. Globus pallidus
b. Lateral hypothalamus
c. Red nucleus
d. Subthalamic nucleus
e. Ventrobasal complex of thalamus
D. Subthalamic nucleus
223
Ashworth Scale Score 2
a. slight increase in muscle tone, catch and release
b. considerable increase in muscle tone, passive ROM difficult
c. marked increase in muscle tone through most of ROM, but limb is easily moved
d. limb rigid in flexion or extension
C. marked increase in muscle tone through most of ROM, but limb is easily moved
224
The most common location for an interdigital (Morton's) neuroma is between which of the following metatarsal heads?
a. 1st and 2nd
b. 2nd and 3rd
c. 3rd and 4th
d. 4th and 5th
C. 3rd and 4th
225
Which of the following correctly describes Legg-Calve Perthes Disease
a. Idiopathic avascular necrosis of the femoral head
b. Usually bilateral in involvement:
c. Secondary to increased weight
d. Strain on the growth plate
A. Idiopathic avascular necrosis of the femoral head
226
True about slipped capital femoral epiphysis:
a. This is considered as avascular necrosis in children.
b. This is also known as Chandler's disease.
c. Common in tall and obese males.
d. Positive sagging rope sign.
C. Common in tall and obese males
227
Fingers affected in Dupuytrens contracture
a. 2nd and 3rd
b. 3rd and 4th
c. 4th and 5th
d. 1st and 2nd
C. 4th and 5th
228
A Upon examination of your patient with quadriceps contusion, you note that he has deep bruising, pain, swelling, and discoloration along the injury site. His active knee ROM is recorded to be 45 degrees. You classify his injury as:
a. Mild
b. Moderate
c. Severe
d. Malingering
B. Moderate
229
The following are true with regard to the Sprengel's Deformity, except
a. Decreased ROM in abduction
b. Fully developed scapula
c. Ascended scapula
d. NOTA
B. Fully developed scapula
230
On the palpation of the knee, tenderness at the tibial tubercle in children and adolescents, which may also show enlargement of the tibial tubercle prominence, may be associated with _____
a. Osteochondritis dissecans
b. Osgood Schlatter's disease
c. Chondromalacia patella
d. Patellofemoral dysfunction
B. Osgood Schlatter's disease
231
An organism refers to a living thing that has an organized structure, can react to stimuli, reproduce, grow, adapt, and maintain homeostasis. What is the smallest organism?
a. Fungi
b. Virus
c. Bacteria
d. Parasite
B. Virus
232
You are given a 25-year-old athlete patient who had a history of impaired consciousness. Upon assessment, you noted that the patient has impaired coordination & distracted-poor concentration. Based on your observation, patient maybe in the state of:
a. Concussion
b. Delirium
c. Confabulation
d. Dementia
A. Concussion
233
Patients with spina bifida are lacking which of the following thus usually given to pregnant women to avoid such condition?
a. Cyanocobalamine
b. Folic acid
c. Vitamin B
d. Vitamin D
B. Folic acid
234
True about Meningocele:
a. Protrusion of meninges and involvement of spinal cord
b. Protrusion of meninges and CSF without involvement of functional neural elements
c. Characterized by variable displacement of cerebellar tissue into the spinal canal, accompanied by caudal dislocation of the lower brain stem and fourth ventricle
d. It is the dilation of the central canal of the spinal cord
B. Protrusion of meninges and CSF without involvement of functional neural elements
235
Persons learn by observing the behavior of others. What theory of learning is described?
a. Social cognitive
b. Dynamic systems
c. Behaviorism
d. Developmental
A. Social cognitive
236
The BEST strategy for managing poor transfer of learning is through
a. explaining similarities and differences simply & clearly
b. settting realistic and achievable goals
c. providing clear and concrete procedures
d. ignoring emotional outburst
C. Providing clear and concrete procedure
237
The patient is instructed to flex the head onto the chest. The patient then raises the extended leg actively by flexing the hip until pain is felt. When the patient flexed the knee on the same side, the pain disappeared, this is indicative of
a. meningeal irritation, nerve root involvement & dural irritation
b. cervical radiculopathy
c. malingering
d. Spondylosis
A. Meningeal irritation, nerve root involvement & dural irritation
238
This eve disorder manifests in patients with MS when both eyes are turned to one side and the opposite eye fails to adduct and presents with nystagmus:
a. Scotoma
b. Optic Neuritis
c. Marcus Gunn Pupil
d. Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia
D. Internuclear Opthalmoplegia
239
An individual with a body mass index of 34kg/m2 is referred to an outpatient exercise program. The therapist in charge of the program recognizes this patient is at increased risk for:
a. Hypothermia during exercise
b. Hyperthermia before exercise
c. Hypothermia before exercise
d. Hyperthermia during exercise
D. Hyperthermia during exercise
240
A patient with a body mass index (BMI) of 37 is referred to therapy for exercise conditioning. What are additional clinical manifestations associated with the BMI that this patient might exhibit?
a. Hyperpnea and hyperpituitarism
b. Hypertension and hyperinsulinism
c. Hormone-related cancer
d. Hypolipoproteinemia and hypotension
B. Hypertension and hyperinsulinism
241
Prevention of neural tube defects such as myelomeningocele requires intake of this vitamin
A. Ascorbic acid
B. Mecobalamin
C. Folic acid
D. Riboflavin
C. Folic acid
242
A lesion in the cerebellum may cause which type of tone?
A.Rigidity
B. Hypertonia
C. Hypotonia
D. Spasticity
C. Hypotonia
243
A female patient with SLE expressed her concern to a therapist. She reported dryness of the vagina making her uncomfortable during sexual intercourse. As a therapist you know that this is:
A. Xerostomia
B. Atrophic Vaginitis
C. Balanitis
D. Malar rash
B. Atrophic Vaginitis
244
A patient presents with severe knee pain, there is note of knee redness, swelling and warmth. Concomitantly, the patient has febrile episodes. What condition does the patient has?
A. Knee bursitis
B. Knee OA
C. Infective arthritis
D. Torn ACL
C. Infective arthritis
245
What is a Bacteriostatic agent?
A. Refers to drugs that typically kill or destroy bacteria
B. Drug such as erythromycin exhibit bactericidal activity at lower doses but are bacteriostatic at higher doses
C. An agent that suppresses or inhibits the growth and proliferation of bacteria
D. Always targets the cell membrane of the bacteria
C. An agent that suppresses or inhibits the growth and proliferation of bacteria
246
Correct about pharmacokinetics:
A. This process starts when the drug is distributed and eventually eliminated from the body
B. Levodopa passes through Blood brain barrier
C. All methods of drug administration that do not use the gastrointestinal tract are termed enteral
D. Drugs given parenterally are usually subject to first-pass inactivation in the liver
B. Levodopa passes through Blood brain barrier
247
Mutations in this gene are present in a majority of familial cases of early-onset Alzheimer's disease
A. APP
B. A12
C. AA
D. AA1
A. APP
248
A 32-year-old man reports 1 week of feeling unusually irritable. During this time, he has increased energy and activity, sleeps less, and finds it difficult to sit still. He also is more talkative than usual and is easily distractible, to the point of finding it difficult to complete his work assignments. A physical examination and laboratory workup are negative for any medical cause of his symptoms and he takes no medications. What diagnosis best fits this clinical picture?
A. Manic episode.
B. Hypomanic episode.
C. Bipolar I disorder, with mixed features.
D. Major depressive episode.
E. Cyclothymic disorder.
A. Manic episode.
249
Which of the following is more common in men with bipolar I disorder than in women with the disorder
A. Rapid cycling.
B. Alcohol abuse.
C. Eating disorders.
D. Anxiety disorders.
E. Mixed-state symptoms.
B. Alcohol abuse.
250
A 45-year-old man with classic features of schizophrenia has always experienced co-occurring symptoms of depression-including feeling "down in the dumps," having a poor appetite, feeling hopeless, and suffering from insomnia-during his episodes of active psychosis. These depressive symptoms occurred only during his psychotic episodes and only during the 2-year period when the patient was experiencing active symptoms of schizophrenia. After his psychotic episodes were successfully controlled by medication, no further symptoms of depression were present. The patient has never met full criteria for major depressive disorder at any time. What is the appropriate DSM-5 diagnosis?
A. Schizophrenia.
B. Schizoaffective disorder and Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia).
C. Schizophrenia and persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia).
D. Unspecified schizophrenia spectrum and other psychotic disorder.
A. Schizophrenia.
251
Schizophrenia is thought to be caused in part by excessive production and release of which neurotransmitter agent?
A. Norepinephrine
B. Serotonin
C. Acetylcholine
D. Substance P
E. Dopamine
E. Dopamine
252
A 65-year-old woman reports being housebound despite feeling physically healthy. Several years ago, she fell while shopping; although she sustained no injuries, the situation was so upsetting that she became extremely nervous when she had to leave her house unaccompanied. Because she has no children and few friends whom she can ask to accompany her, she is very distressed that she has few opportunities to venture outside her home. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Specific phobia, situational type.
B. Social anxiety disorder (social phobia).
C. Posttraumatic stress disorder.
D. Agoraphobia.
E. Adjustment disorder.
D. Agoraphobia.
253
A 63-year-old woman has been saving financial documents and records for many years, placing papers in piles throughout her apartment to the point where it has become unsafe. She acknowledges that the piles are a concern; however, she says that the papers include important documents and she is afraid to throw them away. She recalls several instances in which her taxes were audited and she needed certain documents to avoid a penalty. She is concerned because her landlord is threatening to evict her unless she removes the piles of papers. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Obsessive-compulsive disorder.
B. Hoarding disorder.
C. Delusional disorder.
D. Non-pathological collecting behavior.
E. Dementia (major neurocognitive disorder).
A. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
254
Patient living in an apartment has a behavioral pattern of accumulating unnecessary items. He was asked by the landlord to leave because the person is unable to get rid of those items even though they may create hazardous situations such as risk of fire in the apartment
A. Hoarding disorder
B. Kleptomania
C. Obsessional jealousy
D. Rumination Disorder.
E. A & C
A. Hoarding disorder
255
A 19-year-old woman is referred to a psychiatrist by her internist after she admits to him that she recurrently pulls hair from her eyebrows to the point that she has scarring and there is little or no eyebrow hair left. She states that her natural eyebrows are "bushy" and "repulsive" and that she "looks like a caveman." A photograph of the woman before she began pulling her eyebrow hair shows a normal-looking teenager. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?
A. Trichotillomania (hair-pulling disorder).
B. Delusional disorder, somatic type.
C. Body dysmorphic disorder.
D. Normal age-appropriate appearance concerns.
E. Obsessive-compulsive disorder.
C. Body dysmorphic disorder.
256
A 25-year-old man is referred to a psychiatrist by his primary care doctor after mentioning to the doctor that he routinely spends a lot of time pulling out facial hair with tweezers, even after carefully shaving. On evaluation, he admits to frequent pulling of his facial hair, consuming a significant amount of time; he explains that he becomes anxious when looking at himself because his moustache, hairline, and side burns are asymmetrical. He pulls out hairs in an effort to make them more symmetrical, but is rarely satisfied with the results. He finds this very upsetting but cannot resist the urge to try and "fix" his facial hair. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?
A. Trichotillomania (hair-pulling disorder).
B. Body dysmorphic disorder (BDD).
C. Delusional disorder, somatic type.
D. Normal age-appropriate appearance concerns.
E. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD).
E. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD).
257
The most common hallucination in patients with schizophrenia:
A. Visual
B. Auditory
C. Tactile
D. Olfactory
B. Auditory
258
Which of the following statements is not true about psychotropic medication?
A. Imipramine was the first tricyclic antidepressant to be discovered
B. Thorazine signaled the beginning of modern psychopharmacology for antipsychotic medication
C. Prozac is relatively safe drug for treating schizophrenia
D. Ritalin is effective in treating attention deficit disorder
C. Prozac is relatively safe drug for treating schizophrenia
259
Which of the following substances, when abused, is most likely to cause symptoms mimicking- obsessive-compulsive disorder?
A. Heroin.
B. Cocaine.
C. Alprazolam.
D. Marijuana.
E. Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD).
B. Cocaine.
260
A group of non-progressive, permanent disorders that causes limitation of activity by affecting the developing motor control circuit. These non-progressive disturbances result from insults during fetal development or in the infant's brain.
A. Niemann-Pick disease
B. Rett syndrome
C. Primary dystonia
D. Cerebral Palsy
D. Cerebral Palsy
261
281. A T10 SCI patient with amenorrhea asks a therapist when will her period return. As a medical professional you know that it may:
A. last up to 12 months
B. last up to 4 months
C. never return
D. last up to 8 months
B. Last up to 4 months
262
282. You are given a stroke patient with good comprehension and repetition but has non-fluent speech. What aphasia is being described?
A. Broca’s
B. Transcortical motor
C. Wernicke’s
D. Transcortical sensory
b. Transcortical motor
263
283. Broca’s aphasia, except:
A. Motor
B. Expressive
C. Posterior
D. NOTA
C. Posterior
264
284. True regarding the oculomotor nerve?
A. It carries sensory fibers from retina.
B. It contains preganglionic sympathetic fibers.
C. It is responsible for eye movement.
D. All of these.
c. It is responsible for eye movement
265
285. Damaged ventral and lateral areas of the spinal cord may result in ______ deficits
A. Perceptual
B. Sensory
C. Both motor and sensory
D. Motor
c. Both motor and sensory
266
286. A patient with psoriatic arthritis presents with shortened index finger compared to the other digits. It is also noted to have transverse folds of the skin. Pulling of the said finger during examination lengthens the digit. What is the possible cause of this?
A. Dactylitis
B. Arthritis mutilans
C. Auspitz sign
D. Inverted T sign
B. Arthritis mutilans
267
287. Osteoarthritis
A. Systemic disease
B. Inflammatory disease
C. Wear & Tear
D. AOTA
c. Wear & Tear
268
288. Diagnostic Criteria for Hand Osteoarthritis include which of the following?
A. all of the choices
B. presence of Heberden’s nodes
C. Age > 40 years old
D. Joint space narrowing in any finger joint
E. Family history of nodes
a. All of the choices
269
289. True of Ankylosing spondylitis; except:
A. Synovitis and inflammation of the enthesis
B. With reactive HLA-D27 antigen
C. With definitive radiographic sacroiliitis
D. Common in adult males with usual complaints of morning LBP
E. None of these
B. With reactive HLA-D27 antigen
270
290. What is the hallmark of spondyloarthropathies?
A. Asymmetric arthritis
B. Fusion of joints
C. Enthesopathy
D. Inflammation of thoracic spine
E. Sacroiliitis
e. Sacroiilitis
271
291. According to the Revised Criteria of the American Rheumatism Association for positive Rheumatoid Arthritis, joint swelling should be present for at least:
A. 6 weeks
B. 3 weeks
C. 12 weeks
D. 6 months
a. 6 weeks
272
292. The most commonly affected joint in gouty arthritis is:
A. 1st PIP
B. 1st MCP
C. 1st DIP
D. 1st MTP
d. 1st MTP
273
293. Characteristics of Felty’s syndrome include the following:
A. Leukocytosis, Splenomegaly, thrombocytopenia
B. Leukopenia, Splenomegaly, Thrombocytosis
C. Leukopenia, Splenomegaly, thrombocytopenia
D. Leukocytosis, Splenomegaly, Thrombocytosis
c. Leukopenia, Splenomegaly, Thrombocytosis
274
294. A patient who is currently being treated for low back pain arrives for therapy complaining of pain across the middle of the right chest and back. When the therapist inspects the skin, clustered vesicles are apparent in a linear arc. The surrounding skin is hypersensitive. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
A. Herpes simplex infection
B. Psoriasis
C. Dermatitis
D. Herpes zoster infection
d. Herpes zoster infection
275
295. A PT should be alert to recognize the signs and symptoms associated with the onset of aspiration pneumonia. Which patient diagnosis is the MOST susceptible to develop this form of pneumonia?
A. A circumferential burn of the thorax associated with significant pain
B. Severe scoliosis with compression of internal organs, including the lungs
C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) with dysphagia and diminished gag reflex
D. A complete spinal cord lesion at T2 with diminished coughing ability and forced vital capacity (FVC)
c. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) with dysphagia and diminished gag reflex
276
296. A patient is being examined for impairments after stroke. When tested for two-point discrimination on the right hand, the patient is unable to tell whether the therapist is touching with one or two points. The therapist determines that there is impaired function in the:
A. Spinotectal tract and somatosensory cortex
B. Lateral spinothalamic tract and somatosensory cortex
C. Dorsal column/lemniscal pathways and somatosensory cortex
D. Anterior spinothalamic tract and thalamus
c. Dorsal column/lemniscal pathways and somatosensory cortex
277
297. A patient is referred for physical therapy with a diagnosis of degenerative joint disease (DJD) affecting C2 and C3. The patient complains of pain and stiffness in the cervical region and transient dizziness with some cervical motions. What is the BEST initial examination procedure?
A. Vertebral artery test
B. Adson’s maneuver
C. Lhermitte’s test
D. Oppenheim’s test
a. Vertebral artery test
278
298. If the forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) test is negative for airway obstruction in 99% of individuals without lung disease, then the measurement of FEV1 is:
A. Sensitive
B. Specific
C. Reliable
D. Valid
b. Specific
279
299. A physical therapist participates in a formal gait analysis using three-dimensional analysis software for an 11-year-old child with cerebral palsy. Which piece of objective data would LEAST likely be obtained through this process?
A. Decreased swing phase
B. Decreased walking velocity
C. Decreased quadriceps strength
D. Decreased knee extension range of motion
c. Decreased quadriceps strength
280
300. A physical therapist employed in an acute care hospital reviews the medical record of a patient diagnosed with congestive heart failure. The therapist would like to implement a formal exercise program but is concerned about the patient’s exercise tolerance. Which condition is MOST responsible for the patient’s limited exercise tolerance?
A. Diminished lung volumes
B. Arterial oxygen desaturation
C. Insufficient stroke volume during ventricular systole
D. Excessive rise in blood pressure
c. Insufficient stroke volume during ventricular systole
CONCEPT INTEG PTRP
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