MISC 1 Flashcards by Ralph Senarlo

Enthesopathy except:
A. Scleroderma
B. Reiter’s syndrome
C. Gouty arthritis
D. Psoriatic arthritis

A. Scleroderma

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A woman who is going to join a beauty pageant took diuretics to decrease weight. What should be observed?
A. CBC
B. WBC
C. Sodium and potassium

C. Sodium and potassium

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Perfectly matched causes of anemia (EXCEPT?)
A. Thalassemia – hereditary factor
B. Pernicious anemia – Vitamin B12 deficiency
C. Sickle cell anemia – radiation
D. Immunologic anemia – patient’s own body

C. Sickle cell anemia – radiation

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Medications for acute gout:
A. Colchicine
B. Allopurinol
C. NSAIDS
D. DMARDS

C. NSAIDS

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Non-erosive rheumatologic deformity in SLE:
A. Felty
B. Tara
C. Jaccoud’s
D. Sjogren’s

C. Jaccoud’s

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The following increase gait speed, EXCEPT:
A. Decreased width of base of support
B. Increased stride length
C. Increased angle of toe-out

C. Increased angle of toe-out

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Assistive device that allows 2-point, 3-point, and 4-point gait pattern:
A. Cane
B. Axillary crutches
C. Walker
D. Parallel bars

B. Axillary crutches

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Dimension of fitting room (minimum):
A. 20 sq ft
B. 40 sq ft
C. 30 sq ft
D. 50 sq ft

C. 30 sq ft

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The following are characteristic of an ideal mattress overlay EXCEPT
A. 30 lbs. of 25% ILD (Indentation Load Deflection)
B. Density of 1.3 lb/ft3
C. Thickness of 3–4 inches
D. Thickness of 1–2 inches

D. Thickness of 1–2 inches

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Can’t support full weight on legs but does have reasonably good muscular coordination and arm strength. Which gait walking would you choose?
A. Four-point gait
B. Swing-through three-point gait (partial-weight-bearing)
C. Three-point-and-one gait (partial-weight-bearing)
D. Three-point gait (non-weight-bearing)
E. Two-point gait

E. Two-point gait

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A patient presents with compensated right thoracic scoliosis, and left lumbar scoliosis. Which of the following would be expected?
A. Gibbus deformity on the (R) thoracic region
B. Gibbus deformity on the (L) thoracic region
C. Prominent (L) chest
D. Higher (L) shoulder

A. Gibbus deformity on the (R) thoracic region

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Which of the following would not cause a pressure ulcer when sitting on a wheelchair?
A. Elbow
B. Heel
C. Scapula
D. Ischium

A. Elbow

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A 14-years old patient will be undergoing leg amputation, what amputation will you recommend?
A. Syme’s
B. Chopart’s
C. Above knee
D. Below knee

A. Syme’s

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Patient has hemoptysis but presents with normal lung exam:
A. Pulmonary infarction
B. Emphysema
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Tuberculosis

D. Tuberculosis

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Patient with past history of smoking is at risk to develop what type of COPD?
A. Emphysema
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Bronchiectasis
D. Asthma

A. Emphysema
or
B. Chronic bronchitis

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Most common cause of metastasis to the vertebral column:
A. Lungs
B. Kidney
C. Pancreas
D. Prostate gland

D. Prostate gland

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Patient presents with pleuritic pain and mediastinal shift:
A. Lung abscess
B. Lung tumor
C. Pneumothorax

C. Pneumothorax

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Plantar ulcer, pale, cold, painless and swollen legs:
A. Acute venous insufficiency
B. Chronic venous insufficiency
C. Acute arterial insufficiency
D. Chronic arterial insufficiency

D. Chronic arterial insufficiency

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This is a primitive reflex that will integrate at or before 6 months:
A. Moro reflex
B. Symmetric tonic neck reflex
C. Aymmetric tonic neck reflex
D. Startle reflex

A. Moro reflex

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True about Volkmann’s contracture:
A. FDP, FPL are spared
B. Involves the radial artery
C. Involves fracture of forearm/radius/ulna
D. Commonly seen in weightlifter and clerical jobs

C. Involves fracture of forearm/radius/ulna

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Tests for patellofemoral pain syndrome, EXCEPT?

a. Waldron test
b. Clarkes’s sign
c. Lateral pull test
d. “Strattle” (Stutter?) test

d. “Strattle” (Stutter?) test

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Not involved in Erb-Duchenne palsy?

a. Elbow flexion
b. Wrist extension
C. Shoulder flexion
d. Forearm supination

C. Shoulder flexion

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Third dorsal compartment of the wrist contains the tendon of:

a. Extensor carpi radialis longus
b. Extensor digitorum communis
c. Extensor pollicis longus
d. Extensor pollicis brevis

c. Extensor pollicis longus

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A patient sustains a traction injury to the anterior division of the brachial plexus. PT expects weakness of the elbow flexors, wrist flexors, and pronators. PT may find additional weakness in:

a. Thumb abduction
b. Wrist extension
C. Forearm supination
d. Shoulder external rotation

a. Thumb abduction

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Mechanism of injury of medial meniscus injury: a. Internal rotation of femur, internal rotation of tibia b. Internal rotation of femur, external rotation of tibia c. External rotation of femur, internal rotation of tibia d. External rotation of femur, external rotation of tibia

b. Internal rotation of femur, external rotation of tibia

Prenatal causes of cerebral palsy, EXCEP a. Cytomegalovirus b. Meningitis c. Herpes simplex d. Toxoplasmosis e. Rubella

b. Meningitis

A child with cerebral palsy can perform ambulation with an assistive device for short distances but requires a wheelchair for long distances. What is the GMCS level of the child? a. Level 1 b. Level 2 c. Level 3 d. Level 4 e. Level 5

c. Level 3

Appearance of Grade 1 chondromalacia patella: a. Fissuring b. Crabmeat appearance c. Softening and swelling

c. Softening and swelling

"Free association" is associated to: a. Alfred Adler b. Sigmeund Freud c. Erik Erickson d. Carl Jung

b. Sigmeund Freud

The following indicates a damaged bursa, except? a. Baker's cyst b. Student's elbow c. Housemaids knee d. Tennis elbow

d. Tennis elbow

Blount's disease: a. Tibia vara b. Tibia valga c. Coxa vara d. Coxa valga

a. Tibia vara

Low levels of cortisol: a. Cushing syndrome b. Addison's disease c. Hypothyroidism d. Hyperthyroidism

b. Addison's disease

A drug that blocks the release of epinephrine is considered a a. Pharmacologic antagonist b. Physiologic antagonist c. (Pharmacologic agonist) d. (Physiologic agonist)

a. Pharmacologic antagonist

Smallest organism considered to cause illness: a. Virus b. Bacteria c. Fungi d. Protozoa

a. Virus

(+) Thick, gray coating called "pseudomembrane" that can cover tissues in the nose, tonsils, voice box, and throat a. Diptheria b. Sore throat c. Epiglottitis d. Infective endocarditis

a. Diptheria

What structure separates the cerebral cortex from the cerebellum? a. Falx cerebri b. Tentorium cerebelli c. Falx cerebelli d. Diaphragma sellae

b. Tentorium cerebelli

37. Eyes follow pencil moving inferiorly w/o head moving what CN? (No choices

Superior Oblique - CN 4

A 5-year-old child was present when her babysitter was sexually assaulted. Which of the following symptoms would be most suggestive of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) in this child? a. Playing normally with toys b. Having dreams about princesses and castles c. Taking the clothing off her dolls while playing d. Expressing no fear when talking about the event e. Talking about the event with her parents

c. Taking the clothing off her dolls while playing

A 63-year-old woman has been saving financial documents and records for many years, placing papers in piles throughout her apartment to the point where it has become unsafe. She acknowledges that the piles are a concern; however, she says that the papers include important documents and she is afraid to throw them away. She recalls several instances in which her taxes were audited and she needed certain documents to avoid a penalty. She is con- cerned because her landlord is threatening to evict her unless she removes the piles of papers. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Obsessive-compulsive disorder b. Hoarding disorder c. Delusional disorder d. Nonpathological collecting behavior e. Dementia (major neurocognitive disorder)

a. Obsessive-compulsive disorder

The following MT procedures are assessed in side-lying, EXCEPT: a. Gluteus maximus b. Gluteus minimus c. Hip adductors

a. Gluteus maximus

Hormone in charge of fight or flight response: a. Adrenaline b. Glucagon c. Insulin

a. Adrenaline

Produced by the pancreas which functions to digest carbohydrates: a. Lipase b. Insulin c. Glucagon d. Amylase

d. Amylase

If you are rubbing salt to stimulate the taste receptors, you increase the sensitivity of receptors for sweetness. This principle is known as: a. Simultaneous Contrast b. Accommodation c. Compensation d. Successive Contrast

d. Successive Contrast

When terminating treatment, the caregiver: a. Prepares and documents treatment plan and program b. Documents client's program and linked to functional outcomes c. Establishes a functional diagnosis and outcome d. Documents and re-evaluates the client's functional outcome and establishes and documents follow-up date e. Evaluate the patient's response to treatment and determines progress toward accomplishment of functional outcomes

d. Documents and re-evaluates the client's functional outcome and establishes and documents follow-up date

What is the most common indirect cause of TBI? a. Drugs b. Alcohol c. Cigarette smoking d. Poisonous food

b. Alcohol

Denervation-hypersensitivity: a. Is due to an increase in the number of receptors b. Is due to a decrease in the sensitivity of receptors c. Is due to an increase in the amount of neurotransmitters released d. Results from avulsion of the nerve is due to an increased sensitivity to neurotransmitter

a. Is due to an increase in the number of receptors

Spasticity of LE, hyperreflexia, loss of position sense: a. Myelopathy b. Radiculopathy c. UMNL d. LMNL

a. Myelopathy

Severe headache with photosensitivity, neck stiffness and abrupt onset of symptoms: a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage b. Viral encephalitis c. Migraine

b. Viral encephalitis

Severe headache for almost 2 hours followed by a sudden loss of consciousness: a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage b. Viral encephalitis c. Meningitis d. Migraine

a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

Which of the following is a leukotriene receptor blocker? a. Alprostadil b. Aspirin c. Montelukast d. Ibuprofen

c. Montelukast

An acute bacterial (often streptococcus) or viral infection that spreads throughout the lymphatic system; red streaks are often seen in skin proximal to infection site: a. Generalized lymphadenopathy b. Secondary lymphadenopathy c. Lymphadenitis d. Lymphangitis

d. Lymphangitis

Pain medication recommended for peptic ulcer: a. Ibuprofen b. Ketorolac c. Aspirin d. Diclofenac

b. Ketorolac

Amount of air additionally inspired after tidal volume: a. Vital capacity b. Inspiratory reserve volume c. Inspiratory capacity d. Residual volume

b. Inspiratory reserve volume

Irregular respirations of variable depth (usually shallow), alternating with periods of apnea: a. Cheyne-Stokes respirations b. Biot's respirations c. Kussmaul's respirations d. Paradoxical respirations

b. Biot's respirations

Patient has increased urine output (residual is <100 mL), not triggered by pain and anxiety: a. Stress incontinence b. Urge incontinence c. Overflow incontinence d. Functional incontinence

b. Urge incontinence

Pituitary adenoma: a. May result to suppression of optic chiasm b. Can be associated with woman who has visual loss c. Acromegaly

c. Acromegaly

A patient is diagnosed to have venous thrombosis. What is the IDEAL drug regimen for this case? a. Aspirin b. Clopidogrel c. Heparin and warfarin overlap d. Dipyridamole and warfarin

c. Heparin and warfarin overlap

Ligament of the ankle that is least commonly injured: a. Anterior talofibular ligament b. Posterior talofibular ligament c. Calcaneofibular ligament d. Tibiofibular ligament

b. Posterior talofibular ligament

35-year-old firefighter is admitted to the hospital with severe burns. The patient experiences changes in cognition within a few hours of admission. The patient is confused, disoriented, and having problems focusing their attention. You realize that the patient is probably suffering from: a. amnesia b. Delirium c. Dementia d. Alzheimer's

b. Delirium

NSAIDs produce analgesia by its action on this enzyme: a. Phospholipase A2 b. Cyclooxygenase 1 c. Cyclooxygenase 2 d. Lipoxygenase

c. Cyclooxygenase 2

If an 80-year-old patient 2 days post-op cardiac surgery stands up, what changes can be observed? a. BP trom 120/80 to 140/90 b. HR from 60 to 100 c. BP from 120/80 to 90/60 d. HR remains 60

c. BP from 120/80 to 90/60

RA 5680 : a. Law creating the organization of PT b. Professional law regulating the practice of physical therapy c. Law for PT continuing education d. Law that determines the passing score in PT boards

b. Professional law regulating the practice of physical therapy

The Problem Oriented Medical Record is a system based on the following EXCEPT: a. Formation of present and past information about the patient b. Identification of a specific treatment plan C. Preparation of the informed consent. d. Assessment of the effectiveness of the treatment plans e. Development of a specific, current problem

C. Preparation of the informed consent.

Compute THR: 25 y/o, 55 bpm resting heart (no choices given)

139-167bpm

Patient had mild MI, but can currently do ADLs like gardening. What is your HEP? a. Encouraging 3-4 METs b. Encouraging 1-2 METs c. Discouraging sexual activity

a. Encouraging 3-4 METs

Bacterium that grows in inadequately sterilized canned foods: a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Clostridium perfringens c. Clostridium botulinum d. Clostridium tetani

c. Clostridium botulinum

Inflammation is a complex tissue reaction that includes the release of cytokines, leukotrienes, prostaglandins, and peptides. Prostaglandins involved in inflammatory processes are typically produced from arachidonic acid by which of the following enzymes? a. Cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1) b. Cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) c. Glutathione-S-transferase d. Lipoxygenase

b. Cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2)

Pharmacokinetics is defined as: a. The use of specific drugs to prevent, treat, or diagnose a disease b. The analysis of what the drug does to the body, including the mechanism by which the drug exerts its effect C. The study of the harmful effects of chemicals. d. The study of how the body deals with the drug in terms of the way it is absorbed, distributed, and eliminated

d. The study of how the body deals with the drug in terms of the way it is absorbed, distributed, and eliminated

Which of the following classes of antibiotics exert their primary antibacterial effects by impairing bacterial cell membrane synthesis and function? a. Beta Lactam drugs b. Aminoglycosides c. Fluoroquinolones d. Erythromycins

a. Beta Lactam drugs

Which of the following describes the mechanism of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) as a second messenger when a drug binds to a surface receptor? a. CAMP activates enzymes throughout the cell to mediate a change in function instead of the drug directly changing enzymatic activity b. CAMP increases cell membrane permeability through ion channels c. CAMP enables the drug to directly change enzymatic activity intracellularly, thus altering biomechanical function within the cell

a. CAMP activates enzymes throughout the cell to mediate a change in function instead of the drug directly changing enzymatic activity

The biopsycho-social model in medicine explains out illness as: a. Linear causality b. Multi-factorial etiology c. Complex phenomenon d. Intra-psychic in origin

b. Multi-factorial etiology

Bactericidal drugs: a. Kill or destroy bacteria b. Limit the growth or proliferation of bacterial invaders

a. Kill or destroy bacteria

The basilar artery branches off as: a. Posterior communicating artery b. Paired posterior cerebral artery

b. Paired posterior cerebral artery

A patient with CVA presents with (+) rooting reflex and gait apraxia. Which artery is affected? a. Middle cerebral artery b. Anterior cerebral artery c. Posterior cerebral artery

b. Anterior cerebral artery

A lesion of the supramarginal gyrus of the dominant parietal lobe resulting in the subject's inability to do what he or she wants to do: a.Kinetic apraxia b.Ideational apraxia c. Ideomotor apraxia d. Gait apraxia

c. Ideomotor apraxia

Tourette syndrome is a pathology that has this disorder: a. Athetosis b. Tremor c. Tics d. Chorea

c. Tics

Skeletal muscles store just enough ATP to provide chemical energy for: C answer: a. At least 1 min. continuous contractions b. At least 15 sec. continuous contractions c. At least 30 sec. continuous contractions d. Minimum five strong muscles contractions e. At most three strong muscle contractions

c. At least 30 sec. continuous contractions

What is the best cognitive behavioral therapy for TBI patients? a. Give frequent reinforcements to the desired behavior b. Promote fast-paced activities c. Provide long and complex instructions d. Avoid social interactions

a. Give frequent reinforcements to the desired behavior

Type of transport for glucose: a. Facilitated diffusion b. Primary transport c. Secondary transport

a. Facilitated diffusion

Spasticity, hyperreflexia, myocionus: a. Myelopathy b. Radiculopathy C. UMNL d. LMNL

C. UMNL

Poor naming and non-fluent, intact comprehension and repetition: a. Broca's aphasia b. Transcortical motor aphasia c. Transcortical sensory aphasia d. Conduction aphasia

b. Transcortical motor aphasia

In the El Escorial Criteria for ALS, a possible ALS is characterized by: a. UMN and LMN signs found in 3 regions b. UMN and LMN signs found in 2 regions c. UMN and LMN signs found in 1 region d. LMN signs found only in 1 region

C. UMN and LMN signs found in 1 region

A therapist is obtaining a subjective history from a new patient diagnosed with right-side hemiplegia. The therapist notes that the patient is able to understand spoken language but unable to speak well. Most of the patient's words are incomprehensible. The patient also has difficulty in naming simple objects. What type of aphasia does the patient most likely have? a. Anomic aphasia b. Broca's aphasia C.Crossed aphasia d. Wernicke's aphasia

B. Broca's aphasia

Emphasizing gait retraining and motor control relearning may help overcome which feature of Parkinson's disease? a. Rigidity b. Bradykinesia c. Postural instability d. Tremors

B. Bradykinesia

What is the average range for thoracic and lumbar extension? a. 0-45 b. 0-25 c. 0-20 d. 0-15

A. 0-45

In doing this test, patient shows nystagmus, lightheadedness, dizziness, and visual disturbances when fully in supine and head and neck rotation to right or left: a. Barre-Lieou Sign -progression of tetter b. DeBoyd Test c. Bakody's Sign d. Static Vertebral Artery Test

D. Static vertebral artery test

Pain scale that uses a 10-cm scale: a. Verbal rating scale b. Numerical rating scale C. Visual analog scale

C. Visual analog scale

Which of the following motions is restricted in total hip arthroplasty, anterolateral approach? a. Abduction and external rotation b. Adduction and external rotation c. Internal rotation d. External rotation

C. Internal rotation

Vitamin essential for fracture repair: a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B1 c. Vitamin B12 d. Vitamin C

D. Vitamin C

In grading and staging neoplasm, TNM system is used. TNM stands for: a. Tumor, node, metastasis b. Tumor, neoplasm, mode of growth c. Time, neoplasm, mode of growth d. Time, node, metastasis

A. Tumor, node, metastasis

Initiated by IV disc degeneration: a. Spondylolisthesis b. Spondylosis c. Spondylolysis

B. Spondylosis

In cervical subluxation, which of the following cervical segments are most commonly affected? a. C1-C2 b. C5-C6 c. С4-С5 d. C6-C7

A. C1 - C2

Noradrenergic receptor: a. Substantia nigra b. Median raphe nucleus c. Locus coeruleus

C. Locus coeruleus

Ability to see in the dark: a. Dark adaptation b. Light adaptation

A. Dark adaptation

Manifestations of a radial nerve injury, EXCEPT: a. Weakness of the extensor digitorum communis b. Weakness of the extensor carpi ulnaris c. Clawing of digits/hand d. Wrist drop deformity

C. Clawing of digits/hand

Which muscle does the lateral plantar nerve innervate? a. Flexor hallucis brevis b. Abductor hallucis c. Interossei d. Lumbricals

C. Interossei

Which is not partlof the hippocampal function? a. Paraventricular nuclei b. Ammon's horn c. Dentate gyrus d. Subiculum

A. Paraventricular nuclei

Pt's eyeballs roll upward when asked to close eyes tightly. a. Bulbar b. Ganglial reflex c. Bell's palsy

C. Bell's palsy

Which part of the cerebellum, when affected, causes tremors? a. Paleocrebellum b. Neocerebellum c. Archicerebellum

B. Neocerebellum

Perception, except: a. Right/left discrimination and vertical orientation b. Stereognosis and 2-pt discrimination c. Tactile localization and vibration d. Hemianopsia and neglect

D. Hemianopsia and neglect

Osteochondrosis (not osteochondritis) of patella: a. Chondromalacia patella b. Sinding-Larsen-Johansson c. Prepatellar bursitis d. Osteochondritis dissecans

b. Sinding-Larsen-Johansson

Patient has vaginal dryness leading to painful intercourse. a. Circinate balanitis b. Anterior uveitis c. Dyspareunia d. Vaginitis

c. Dyspareunia

All of the following indicates a damaged bursa, except: a. Baker's cyst b. Student's elbow c. Housemaid's knee d. Tennis elbow

d. Tennis elbow

The most severe type of cerebral palsy caused by periventricular leukomalacia: a. Spastic diplegia b. Spastic quadriplegia c. Spastic hemiplegia d. CP athetoid type

b. Spastic quadriplegia

Non progressive lesion to the immature brain a. Hydrocephalus b. Spina bifida c. Cerebral palsy d. Down syndrome

c. Cerebral palsy

This disorder involves cycles of binge eating and then compensating for the intake by self-induced vomiting: a. Anorexia nervosa b. Bulimia nervosa c. Binge eating disorder d. NOTA

A client was referred to you for splinting. He has a rupture at the central slip of his finger. What type of deformity should he have? a. Mallet deformity b. Boutonniere deformity c. Subluxation deformity d. Swan neck deformity

b. Boutonniere deformity

When patient makes a fist, if one of the distal phalanx (most often the ring finger) does not flex. What is this special test? a.  Jersey finger b.  Sweater finger c. Baseball finger d. Trigger finger

b.  Sweater finger

Avulsion of the first MCP: a. Jones fracture b. Bennet's fracture c. Boxer's fracture d. Duverney's fracture

b. Bennet's fracture

Smallest organism considered to be the mc cause of illness? a. Virus b. Bacteria c. Fungi d. Protozoa

a. Virus

Meds for acute gout:  a. Colchicine  b. Allopurinol  c. NSAIDS  d. Steroids  e. DMARDS

c. NSAIDS

BMl of 30 is considered: a. Normal b. Underweight c. Overweight d. Obese

d. Obese

Which of the following has the poorest prognosis of nerve recovery? a. Axonotmesis b. Conduction block c. Demyelination d. Neurapraxia e. Neurotmesis

e. Neurotmesis

Small, local, involuntary muscle contraction visible under the skin are called: a. Tremor b. Athetosis c. Clonus d. Fasciculation e. NOTA

d. Fasciculation

Which of the following syndromes means an inability to perform purposeful movements? a. Aphasia b. Amnesia c. Apraxia d. Agnosia e. NOTA

c. Apraxia

What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) for someone who withdraws from pain, is confused, and opens eye spontaneously? a. 6 b. 8 c. 10 d. 12 e. 16

d. 12

Which of the following best describes type lIB muscle fibers? a. Fast twitch, high in oxidative enzymes b. Fast twitch, low in oxidative enzymes c, Large muscle fiber diameter d. Slow-twitch, high in oxidative enzymes e. NOTA

b. Fast twitch, low in oxidative enzymes

Which contraction generates the least force?  a. Slow eccentric  b. Fast eccentric  c. Slow concentric  d. Isometric

c. Slow concentric

A patient with psoriatic arthritis has an index finger that is short compared to other fingers and with excess skin on sides, this is called:  a. dactylitis b. arthritis mutilans c. auspitz sign d. Koebner

b. arthritis mutilans

Prematurity is associated with neonatal morbidity and mortality. It is defined as the birth before the: a. 32nd week of gestation b. 35th week of gestation c. 37th week from the first day of the last menstruation d. 30th week of intrauterine development

c. 37th week from the first day of the last menstruation

Involuntary, but slower, twisting movements causing transient, odd and unnatural posturing, most evident in distal parts: a. Tremor b. Hyperkinesia c. Chorea d. Hypoclonus e. Athetosis

e. Athetosis

Unusually violent and flinging motions of the limbs: a. Chorea b. Dystonia c. Ballismus d. Spasticity e. Athetosis

c. Ballismus

Pressure Ulcer stage in which subcutaneous fat may be visible but bone, tendon, and muscle are not exposed: a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5

c. 3

Pseudogout is caused by this crystal: a. Monosodium urate crystal b. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate c. Disodium etidronate d. Calcium hydroxyapatite crystals

b. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate

All of the following describes in a stroke patient with Global Aphasia, EXCEPT: a. Associated signs include right sided weakness, sensory deficits and hemianopsia b. Intact comprehension c. Non-fluent verbal output d. The region affected includes the frontotemporoparietal lobes

b. Intact comprehension

What area of the brain is affected with Wernicke's aphasia? a. Superior temporal gyrus b. None c. Both areas e. Third frontal convolution

a. Superior temporal gyrus

What is the most common type of hip fracture? a. Femoral neck b. Intertrochanteric c. Subtrochanteric d. Intracapsular e. NOTA

b. Intertrochanteric

Iceberg type of burn is seen in: a. Thermal burn  b. Radiation burn  c. Chemical burn  d. Electrical burn

d. Electrical burn

Respirations that are regular but abnormally deep and increased in rate: a. Biot's respirations b. Cheyne-stokes respirations c. Kussmaul's respirations d. Tachypnea e. None of these

c. Kussmaul's respirations

The most common shoulder problem in hemiplegia is:  a. Posteroinferior subluxation  b. Anteroinferior subluxation  c. Lateral dislocation  d. Superior dislocation

b. Anteroinferior subluxation

The crystals seen in the joint spaces of patients with gouty arthritis are: a. Hydroxyapatite b. Calcium pyrophosphate c. Monosodium urate d. Calcium monophosphate

c. Monosodium urate

Stroking the cheek of an infant causing a turning of the mouth toward the stimulus defines which reflex? a. Blink b. Rooting c. Righting d. Snout

b. Rooting

The most objective test for the diagnosis of Carpal Tunnel Syndrome is: a. EMG-NCV test b. Phalen test c. Tinel's test d. Sensory test

a. EMG-NCV test

To prevent Low back pain with prolonged sitting, the patient should be advised to get up as often as: a. 2 hours b. 1 hour c. 45 minutes d. 20 minutes

d. 20 minutes

In an upright position, the height of the cane is measured from the level of the: a. Wrist b. Tip of 3rd finger c. Greater trochanter d. ASIS

c. Greater trochanter

Children with trisomy 21 should be advised not to engage in contact sports because of: a. Balance impairments  b. Inability to tolerate cardiac stress  c. Predisposition to atlanto-axial instability  d. Severe truncal hypotonia

c. Predisposition to atlanto-axial instability

Froment's test is a test for the function of this nerve:  a. Ulnar  b. Radial  c. Median  d. Axillary

a. Ulnar

4. The major complication associated with pressure ulcers is: a. Economic b. Infection c. Cosmetic d. Anemia

b. Infection

A student has an IQ score of 122. He is classified as:  a. Average b. Superior  c. High average  d. Very superior

b. Superior

Multiple sclerosis type that is characterized by discrete attacks or relapses, defined as periods of acute worsening of neurological function. Relapses are followed by remissions, defined as periods without disease progression and partial or complete abatement of signs and symptoms.  a. Relapsing-remitting  b. Secondary MS  c. Primary Progressive d. Progressive Relapsing

a. Relapsing-remitting

To test the right gluteus medius muscle in the trendelenberg, the patient is asked to: A. Stand on the left side B. Stand on the right leg C. Lower the left hip D. Lower the right hip

B. Stand on the right leg

This drug can induce osteoporosis: A. Antipyretics B. Cathartics C. analgesics D. corticosteroids

D. corticosteroids

The mechanism of injury in anterior shoulder dislocation is A. Hyperabduction B. Internal rotation C. External rotation D. Forward flexion

C. External rotation

Blount's disease A. Genu valgum B. Tibia vara C. Tibia valga D. Genu recurvatum

B. Tibia vara

Common area of arterial ulcer is: A. Medial malleolus B. Anterior tibia C. Lateral malleolus D. Fibular area

C. Lateral malleolus

Which of the following has a viral etiology? A. Parkinsonism B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Schrider's disease D. Multiple sclerosis

B. Guillain-Barre syndrome

Likely causative agent in poisoning/intoxication from improperly canned food A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Clostridium perfringens C. Clostridium botulinum C. Vibrio cholera

C. Clostridium botulinum

Medical Procedure to release a tendon from surrounding adhesions A. Tendon Graft B. Tenolysis C. Tendon Repair D. Tendon transfer

B. Tenolysis

A patient is difficult to arouse and falls asleep without constant stimulation from the therapist. Even when the patient is aroused, he has difficulty interacting with his therapist. What would be the BEST description of the patient's level of arousal? A. Stupor B. Lethargic C. Obtunded D. Alert

C. Obtunded

CRPS can be caused by the following, except: A. CVA B. MI C. Major surgery D. PNI E. NOTA

E. NOTA

The nature of the training experience dictates the nature of the plasticity. A. Specificity B. Salience matters C. Use it or lose it D. Intensity matters

A. Specificity

Rheumatoid arthritis: Limited in ability to perform usual self-care, vocational, and avocational activities A. class I B. class lI C. class Ill D. class IV

D. class IV

What is the leading cause of HIV transmission for women in the US? A. Homosexual intercourse B. High-risk heterosexual intercourse C. Transmission from mother to child D. Sharing needles

B. High-risk heterosexual intercourse

Involuntary, rapid, irregular, jerky movements involving multiple joints; most apparent in UE: A. Chorea B. Hemiballismus C. Tremor D. athetosis

A. Chorea

Very strong; not obliterated with moderate pressure A. Absent B. Weak C. Normal D. Bounding

D. Bounding

Associated with metabolic acidosis A. Biot's breathing B. Cheyne-stokes breathing C. Kussmaul's breathing D. Tachypnea E. NOTA

C. Kussmaul's breathing

Patient appears appropriate and oriented within the hospital and home settings; goes through daily routine automatically, but frequently robot-like. A. Confused Agitated B. Confused Inappropriate C. Confused Appropriate D. Purposeful Appropriate E. Automatic Appropriate

E. Automatic Appropriate

Fibromyalgia tender points, except: A. Occiput B. Clavicle C. 2nd rib D. Knee

B. Clavicle

Which reflex is responsible for polysynaptic excitation of the contralateral extensors? A. Stretch reflex (myotatic) B. Golgi tendon reflex (inverse myotatic) C. Flexor withdrawal reflex D. Subliminal occlusion reflex

C. Flexor withdrawal reflex

Stimulus: contact of ball of the foot in upright standing position Response: rigid extension of the LE A. Positive supporting B. ATNR C. STNR D. Moro

A. Positive supporting

Good comprehension and repetition but nonfluent A. Broca’s B. Transcortical motor C. Wernicke’s D. Transcortical sensory

B. Transcortical motor

Good Frequency, Poor Repetition, Good Comprehension A. Conduction Aphasia B. Wernicke’s Aphasia C. Transcortical Sensory Aphasia D. Transcortical Motor Aphasia

A. Conduction Aphasia

What is affected in homonymous hemianopsia? A. MCA and PCA B. MCA and ACA C. ACA and PCA D. Vertebral artery and something artery

A. MCA and PCA

Receptors responsible for vibration A. Free nerve endings B. Meissner’s corpuscles C. Krause end bulbs D. Ruffini’s endings

B. Meissner’s corpuscles

Sensory Receptor: Vibration & Deep Pressure A. Merkels B. Krause bulb C. Pacinian

C. Pacinian

Touch and 2-pt discrimination A. Meissner B. Merkel C. Krause end D. Pacinian

B. Merkel

Sensory Receptor: light touch A. Merkels B. Krause bulb C. Pacinian

A. Merkels

Sensory Receptor: cold A. Merkels B. Krause bulb C. Pacinian

B. Krause bulb

What are Pacinian corpuscles? A. Rapidly adapting touch receptor B. Pain receptors C. Slowly adapting touch receptor D. A type of temperature receptor

A. Rapidly adapting touch receptor

Wallenberg syndrome cranial nerve: A. 4 B. 6 C. 5 D. 7

C. 5

Benedikt syndrome, what cranial nerve affection A. II B. III C. IV D. V

B. III

Patient fell on the ground on flexed wrist A. Smith’s B. Colles’

A. Smith’s

Smith’s fracture A. Anterior displacement of radius B. Anterior displacement of ulna C. Posterior displacement of radius D. Posterior displacement of ulna

A. Anterior displacement of radius

Monteggia A. Fractured ulna B. Fractured radius C. Fractured ulna, subluxed radius D. Fractured radius, subluxed ulna

C. Fractured ulna, subluxed radius

No perceptible pulse even with maximum pressure A. Thready B. Absent C. Weak D. Normal

B. Absent

Very strong; not obliterated with moderate pressure A. Absent B. Weak C. Normal D. Bounding

D. Bounding

Hemipelvectomy: A. Amputation through hip joint B. Amputation both lower limbs and pelvis below L4–L5 level C. None of the above

C. None of the above

Resection of lower half of the pelvis A. Hip disarticulation B. Hemipelvectomy

B. Hemipelvectomy

Components of the GCS are? A. Eye opening, Best motor response, Verbal response B. Verbal response, Auditory response, Visual response C. Gross motor response, Visual response, Verbal response D. General response, Auditory response, Gross motor response

A. Eye opening, Best motor response, Verbal response

Central Vestibular Pathology characteristics: A. Severe Ataxia B. Hearing Loss C. Tinnitus D. Mild Ataxia

A. Severe Ataxia

Perpiheral Vestibular Pathology, EXCEPT: A. Severe Ataxia B. Hearing Loss C. Tinnitus D. Mild Ataxia

A. Severe Ataxia

Brunnstrom was the first to use the treatment of hemiplegia incorporating the use synergy action. The components of the flexor synergy for the shoulder include: A. Scapular addduction, depression, shoulder adduction and internal rotation B. Scapular adduction, elevation, shoulder abduction and external rotation C. Scapular abduction, protraction, shoulder adduction and internal rotation D. Scapular abduction, retraction, and shoulder abduction

B. Scapular adduction, elevation, shoulder abduction and external rotation

Brunstromm stages of recovery spasticity declines movement combination A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

C. 4

According to Brunnstrom, beginning of gross grasp movement and minimal finger flexion is possible A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

A. 2

Type of arthritis that is common in males A. Gout B. OA C. RA D. Psoriatric arthritis

A. Gout

Type of Multiple Sclerosis in which the periods between relapses are characterized by lack of disease progression. Affects approximately 85% of patients with MS at diagnosis A. Relapsing-Remitting MS B. Secondary-Progressive C. Primary Progressive D. Progressive-Relapsing

A. Relapsing-Remitting MS

Intervals between attacks are characterized by continuing disease progression (verbatim-2x) A. Relapsing-Remitting MS B. Secondary-Progressive C. Primary Progressive D. Progressive-Relapsing

D. Progressive-Relapsing

Also called recurrent fever A. Intermittent B. Remittent C. Relapsing D. Constant

C. Relapsing

Elevated body temperature that fluctuates more than 2 deg celcius within a 24-hour period but remains above normal A. Intermittent B. Remittent C. Relapsing D. Constant

B. Remittent

Body temperature that alternate at regular intervals between periods of normal temperature and fever? A. Intermittent B. Remittent C. Relapsing D. Constant

A. Intermittent

Patient is in a heightened state of activity. Behavior is bizzare and non-purposeful relative to immediate environment A. Localized Response B. Confused-Agitated C. Confused-Appropriate D. Confused-Inappropriate

B. Confused-Agitated

Patient is able to recall and integrate past and recent events and is aware of and responsive to environment. Shows carryover for new learning and needs no supervision once activities are learned. May continue to show a decreased ability relative to premorbid abilities, abstract reasoning, tolerance for stress, and judgment in emergencies or unusual circumstances. A. Confused-Agitated B. Confused Inappropriate C. Confused Appropriate D. Purposeful Actions

D. Purposeful Actions

Patient shows minimal to no confusion and has shallow recall of activities. Shows carryover for new learning but at a decreased rate. With structure is able to initiate social or recreational activities; judgement remains impaired A. Confused-Agitated B. Confused Inappropriate C. Confused Appropriate D. Purposeful Actions E. Automatic Appropriate

E. Automatic Appropriate

Goal directed behavior but is dependent on external input A. IV B. V C. VII D. VI

D. VI

Your TBI patient has loss of consciousness of more than 24 hours, Post-Traumatic Amnesia of more than 7 days, and GCS of less than 9. What is the severity of the TBI A. Severe B. Mild C. Moderate D. Coma

C. Moderate

Patient has loss of consciousness >30 mins A. Mild B. Moderate C. Severe

B. Moderate

State of altered consciousness characterized by present sleep-wake cycles and decreased responsiveness to stimuli A. Stupor B. Coma C. Obtunded state D. Vegetative

C. Obtunded state

Among the levels of arousal, what requires strong stimuli to arouse including pinching the achilles tendon and fingernail beds? A. Vegetative B. Obtunded C. Stupor D. Coma

C. Stupor

Froment's Sign is a test for what? A. Ulnar collateral ligament B. Ulnar nerve entrapment C. De Quervain's tenosynovitis D. Suprascapular nerve

C. De Quervain's tenosynovitis

During drop arm test, what is the position of the arm and forearm? A. Supinated and Abducted B. Pronated and Abducted C. Supinated and Flexed D. Pronated and Flexed

B. Pronated and Abducted

Positive symptoms of PD, except: a.Tremor b. Rigidity c. Bradykinesia d. Flexed posture

c. Bradykinesia

What type of instability presents in Hill-sachs lesion/deformity? a. Anterior b. Posterior c. Inferior d. Superior

a. Anterior

In Grade/Stage 2 shoulder/acromioclavicular tear, rhere is a complete tear of? a. Conoid b. Coracoclavicular c. Trapezoid d. Acromioclavicular

d. Acromioclavicular

Pain on the mid posterior calcaneus a. Calcaneal bursitis b. Calcaneal fracture c. Calcaneal bone spurs

a. Calcaneal bursitis

Hoehn-Yahr classification of Disability Stage 4 a. Confined to bed or wheelchair b. live indepedently c. Balance not impaired d. Standing or walking possible only with assistance

d. Standing or walking possible only with assistance

Increased lordosis a. Increased anterior pelvic tilit b. increased posterior pelvic tilt

a. Increased anterior pelvic tilit

A high school girl sustained a severe ankle sprain after accidentally inverting her foot during a basketball game. What structure is PROBABLY damaged? a. Distal Fibula b. Medial Cuneiform c. TP tendon d. Navicular

a. Distal Fibula

Where does the lat. femoral cutaneous nerve originate a. sural b. femoral c. L2-L3 of Lumbar Plexus

c. L2-L3 of Lumbar Plexus

Plane of Lateral bending a. Frontal plane b. Horizontal plane c. Transverse plane d. Sagittal plane

a. Frontal plane

Not part of healing a. Hematoma b. Callus formation c. Remodelling d. NOTA

d. NOTA

Deformity in which there is hyperextension of MTP and flexion of IP joint a. Clawing b. Hammer toe c. Mallet toe d. Swan Neck Deformity

a. Clawing

Your patient has Central post-stroke pain with dysesthesia. What does it mean? a. Touch experienced as pain b. pain produced by non-noxious stimuli c. decreased sensitivity to pain d. inability to perceive pain

a. Touch experienced as pain

Typical allergic response of hypersensitivity a. I b. II c. III d. IV

a. I

What is affected in drummer boy palsy? a. EPL b. FCU c. OP d. APB

a. EPL

Severe pain and temperature a. C b. B c. Alpha A d. A delta

d. A delta

What fingers are affected in Dupuytren's contracture? a. 2nd and 3rd b. 3rd and 4th c. 4th and 5th d. 1st and 2nd

c. 4th and 5th

What happens when Alpha Neuron fires? a. extrafusal contracts/fires b. intrafusal nagfire c. gamma neuron stops d. gamma neuron fire/starts

a. extrafusal contracts/fires

Efferent fibers of the muscle spindle come from the: a. All of these b. Gamma motor neuron c. Alpha motor neuron d. Extrafusal muscle

b. Gamma motor neuron

Lesion in the thoracodorsal nerve will result to: a. Teres minor weakness b. Deltoids weakness c. Serratus Anterior Atrophy d. Latissimus Dorsi Atrophy

d. Latissimus Dorsi Atrophy

During Finklestein Test, the patient is asked to: a. Actively flex thumb and clench fist over thumb and actively ulnarly deviate b. Actively flex thumb and clench fist over thumb and actively radially deviate c. Actively flex thumb and clench fist over thumb and passive radially deviate d. Actively flex thumb and clench fist over thumb and passive ulnarly deviate

d. Actively flex thumb and clench fist over thumb and passive ulnarly deviate

What shoe modification would be helpful for a patient with severe OA? a. Metatarsal pad b. Metatarsal bar c. Scaphoid pad d. Lateral heel wedge

D. Lateral heel wedge

When acetylcholine isn't degraded upon reaching the postsynaptic cleft, what happens? a. Inability of the muscles to contract b. Inability of the muscles to relax c. Tetany d.Clonus

B. Inability of the muscles to relax

In fracture of ethmoid bone, what structure is most likely affected? a. Olfactory b. Optic c. Vagus d. Trochlear

A. Olfactory

Muscle innervated by dorsal scapular nerve a. Rhomb & Lev Scap b. Serratus Anterior C. Biceps Brachii d. Latissimus Dorsi

A. Rhomb & Lev Scap

Patient has weak biceps. You know that the nerve that innervates this muscle arises from what cord? a. Lateral cord b. Medial cord c. Posterior cord d. All of these

A. Lateral cord

Hyperkalemia: a.Malignancy b. Pagets disease c. None of these d. Addison's Disease

D. Addison's Disease

Tenderness over the femoral condyle may indicate the presence of a. Patellar tendonitis b. Chondromalacia Patella c. Osteochondritis dessicans d. (Patellar.....)

C. Osteochondritis dessicans

SCI level that results to quadriplegia and use of mechanical ventilation a. C2 b. C6 c. C7 d. C5

A. C2

Elevated tyrosine will lead to: a. Increased emotional response b. Akathisia

A. Increased emotional response

Hormone for bone growth a. Gonadotrophs b. Somatotrophs c. Corticotrophs d. ---

B. Somatotrophs

Local tenderness at the ischial tuberosity and pain on resisted knee flexion a. hamstring strain b. iliopsoas tighness c. trochanteric bursitis d. sportsman's hernia

A. Hamstring strain

CMC of Thumb. What type of joint? a. Saddle b. Trochoid c. Pivot

A. Saddle (aka sellar)

Passage/ pathway of pain and temperature? a. Corticospinal tract b. Spinocerebellar tract c. Rubrospinal tract d. Spinothalamic tract e. None of the above

D. Spinothalamic tract

While treating a patient, you noticed she might have a thyroid disorder. Where will you refer? a. Endocrinologist b. Oncologist c. Medical doctor d. Physiatrist

A. Endocrinologist

Position of the forearm to isolate brachioradialis as elbow flexor a. Supinated b. Pronated c. Midposition d. NOTA

C. Midposition

What is affected in homonymous hemianopsia? a. MCA and PCA b. MCA and ACA c. ACA and PCA d. VBA

A. MCA and PCA

Nerves which innervate the wrist and hand, except? a. Radial b. Ulnar c. Musculocutaneous d. Median

C. Musculocutaneous

Initial symptoms of CRPS, except: a. Swelling b. Stiffness c. Contractures d. Pain

C. Contractures

Gold standard imaging for arterio-venous --- a. MRI b. Computed tomography angiography c. Digital subtraction angiography d. Cranial ultrasound

C. Digital subtraction angiography

Posterior muscles of neck, least important in treatment a. Scalenes b. splenius capitis c. rectus capitis d. levator scapulae

A. Scalenes

Decorticate response: A. Flexion to painful stimuli B. Extension to painful stimuli C. Withdraw to painful stimuli D. No movement

A. Flexion to painful stimuli

Not commonly affected in OA A. 1st MCP B. Knee C. Hip D. Elbow

A. 1st MCP

Best Medication for asthma A. Albuterol B. Metropolol C. C---olol

A. Albuterol

Contraindicated sa 9yrs old child with asthma A. Epinephrine B. norepinephrine C. Propranolol D. Albuterol

C. Propranolol

High in Calcium: A. Tofu B. Vanilla ice cream C. Cheese D. Pizza E. Yogurt

E. Yogurt

Speed's test is a test for: A. Transverse humeral ligament B. Bicipital tendinitis C. Supraspinatus tears D. None of the above

B. Bicipital tendinitis

Cranial Nerve: Sensory A. 3 B. 1 C. 9 D. 12

B. 1

Test for superior oblique A. Looking towards the tip of the nose using both eyes B. Looking up alone

A. Looking towards the tip of the nose using both eyes

Nerves affected in Erb-Duchenne: A. C5-6 B. C6-7 C. C4-5 D. C8-T1

A. C5-6

In a patient who has an upper motor neuron lesion, which is not part of the synergy? A. Hip Abduction B. Knee extension C. Hip Adduction D. Ankle plantarflexion

A. Hip Abduction

Strongest component of Flexor Synergy in UE? A. Scapula B. Elbow C. Wrist D. Shoulder

B. Elbow

Quick way to test the radial nerve A. Wrist flexion B. Wrist extension C. Finger abduction D. Finger flexion

B. Wrist extension

Which reflex is responsible for monosynaptic excitation of the ipsilateral homonymous muscle? A. Stretch reflex (myotatic) B. Golgi tendon reflex (inverse myotatic) C. Flexor withdrawal reflex D. Subliminal occlusion reflex

A. Stretch reflex (myotatic)

Contralateral hemiparesis involving mainly the LE with UE more spared. Medial aspect of the cortex, internal capsule-- A. ACA B. MCA C. PCA D. Vertebrobasilar artery

A. ACA

What is the MOST LIKELY result from occlusion in the R anterior cerebral artery? A. Contralateral hemiparesis, greatest to arm and shoulders B. Unrecalled C. Contralateral hemiparesis, greatest to foot D. Unilateral ataxia

C. Contralateral hemiparesis, greatest to foot

Problems with imitation and bimanual tasks, What structure is affected? A. Corpus callosum B. Uncertain localization C. Primary motor area D. Primary sensory area

A. Corpus callosum

Lower extremity extension synergy components, except: A. Hip extension B. Hip abduction C. Ankle plantarflexion D. Toe pantarflexion

B. Hip abduction

The radial head is kept in place by the: A. Biceps insertion B. Radial collateral ligament C. Ulnar collateral ligament D. Annular ligament

D. Annular ligament

The most commonly injured ligament of the ankle joint in sprain is the: A. Anterior talofibular ligament B. Anterior tibiofibular ligament C. Medial deltoid ligament D. Calcaneofibular ligament

A. Anterior talofibular ligament

The conoid and trapezoid are ligaments that connect the: A. Clavicle and sternum B. Acromion and clavicle C. Coracoids and humerus D. Coracoids and clavicle E. Hinge

D. Coracoids and clavicle

Outer covering of the nerve a. Epineurium b. Endoneurium c. Schwann Cell d. Axon e. Perineurium

A. Epineurium

Shoulder extensor: a. Anterior deltoids b. Trapezius c. Supraspinatus d. Subscapularis e. None of the above

E. None of the above

Which of the following is a shoulder extensor? a. Anterior deltoids b. Trapezius c. Supraspinatus d. None of the above

D. None of the above

The only pyramidal tract a. Corticospinal tract b. Spinocerebellar tract c. Rubrospinal tract d. Spinothalamic tract e. None of the above

A. Corticospinal tract

A man sustained burns to his genital area a. 1% b. 9% c. 14% d. 45%

A. 1%

Burn – child, scrotal area, how many %? a. 1% b. 5% c. 9% d. 18%

A. 1%

In assessing ROM in shoulder extension, where should the axis be placed? a. Acromion process b. 1 inch below acromion process c. 1 inch above glenoid fossa d. Glenoid fossa

B. 1 inch below acromion process

13-14 is classified as what on the Borg Scale? a. Light b. Very light c. Somewhat hard d. Very hard

C. Somewhat hard

Which vitamins are needed for bone development? a. A, B, C b. A, C, D c. A, B, E, K d. A, B, D

B. A, C, D

What structure, when cut, will result in loss of temporal fields of both eyes? a. Optic chiasm b. Optic tract c. Lateral geniculate body d. Optic radiation

A. Optic chiasm

Loss of vision on left and right temporal field? lesion on optic __: a. Radiation b. Nerve c. Chiasm

C. Chiasm

STATIONARY arm placement in wrist flexion/extension a. Parallel to 2nd metacarpal b. Parallel to 3rd metacarpal c. Along the midline of the dorsal surface of the forearm d. capitate

C. Along the midline of the dorsal surface of the forearm

What carpal bones have ligament connection? a. Scaphoid and hamate b. Scaphoid and lunate c. Capitate and trapezoid d. Lunate and trapezoid

B. Scaphoid and lunate

All carpal bones have four articulating surfaces, EXCEPT: a. Hamate b. Trapezium c. Pisiform d. Scaphoid

C. Pisiform

The radiocarpal joint is formed by the biconcave distal and of the radius and the biconcave proximal articulating surfaces of the following carpal bones: a. Capitate and Lunate b. Scaphoid and Trapezoid c. Scaphoid and Lunade d. None of these

C. Scaphoid and Lunade

These two carpal bones provide a large amount of mobility due to its tendinous attachments. a. Capitate and Lunate b. Capitate and Scaphoid c. Scaphoid and Lunate d. Scaphoid and Hamate

C. Scaphoid and Lunate

In the CSF, what connects Lateral Ventricle to 3rd Ventricle: a. Foramen of Monroe b. Foramen of Magendie c. Foramen of Luschka d. Sylvian Aqueduct e. Astereognosis

A. Foramen of Monroe

CVA client, affected is right thalamus, most likely presentation: a. Severe left hemiparesis b. Mild left hemiparesis c. Left hemianopsia d. Homonymous hemianopsia

B. Mild left hemiparesis

Lesion to the R Thalamus. What is the possible presentation? a. L Mild left hemiparesis b. Severe left hemiparesis c. L Hemianopsia d. Aphasia

A. L Mild left hemiparesis

right caudate nucleus a. aphasia b. right hemiparesis c. left hemiparesis d. left (?) eye contriction e. aphasia

C. left hemiparesis

281. You are moving a pencil from left to right in front of the patient, and he is unable to follow. What structure is affected? a. Olivary nucleus b. Superior Colliculi c. Lateral geniculate bodies d. Medial geniculate bodies

b. Superior Colliculi

282. You are assigned a new patient who has just recently suffered a stroke of the R MCA lower trunk, you would expect what manifestations? a. Anomia b. Visuo-spatial deficits c. Broca’s aphasia d. Global aphasia

b. Visuo-spatial deficits

283. Hip flexion: (Iliopsoas) a. L3 b. L1 c. L2 d. L4

c. L2

284. Basal ganglia lesion EXCEPT: a. Tone b. Movement disorder c. Balance d. Tremore

c. Balance

285. Homonymous hemianopsia a. MCA b. MCA, ACA c. MCA, PCA d. PCA

c. MCA, PCA

286.Loss of innervation to hamstrings, sartorius, gracilis and lower leg mms, presents with foot drop a. CPN b. Sciatic c. Femoral d. Obturator

b. Sciatic

287. Cauda equina is composed of a. spinal nerves below the 1st lumbar segment of the spinal cord b. spinal nerves of S1,2,3 c. Posterior rami of spinal nerves L2–5

a. spinal nerves below the 1st lumbar segment of the spinal cord

288. Affectation in right red nucleus manifestation. a. Left hemiparesis b. Right hemiparesis c. Hemianopsia d. —

a. Left hemiparesis

289. Diffuse redness in face a. Flushing b. Pallor c. Erythema d. Jaundice

a. Flushing

290. Flexor tenosynovitis, stenosing, what pulley is affected a. A1 b. A2 c. A3 d. A4

a. A1

291. GCS: Decorticate a. 3 b. 1 c. 5 d. 7

a. 3

292. GCS: Decerebrate a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

a. 2

293. Measurement of visual field a. Perimetry b. Optometry c. — d. —

a. Perimetry

294. Which among the following is the maximum saturated oxygenated blood? a. 98% b. 99% c. 92% d. 85%

b. 99%

295. Movements of distal radioulnar joint a. Wrist pronation b. Wrist supination c. Radial deviation d. NOTA

d. NOTA

296. Primary pain is in left upper quadrant and has referred pain in left shoulder a. Pancreatitis b. Gastritis c. Appendicitis d. Spleen

d. Spleen

297. Referred pain in shoulder except: a. heart b. diaphragm irritation c. liver d. spleen?

b Diaphragm irritation

298. Neutralizes the acid in the stomach a. Sodium b. Bicarbonate c. Chloride d. —

b. Bicarbonate (alkaline)

299. Sharp, pin-pricking sensation. What fiber? a. A delta b. C c. Beta d. Gamma

a. A Delta (pain fibers : acute, fast fibers)

300. Term used in patients with difficulty in swallowing a. Dysphonia b. Dyswallowmia c. Dysphagia d. Dysdiadochokinesia

c. Dysphagia

MISC 1 Flashcards

(300 cards)