MES 2 Flashcards by Ralph Senarlo

Which of the following is NOT a component of movement of the capsular pattern for the glenohumeral joint?

A. medial rotation
B. Adduction
C. lateral rotation
D. abduction

B. Adduction

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The 41-year-old pregnant patient during gait analysis shows a waddling gait. The muscle of poor control in this case is the:

A. Gluteus medius
B. Gluteus maximus
C. Sartorius
D. Gluteus minimus

A. Gluteus medius

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On examination of a patient with shoulder pain, you note a painful arc of movement between 90–120 degrees of abduction. What pathology comes to mind?

A. Adhesive capsulitis
B. Global instability
C. Ruptured rotator cuff
D. Supraspinatus impingement

D. Supraspinatus impingement

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Which of the following conditions is NOT a contraindication to Massage?

A. Myofascial pain
B. Tumors
C. Skin infection
D. Myositis ossificans

A. Myofascial pain

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In research methods, the most useful measures of central tendency or location are the following. Which one is NOT used as a measure?

A. Mode
B. Mean
C. Variation
D. Median

C. Variation

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Walking on level surfaces requires at least how many degrees of knee flexion?

A. 85
B. 90
C. 110
D. 70

D. 70

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This method of fracture fixation incorporates the principle of “distraction osteogenesis”. What is this method called?

A. External Fixation
B. IM Nailing
C. ORIF
D. Ilizarov

D. Ilizarov

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Aside from fractures of the neck of the femur, what is the other bone which is prone to avascular necrosis?

A. Scaphoid
B. Navicular
C. Mandible
D. Patella

A. Scaphoid

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An adequate blood supply is vital for fracture healing. The part of the tibia which is most notorious for slow healing due to its low vascularity is the __.

A. Upper third
B. Distal third
C. Middle third
D. Proximal third

B. Distal third

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An avulsion fracture of the patella involves what muscle?

A. Sartorius
B. TFL
C. Hamstring
D. Quadriceps

D. Quadriceps

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The 46 y/o Male vehicular accident patient sustained an avulsion fracture of the pelvis over the ASIS. What muscles may have been involved?

A. Rectus femoris and Gluteus Medius
B. Sartorius and Iliopsoas
C. Iliopsoas and Gluteus Medius
D. Rectus Femoris and Sartorius

D. Rectus Femoris and Sartorius

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A fracture is said to be healed if the following is present. Which one is NOT considered a finding in a patient with a healed fracture?

A. Moderate tenderness at the fracture site
B. Normal functional movements
C. Disappearance of the fracture line on X-ray
D. Absence of pain on weight bearing or movement

A. Moderate tenderness at the fracture site

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There are factors affecting fracture healing which may include many, but the following are the most studied. EXCEPT:

A. Age
B. Alcohol beverage intake
C. Smoking
D. Bone type

B. Alcohol beverage intake

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Low level laser therapy is best used for which of the following indications?

A. Pain
B. Soft tissue injury
C. All of the answers are correct
D. Inflammatory arthropathies

C. All of the answers are correct

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The 46 y/o Male fracture patient is diagnosed to have CRPS (complex regional pain syndrome) or RSD of the affected lower extremity. Which of the following modalities will be of most help for him?

A. HMP
B. Ice
C. TENS
D. Laser

C. TENS

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Shockwave therapy is best used for which indication?

A. Fractures
B. Chronic tendinopathies
C. Acute Tendonitis
D. None of the answers

B. Chronic tendinopathies

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The electrotherapeutic machine which had shown some promise in accelerating fracture healing is

A. TENS
B. High-intensity Ultrasound
C. LASER
D. Low-intensity Ultrasound

D. Low-intensity Ultrasound

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Pulsed Shortwave therapy (PSWT) appear to have its main effect at the cell membrane level, with resulting “up-regulation” of cellular behaviors, enhancing the tissue repair process. Which modality has this primary effect as well?

A. Ultrasound and laser
B. Ultrasound and shockwave
C. Shockwave and laser
D. TENS and laser

A. Ultrasound and laser

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What recreational activity consuming 4-5 METS helps build up endurace?

A. Playing cards
B. Archery
C. Ballet
D. Billiards

c. Ballet

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A patient standing quietly uses this much METS

A. 3.5
B. 2.0
C. 1.0
D. 4.5

b. 2.0

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During Proprioceptive exercises, some techniques to provide progression would include:

a. Maintaining visual stimulus
b. Maintaining the base of support
c. Increasing speed of an activity
d. Decreasing weight-bearing

c. Increasing speed of an activity

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Neuromotor therapy approaches in Cerebral Palsy which utilizes the Vestibular System to effect a motor response:

a. Neurodevelopmental (Bobath)
b. Vojta Approach
c. Sensory Integration (Ayres)
d. Sensorimotor approach (Rood)

c. Sensory Integration (Ayres)

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The 57-year-old female post Breast cancer surgery patient is complaining of a tender cord-like structure on her chest wall up to the axillary area, which is very tight and painful, preventing movements of her arm. What would be the best advice to give the patient, to ease her suffering?

a. Gentle soft tissue massage may be of help.
b. All of the answers
c. This may be lymphangitis or lymphatic thrombosis, which is a result of the surgery.
d. Active and Passive movements of the arm and shoulder could help.

b. All of the answers

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How would fusion of both ankles alter normal lumbo-pelvic rhythm?

a. Hip flexion would be increased during forward trunk flexion
b. Pelvic tilt would be increased during forward trunk flexion
c. Posterior displacement of the pelvis would be limited during forward trunk flexion
d. Pelvic tilt would be limited during forward trunk flexion

c. Posterior displacement of the pelvis would be limited during forward trunk flexion

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Causes of lumbopelvic pain during pregnancy are many and multifactorial. Among the most common would be: a. Postural adaptations b. Weight gain c. Any of the answers d. Fatigue

c. Any of the answers

Phantom limb pains in amputees are generally not exacerbated by which of the following? a. Loss of a spouse b. Iliness c. A new job d. Bereavement

NONE OF THE CHOICES

In shoulder arthroplasties, what is the usual time postoperative to discontinue use of the shoulder sling? a. 3-6 weeks b. 6-8 weeks c. 1-2 weeks d. 2-4 weeks

a. 3-6 weeks

The 56 yo Male patient in the private ward is 2days post thoracic surgery and is being referred for post-operative Chest Physiotherapy. This would include the following. Which one should NOT be done yet? a. Trunk AROM exercise b. Supported cough c. Breathing exercises d. Shoulder exercises

a. Trunk AROM exercise

A new patient referred for PT is complaining of inability to reach his back pocket for his wallet, comb his hair or reach above shoulder level. He may have joint contracture affecting which of the following movements? a. Shoulder extension, adduction, internal rotation b. Shoulder flexion, abduction, external rotation c. Shoulder flexion, abduction, internal rotation d. Shoulder flexion, adduction, internal rotation

b. Shoulder flexion, abduction, external rotation

The ICU patient with diagnosis of ARDS (Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome) secondary to Sepsis, is being referred for Rehabilitation. You may start with which of the following? a. Chest Physiotherapy and ROM exercises b. Chest physiotherapy only c. Chest physiotherapy and PREs d. Chest physiotherapy and Functional Activities

a. Chest Physiotherapy and ROM exercises

The most common type of Idiopathic Scoliosis is a. Adolescent onset b. Adult onset c. Infantile onset d. Juvenile onset

a. Adolescent onset

The lumbar spine has good flexion and extension and free lateral flexion due to the following below. Which one is actually a hindrance to flexion and extension at the level of the lumbar spine? a. Facet alignment b. Sagittal directed facet joints c. Posteriorly directed spinous process d. Large disks

a. Facet alignment

The 56 y.o. Male patient post thoracic surgery has a chest thoracostomy or intercostals drain in place. You will allow him to do which of the following? a. Walking in the room b. Sitting only c. Supine and high back rest only d. Standing at bedside

d. Standing at bedside

In cases of pneumonia, once the inflammation has begun to resolve, the following may be done. Which one of the following may not be necessary? a. Use of humidifiers b. Walking c. Use of inhalers d. Positioning

c. Use of inhalers

In a patient with a forward head posture, the neck muscles which need to be addressed would all of the following, What muscles may NOT be related to this posture? a. Deep Cervical Flexors b. Trapezius c. Temporalis d. Sternocleidomastoid.

c. Temporalis

The patients in palliative care has late-stage Bronchial carcinoma, you plan to include all of the following in the treatment plan. The most important of these would be? a. Coughing Techniques b. Pain control and comfort c. Modified postural drainage d. Breathing exercises

b. Pain control and comfort

Which of the following may cause asymmetrical positions of the pelvis which may aggravate pelvic and back pain of pregnancy? a. Any of the answers b. Pushing a grocery cart c. Going up and down the stairs d. Standing on one leg

a. Any of the answers

Inpatient therapy for post-partum patients is very important. In cases of patients with trauma to the perineal area, which of the following may NOT be warranted? a. hot moist packs b. ice c. electrotherapy d. Exercises

a. hot moist packs

Manual Therapy techniques are used in management of movement restrictions of the spine and pelvic girdle in pregnancy pain. Other techniques which may be used include a. Strain/counterstain b. Positional release c. All of the answers d. Taping

c. All of the answers

Which of the following are not helpful for pregnant patients with back pain? a. Avoid standing on one leg b. None of the answers c. Consider alternate positions for intercourse d. Explore alternative ways to climb stairs

b. None of the answers

The 34-year-old pregnant patient with severe back pain asks you when will the pain stop. You advise that according to studies, the pain may resolve after delivery or up to how many months after. a. 6 months b.18 months c. 24 months d.12 months

b.18 months

In difficult surgeries of hip joint replacements, dislocations have occurred. To prevent dislocation, several solutions have proved to be helpful. Which one of the following may NOT be useful? a. No adduction beyond 90 degrees b. No flexion beyond 90 degrees c. Abduction wedge or pillows d. No abduction beyond 90 degrees

d. No abduction beyond 90 degrees

On examination of the foot, tenderness at the heel is found in which of the following conditions? a. Calcaneal spurs b. All of the answers are correct c. Tendocalcaneal bursitis d. Plantar fasciitis

b. All of the answers are correct

On the palpation of the knee, tenderness at the tibial tubercle in children and adolescents, which may also show enlargement of the tibial tubercle prominence, may be associated with a. Osteochondritis dissecan b. Osgood Schlatter's disease c. Chondromalacia patella d. Patellofemoral dysfunction

b. Osgood Schlatter's disease

Your female friend is noted to have scapular winging. You make a mental note that the muscles that may be involved are the following EXCEPT: a. Pectoralis minor b. None of the answer c. Trapezius d. Serratus Anterior

b. None of the answer

On examination of a male patient with hip pain, he tells you that he has pain in the inguinal area on coughing and on ambulation. What might you also consider the patient is having? a. Hip OA b. Hip bursitis c. Disc Herniation d. Hernia

d. Hernia

On examination of a patient with shoulder pain, on P.E., pain and weakness on resisted elbow and shoulder flexion is noted. What will you consider? a. Ruptured biceps brachii b. Ruptured rotator cuff c. Frozen shoulder d. Impingement syndrome

a. Ruptured biceps brachii

On examination of a patient with foot and ankle pain, on history she notes she has had several incidences of ankle sprain. When she walks on rocky ground, the ankle feels unstable and times, gives away. On P.E., you note especially the poor proprioception in the affected leg. What does the patient have? a. Lateral ligament sprain b. Lengthened lateral ligaments c. Osteoarthritis of the ankle d. Tibialis posterior tendonitis

b. Lengthened lateral ligaments

On palpation of the foot and ankle, tenderness along the line of the long flexor tendons, and is accompanied by thickening may be indicative of what problem? a. Peroneal strain b. Osteoarthritis c. Ligament sprain d. Tenosynovitis

d. Tenosynovitis

On examination of a male obese patient with hip pain, on palpation there is local tenderness at the ischial tuberosity, and particularly he notes pain on the resisted knee flexion. What is this case? a. Hamstring strain b. Hip bursitis c. Hip OA d. Disc Herniation

a. Hamstring strain

A 58 y.o. Male who has been playing tennis for 30 years complains of chronic shoulder pain. On P.E., noted are the following: wasting of the supraspinatus, tenderness over the anterior acromion and greater tuberosity, passive ROM of shoulder greater than AROM especially in abduction and External Rotation with weakness of Abd and ER. He most likely has this a. Acute traumatic bursitis b. Stage Ill Rotator Cuff Disease c. Complete rotator cuff tendon tear/ rupture d. Glenohumeral joint instability

c. Complete rotator cuff tendon tear/ rupture

On examination of a female elderly patient with ankle pain, she complains that her ankle pain had been there for several years, and is described as stiffness and discomfort especially on ambulation. With just this information, what do you consider? a. Chronic Ankle Sprain b. Gouty Arthritis c. Posterior tibialis tendonitis d. Ankle osteoarthritis

d. Ankle osteoarthritis

The 40-year-old female patient who sustained a tibial condyle fracture of the knee has a dark swelling of the affected knee. You advise the patient to elevate the extremity when lying or sitting. After 1 week, the swelling decreases. What is the most likely cause of the knee swelling? a. Fracture b. Sprain c. Synovitis d. Hemarthrosis

d. Hemarthrosis

On palpation of the knee, tenderness at the adductor tubercle may indicate strain of what muscle? a. Adductor magnus b. Sartorius c. Iliopsoas d. Gluteus minimus

a. Adductor magnus

On examination of the toes, what is hyperextension of the MTP joints and flexion of the other phalangeal joints? a. hammer toe b. Clawing c. mallet toe d. hallux valgus

b. Clawing

Diagnostic Criteria for Hand Osteoarthritis include which of the following? a. all of the choices b. Joint space narrowing in any finger joint c. Age > 40 years old d. Presence of Heberden's nodes

a. all of the choices

On examination of a female obese patient with knee pain, she complains of years of knee stiffness and pain for about 30 minutes every morning when she wakes up, and has recurrent knee aches towards the end of the day. What is this condition/ pathology? a. Chondromalacia patella b. Patellar bursitis c. Patellar tendonitis d. Knee OA

d. Knee OA

HLA-B27 is specific for a. Psoriatic Arthritis b. Scleroderma c. Ankylosing Spondylitis d. SLE

c. Ankylosing Spondylitis

Manual Therapy may also be used for your 69-year-old aunt with severe degenerative OA of both knees. She has genu Varus and limitation towards full knee flexion and extension. Which of the following are allowed for her? a. passive ROM, accessory joint motion b. all of the answers c. massage techniques d. soft tissue mobilization

b. All of the answers

Diagnostic Criteria for Hand Osteoarthritis include which of the following? a. all of the choices b. presence of Heberden's nodes c. Age > 40 years old d. Joint space narrowing in any finger joint e. Family history of nodes

a. all of the choices

A 10-year-old Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis patient does not cooperate with his or activities. However, he needs orthoses for his multiple joint affectations. Some strategies to improve compliance include which one of the following A. Custom-made braces and splints B. Use creative colors and designs for hand splints C. Explain the purpose and benefits of the splint D. All of the answers

D. All of the answers

The most common documented route of transmission of the HIV in women in the United States is A. Intravenous drug use B. Perinatal transmission C. High risk heterosexual sex D. Same sex transmission

C. High risk heterosexual sex

In a patient with spastic hypertonia, any of the following may be used EXCEPT: A. Captopril B. Dantrolene C. Baclofen D. Diazepam

A. Captopril

The new inpatient in the Cancer ward is post Radiotherapy for Bronchial carcinoma. Which of the following is contraindicated? A. Percussion, Shaking B. Breathing exercises C. Postural Drainage D. Coughing

A. Percussion, Shaking

A Breast cancer patient is referred for Rehab. She is 2 weeks post modified radical mastectomy with lymph node dissection of the right upper extremity. She has edema of the entire right upper extremity, limitation of the shoulder and MMT is Gr 3-/5. Which of the following is NOT warranted as part of the management of this patient? A. Pendulum exercises, ROM, and stretching B. Use of hot compress for the right upper extremity C. Strengthening of the rotator cuff, scapular stabilizers D. Use of compression garments of UE

C. Strengthening of the rotator cuff, scapular stabilizers

In a 57 y.o. breast cancer patient who is post-operative, the following may be given as exercise guidelines, EXCEPT for one which is ___. A. Daily upper extremity AROM exercises are encouraged B. Shoulder movements should be limited below shoulder-level lymphedema C. Full ROM movements of the affected shoulder from Day 1-2 D. None of the answers

C. Full ROM movements of the affected shoulder from Day 1-2

In Hip joint arthroplasties, complications may arise such as Deep venous Thrombosis or Pulmonary Embolism. To prevent this, what are the important things that should be done? The following are all included EXCEPT? A. Anti-embolic stockings B. Early mobilization C. Prophylactic anticoagulants D. All the answers are correct

D. All the answers are correct

At the Cardiac Rehab Clinic, your patient which is low risk and uncomplicated, has a resting heart rate of 65 beats per minute. He achieves a maximum heart rate of 160 beats per minute during an EXG exercise test. The intensity of training is set at 50-70% of HRR (Heart rate Reserve). What is the training heart rate using the Karvonen Formula? A. 121-131 bpm B. 122-133 bpm C. 112-131 bpm D. 113-211 bpm

C. 112-131 bpm

Cardiac Exercise prescription for patients with Arthritis should NOT include which of the following components? A. Time: 5-10 minutes per exercise session B. Type: low impact C. Frequency: 3-5 times a week or less during painful exacerbations D. Intensity: 60 HR max

A. Time: 5-10 minutes per exercise session

The patient in Palliative care has late-stage Bronchial carcinoma, you plan to include all of the following in the treatment plan. The most important of these would be? A. Pain control and comfort B. Breathing exercises C. Modified postural drainage D. Coughing techniques

A. Pain control and comfort

Moderate risk Cardiac patients have risk factors. Which one is included? A. Functional capacity up to 5 METS B. MI with Congestive Heart failure C. Normal exercises testing and recovery D. Survivor of cardiac arrest

A. Functional capacity up to 5 METS

Hormone therapy may help in relieving symptoms of Menopause. This may include the following hormones EXCEPT: A. None of the answers B. Estrogen and Progesterone C. Testosterone D. Estrogen

C. Testosterone

A 20/F patient with focal dystonia in the form of Writer’s cramp had Botox Injection done for the flexors of her affected digits. However, she notes weakness of all the functions of her hand sometime after injection. Suggested management would be: A. Splinting of the affected hand B. ES of the hand muscle C. Stretching exercises of the hand muscles D. Strengthening exercises of the hand muscles

D. Strengthening exercises of the hand muscles

The training experience must be sufficiently salient to induce plasticity. This principle of Experience-dependent Neuroplasticity is: A. Transference B. Use it and Improve it C. Specificity D. None of the choices

D. None of the choices

Parkinsonism is classified into a Primary neurodegenerative disorder and a Secondary neurodegenerative disorder. Which one of the following is NOT a secondary Neurodegenerative disorder Parkinsonism? A. Drugs and other toxins B. Multiple Cerebral Infarcts C. Trauma from boxing D. Multiple systems atrophy

D. Multiple systems atrophy

The POSITIVE phenomena of Parkinson’s disease include which of the following? A. Tremor B. Postural instability C. Bradykinesia D. Freezing Phenomenon

A. Tremor

Contralateral hemiparesis with relative sparing of the hand and face and greater weakness of the leg. A. ACA B. PCA C. Lenticulostriate Artery D. MCA

A. ACA

In progression of the muscle atrophy and contracture, loss of muscle mass occurs. Which of the following is true? A. Increase in number of myofilaments B. Lengthening of the perimysium connective tissue C. Total number of myofibers (muscle cells) is unchanged D. Increase in sarcomeres

C. Total number of myofibers (muscle cells) is unchanged

Repetition is very good in patients with which type of Aphasia? A. Transcortical motor B. Wernicke C. Conduction D. Global

A. Transcortical motor

Following injury to a nerve at the wrist, the hand is noted to have guttering or atrophy between the metacarpals, with MCPs in extension and PIPs, DIPs of digits, and IP of the thumb in flexion. What nerve is injured? A. Median nerve B. Ulnar nerve C. Radial nerve D. Axillary nerve

B. Ulnar nerve

In progression of the muscle atrophy and contracture, loss of muscle mass occurs. Which of the following is true? a. Increase in number of myofilaments b. Lengthening of the perimysium connective tissue c. Total number of myofibers (muscle cells) is unchanged d. Increase in sarcomeres

d. Increase in sarcomeres

The TBI patient is in a heightened state of activity. Behavior is bizarre and no purposeful. Unable to cooperate directly with treatment efforts. Confabulation may present. Verbalizations are incoherent and inappropriate. This is the Rancho Los Amigos level of ____. a. Confused-agitated b. Generalized response c. Confused-appropriate d. Confused-inappropriate

a. Confused-agitated

Mild TBI has the following characteristics, EXCEPT: a. Loss of consciousness, if any, 30 mins or more b. Initial GCS 13-15 c. Negative CT and/or MRI d. No focal neurological deficit

a. Loss of consciousness, if any, 30 mins or more

What group of muscles are used to study the effect of drugs to help in diagnosing Myasthenia Gravis? a. Facial muscles b. Intrinsic muscles of the hand C. Shoulder girdle of the hand d. Shoulder girdle muscles e. nExtraocular muscles

In a patient with vertigo caused by Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo, which of the following is normal or negative. a. Gait b. Tandem Romberg c. Romberg's sign d. All

D. All

Physical therapy/ Vestibular Rehab may not be indicated or not appropriate for: a. Unilateral Vestibular hypofunction b. Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo c. Centrally located lesions d. Meniere's disease

d. Meniere's disease

The 45-year-old Female office employee presents with an exaggerated lumbar lordosis and a (+) Thomas test. This may be due to: a. Weakness of the hip abductors b. Weakness of the lumbar muscles c. Tightness of the hip extensors d. Tightness of the hip flexors

d. Tightness of the hip flexors

Which of the special tests may help in diagnosing pelvic girdle pain of pregnancy? a. Patrick-Fabere test c. Lhermitte's test b. Allen's test d. Adson's test

a. Patrick-Fabere test

Goals of therapy for orthopedic patients as well as other types of patients should be SMART. This stands for the following EXCEPT: a. Achievable and Realistic b. Specific and Measurable c. All of the answers are correct d. Timely

c. All of the answers are correct

On examination of a patient with shoulder pain, the patient is unable to do active abduction, and when you passively assist the shoulder abduction, the arm falls to the side. What do you strongly consider in this case? a. Ruptured rotator cuff b. Ruptured biceps brachii c. Impingement syndrome d. Global instability

a. Ruptured rotator cuff

The 89 yo female patient, though frail, was previously well, functional and ambulatory. While walking in uneven ground, she heard a crack in her right hip, followed by a sudden severe pain causing her to fall on the ground. Xray shows a fracture. What nay have been the cause of this sudden fracture? a. Osteoarthritis b. Osteomyelitis c. Osteoporosis d. Osteopenia

c. Osteoporosis

Rupture of the tendo calcaneus results in inability to do which movement? a. evert the midfoot b. plantarflex the ankle c. dorsiflex the foot d. invert the midfoot

b. plantarflex the ankle

On examination of a male athlete with knee pain, you note tenderness on the medial aspect of the knee, with aggravation of the pain when he moves his knee sideways. What is the possible injury? a. Knee OA b. Torn medial collateral ligament c. Infective arthritis d. Torn meniscus

b. Torn medial collateral ligament

ASIA Impairment Scale C a. Sensation preserved in S4-S5; more than half the key muscles below the neurological level of injury less than Grade 3/5 b. Intact S4-S5. No motor function at neurological level of injury c. Intact S4-S5. No motor function below 3 segments down the neurological level of injury d. S4-S5 sensation intact. Muscles below Neurological level of injury grade more than 3/5

a. Sensation preserved in S4-S5; more than half the key muscles below the neurological level of injury less than Grade 3/5

Degeneration of motor neurons of cranial nerve IX to XII would result in the following symptoms. Which symptom would be LEAST likely to be observed? a. drooling of saliva b. anosmia c. dysarthria d. dysphagia

b. anosmia

The following are possible mechanisms for Spastic Hypertonia EXCEPT: a. Increase in presynaptic inhibition b. Reduced inhibitory synaptic input c. Denervation hypersensitivity d. d. Gamma efferent hyperactivity

d. Gamma efferent hyperactivity

Right Hemispheric Strokes a. highly distractible b. difficulty with expression of positive emotions c. aphasic d. difficulty with expression of negative emotions

d. difficulty with expression of negative emotions

Ashworth Scale Score 2 a. slight increase in muscle tone, catch and release b. considerable increase in muscle tone, passive ROM difficult c. marked increase in muscle tone through most of ROM, but limb is easily moved d. limb rigid in flexion or extension

c. marked increase in muscle tone through most of ROM, but limb is easily moved

SCI patient A: Deficits are 0/5 both biceps and the entire UE; 0/5 both LEs; sensory 50% over neck area only. Orthosis? a. Head cervical orthosis b. Halo vest C. Thoracolumbosacral Orthosis d. None e. Cervicothoracic Orthosis

b. Halo vest

SCl patient D: Biceps 5/5, Hands good grip; hip flexors 3/5, knee extensors 1/5; sensory deficits both lower extremities. Injury? a. T12 b. T6 c. S1 d. L4

a. T12

Tiny red or purple hemorrhagic spots appearing in clusters, may be a sign of thrombocytopenia. a. Petechiae b. Ecchymosis c. Jaundice d. Bruise

a. Petechiae

Bluish-purple to greenish-yellow bruising or bleeding under the skin often caused by trauma: a. Petechiae b. Ecchymosis c. Jaundice d. Bruise

b. Ecchymosis

Cerebellar pathology: rhythmic oscillations of the head; axial movement of the trunk. a. Resting tremor b. Titubation c. Nystagmus d. Rebound phenomenon

b. Titubation

Basal ganglia pathology: sustained involuntary contractions of agonist and antagonist muscles. a. Cogwheel rigidity b. Hyperkinesis c. Dystonia d. Dyssynergia

c. Dystonia

Pathway responsible for discriminative sensations, precise localization, and fine intensity gradations. a. Dorsal column–medial lemniscal b. Anterolateral spinothalamic c. Corticospinal d. Rubrospinal

a. Dorsal column–medial lemniscal

Hormone in charge for fight or flight response: a. Adrenaline b. Glucagon c. Insulin d. Acetylcholine

a. Adrenaline

Pain medication recommended for peptic ulcer: a. Ibuprofen b. Ketorolac c. Aspirin d. Diclofenac

b. Ketorolac

An acute bacterial (often streptococcus) or viral infection that spreads throughout the system; red streaks are often seen in skin proximal to infection site: a. Generalized lymphadenopathy b. Secondary lymphadenopathy c. Lymphadenitis d. Lymphangitis

d. Lymphangitis

Which of the following is a leukotriene receptor blocker? a. Aprofostadil b. Aspirin c. Montelukast d. Ibuprofen

c. Montelukast

Severe headache for almost 2 hours followed by a sudden loss of consciousness: a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage b. Viral encephalitis c. Migraine d. Brain tumor

a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

Severe headache with photosensitivity, neck stiffness, and abrupt onset of symptoms: a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage b. Viral encephalitis c. Migraine d. Brain tumor

a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

What is the most common indirect cause of TBI? a. Drugs b. Alcohol c. Cigarette smoking d. Poisonous food

b. Alcohol

If you are rubbing a salt to stimulate the taste receptors, you increase the sensitivity of sweetness. This principle is known as: a. Simultaneous contrast b. Accommodation c. Compensation d. Successive contrast

d. Successive contrast

Noradrenergic receptors are found in the: a. Substantia nigra b. Raphe nucleus c. Locus Coeruleus d. Cerebellar peduncle

c. Locus Coeruleus

Ability to see in the dark: a. Dark adaptation b. Light adaptation c. Dark vision d. Light vision

a. Dark adaptation

Lesion to the third frontal convolution will result to the following, except: a. Broca’s aphasia b. Non-fluent speech with good comprehension c. Poor repetition, naming, writing and reading comprehension d. All of these e. None of these

c. Poor repetition, naming, writing and reading comprehension

Fetal movement begins to be felt by: a. 16th week of gestation b. 20th week of gestation c. 22nd week of gestation d. 24th week of gestation

a. 16th week of gestation

During early phase of rehabilitation of a patient post-right total hip arthroplasty, posterolateral approach, precautions for the following exercises are necessary, EXCEPT FOR: I. Crossed-leg sitting II. Ascending stairs with the right leg leading III. Single-leg standing on the (R) lower extremity IV. Bending the trunk forward to tie shoes a. All are allowed b. I, II, III c. IV only d. All of these

a. All are allowed

In a patient with pituitary adenoma, the mass may put pressure in all of the following structures, EXCEPT: a. Optic nerve compression b. Cranial nerves for extraocular eye movements c. Optic chiasm d. Internal carotid artery e. NOTA

b. Cranial nerves for extraocular eye movements

Criteria for hip osteoarthritis, except: a. Pain on internal rotation b. Hip internal rotation ≥ 15° c. Morning stiffness ≥ 60 mins d. Age > 50 years

c. Morning stiffness ≥ 60 mins

A 6-year-old woman presents for a routine exam at a doctor’s office. She stands up several times during the visit to check herself in the mirror and asks if her new dress is pretty. On exam, she is wearing revealing clothing and jumps up dramatically, yelling that the stethoscope is “too cold.” At the end of the visit, she starts tearing up and says that no doctor has ever been so attentive previously. You suspect that the patient has: a. Narcissistic personality disorder b. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD) c. Histrionic personality d. Factitious disorder

C. Histrionic personality disorder

A 15-year-old girl presents for a routine appointment. She describes problems at school with social situations, and struggles to fit in with the popular crowd and be thinner. She eats large amounts of food but describes feeling out of control while doing so for the past 6 months, where she eats as much as an entire pizza and ice cream. She quickly feels guilty afterward, and then makes herself throw up by sticking her fingers in her throat. Her vital signs are normal; height is 5 feet 2 inches, and she weighs 135 pounds. Her BMI is 27.5. She has sialadenosis (Salivary gland enlargement), dental caries, and abrasion on the dorsum of her right hand (Russell's sign). You suspect that the patient has: a. Binge-eating disorder b. Bulimia nervosa c. Anorexia nervosa d. Avoidant restrictive food disorder

B. Bulimia nervosa

A 43-year-old man is seen in the clinic after making a scene in the waiting room after being asked to wait 10 minutes for his appointment. He is annoyed that he had to wait while “regular people got to see the doctor.” He explains that he has a “very important job” and should not have to wait at all for his appointment as it is “very burdensome to leave his job even for a few minutes.” He explains that he got his job due to his “superior intellect” and “unprecedented business acumen.” He explains that he is "constantly needed" at his work and that his coworkers are jealous of his superiority. Physical findings are normal. You suspect that that patient has: a. Superiority complex disorder b. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD) c. Narcissistic personality disorder d. Histrionic disorder

C. Narcissistic personality disorder

A 27-year-old wheelchair-bound woman comes to the hospital for 3 days of leg weakness. Four years back she had a traumatic stillbirth and since then has had chronic leg weakness. She has seen neurologists, and none gave a physical diagnosis for her leg weakness. She worries that doctors may think she is faking her symptoms, though nothing on the repeated examinations explains her weakness. She says that she would love to walk so she can travel by airplane to be there for her sister who just gave birth to her first son. On exam, she is sitting comfortably in a wheel chair, is similing, and seems unaffected by her condition. Her weakness is lessened when distracted. You suspect that the patient has: a. Factitious disorder b. Conversion disorder c. Generalized anxiety disorder d. Conduct disorder

A. Conversion disorder

A 54-year-old woman comes for a routine exam. She states that she was recently arrested for shoplifting. She was looking for someone to find a list of her medications in her purse when she was accused of stealing. She claims she does not remember anything about the event and denies any history of similar episodes. She says she has been staying late at the office even past her scheduled duty time and that many days she falls asleep at her desk. Her past medical history is unremarkable. Physical findings are normal. You suspect that the patient has: a. Superiority complex disorder b. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD) c. Narcissistic personality disorder d. Histrionic disorder

b. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD)

A 45-year-old woman without past medical history presents to the emergency room with third-degree burns, dizziness, and syncope. Her husband found her unconscious on the kitchen floor while she was frying food in hot oil. On physical exam, she has active burn marks and hypoglycemia. When asked, she says she is unsure how the accident occurred and does not seem worried about it. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? a. Conversion disorder b. Histrionic disorder c. Factitious disorder d. Malingering

c. Factitious disorder

A 37-year-old woman presents for a routine exam. She reports that she was recently arrested for shoplifting cosmetics. She states that her boyfriend “blew up at her” for getting arrested again. She says “I should just kill myself. That will show him!”. She admits that he sometimes physically abuses her, but she stays with him because no one else cares about her. At the end of the visit, she thanks the doctor profusely for being much better than the last doctor … and angrily states “He didn’t care about me at all!”. She is talkative, but all other physical findings are normal. You suspect that the patient has: a. Generalized anxiety disorder b. Antisocial personality disorder c. Post-traumatic stress disorder d. Borderline personality disorder

d. Borderline personality disorder

A 33-year-old woman presents with worry about an upcoming flight. The patient states she has to fly to her sister’s wedding and is terrified. She has tried to visit her sister three other times in the past, but she has panicked right before takeoff and gotten off the plane. On physical exam she has a euthymic affect but is in notable distress when talking about flying. It means that the patient has: a. Post-traumatic stress disorder b. Histrionic disorder c. Specific phobia d. Factitious disorder

c. Specific phobia

A 24-year-old man presents to urgent care following a physical encounter with a neighbor. He states that the neighbor “looked at him too many times” and “deserves what he got.” He then states, “I didn’t hurt him as bad as the guy last month; he was in the hospital for a week!” He smiles during the entire encounter and is eager to share more details. On review of his chart, it is noted that the animal humane society was called in the past due to concern for abuse of his pet dog. When he was 15, he spent the night in jail after assaulting a peer, which he happily discusses. Physical exam findings are normal. This patient has: a. Antisocial personality disorder b. Bipolar disorder type 1 c. Bipolar disorder type 2 d. Conduct disorder

a. Antisocial personality disorder

A 26-year-old man presents with anxiety. He is concerned about how his anxiety is impacting his performance at a high-pressure job. He worries that people are judging his work poorly, despite never having a bad job performance evaluation, He also is concerned about his boyfriend's health, worrying that he will crash his car or become sick. The worrying impacts his efficiency and concentration at work, but he still functions well in his job despite it being so distressful. He also reports fatigue, difficulty sleeping due to worry, and muscle tensions. At times of increased stress, he notes nausea, diarrhea, and increased sweating. This has been going on since college, but it has gotten worse since starting this job 2 years ago. On physical exam, his affect is anxious at times but otherwise normal. Patient has: a. Major depressive disorder b. Specific phobia c. Generalized anxiety disorder a. Paranoid

c. Generalized anxiety disorder

A 21-year-old man presents for a work physical exam. He is doing a work-from-home job because his last job required him to "interact with too many people". He is quiet and only answers direct questions. He has been living in his mother's basement and his mother states that he stays in the basement around 22 hours per day. He is not sexually active, and does not "have much of a social life," but reports being content with his space and is satisfied with the work that he does. He is quiet, has a restricted affect, but other physical exam findings are normal. a. Laid back personality disorder b. Borderline personality disorder c. Depressive personality disorder d. Schizoid personality disorder

d. Schizoid personality disorder

A 26-year-old man is referred to his dermatologist for severely chapped skin on his hands bilaterally. He reports vigorously washing his hands in scalding hot water dozens of times daily in response to uncontrollable and intrusive fears that his hands are dirty and contaminated. He realizes this is unrealistic but feels a great deal of anxiety when he is unable to wash them. These difficulties have occurred for many years, but he was recently encouraged to seek help because it has affected his work as a waiter. On physical exam, he has erythematous, chapped hands bilaterally and is anxious appearing. This patient is probably suffering from: a. Obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD) b. Obsessive compulsive personality disorder (OCPD) c. Generalized anxiety disorder d. Panic disorder

a. Obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)

A 25-year-old man who was recently discharged from the military presents with nightmares for the past 3 months. He states that he watched a tank get blown up by an improvised explosive device, and one of his friends who was on the tank died. He reports often thinking about this event in places where it "sneaks up on him", sometimes at work or at church. He also describes being on edge and is easily startled by loud noises, and he feels guilty that he survived while his friends didn't. The patient has: a. Borderline personality disorder b. Post-traumatic stress disorder c. Compulsive behavior d. Bipolar disorder

b. Post-traumatic stress disorder

A 35-year-old woman presents with chest pain. She states that it started about 2 hours ago while she was on the phone with her sister. She had sudden onset of chest pain, heart palpitation, shortness of breath, numbness/tingling around mouth and on tips of anger, and a sense of impending doom. He symptoms lasted for 20 minutes before resolving. This is her fourth presentation with the same cluster of symptoms in the last 5 months. Despite previous evaluations and reassurances, she remains concerned about these symptoms. You suspect that the patient has: a. Generalized phobia b. Specific phobia c. Panic disorders d. Generalized anxiety disorder

c. Panic disorders

A 45-year-old woman presants with 4 weoks of feeling very sad and hopeless about the future. She reporfs that she used to walk her dog every day, but lately she hasn't been feeling up to it. She thinks this may be because she has been having trouble sleeping through the night. She says that she has no energy to take care of her house of family, but even if sho did have the energy, she doesn't think it would make any difference. She denies suicidal ideation or plan. On physical exam, she has had a 15-pound weight loss since her last visit. She has slow speech and does not make eye contact. A. Generalized anxiety disorder B. Major depressive disorder C. Bipolar disorder D. Schizophrenic disorder

B. Major depressive disorder

A 24-year-old man presents with 2 weeks of irritability and uncontrolled energy. He reports that he has recently become aware that he has been chosen by God to be the next great poker champion. He is proud that he has been training for 22 hours a day, requiring fittie sleep. He reports that he has had to take a break from practicing in the casino as he lost all of his earning last weekend but reports that he has a plan on how to win it all back so he can earn his title. On physical exam, he is pacing around the room, has very quick speech, and is hyperverbal and distractible. Patient has: A. Schizophrenia B. Bipolar disorder type 1 C. Paranoia D. Major depressive disorder

B. Bipolar disorder type 1

A 6-year-old boy is referred for evaluation after displaying unruly behavior in school. His teachers report that he often makes careless mistakes; submits incomplete, sloppy homework; speaks out of turn, and gets out of his seat without permission. The boy's mother notes he does not listen at home and is always running around. He has trouble following routines. like getting ready for school in the morning. Exam reveals fidgety and social disinhibited behavior, with poor concentration, and loud, rapid speech. A. Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) B. Conduct disorder C. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) D. Dissociative identity disorder

C. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)

A 28-year-old man presents with suicidal thoughts for the last 2 weeks. Patient states that voices have been telling him to "kill himself" and "inish it". He believes that these voices are part of a conspiracy at work to get him to leave his job. According to him, he first noticed his coworkers were starting to plot against him months ago when they started to blame him to work that wasn't done. He started to hear voices 2 months after that. He has also been feeling very sad since the voices started and now feels depressed most days. Two weeks ago, he started to seriously think about suicide and developed a plan to hang himself but then decided to come seek help. On physical exam, he has restricted affect and is fearful at times, He has suicidal ideation. auditory hallucinations, and appears to be responding to internal stimull (looks over his shoulder, saying "Stop"). Patient is most likely suffering from: A. Schizophrenia B. Major bipolar disorder C. Minor bipolar d/o B. Schizoaffective d/o

D. Schizoaffective d/o

A 3-year-old boy's mother says he has failed to say any coherent words causing worry for speech delay. The child also does not reciprocate affection, such as hugging her back. Regarding his behavior, she has noticed that he constantly lines up his trains and examines their wheels intently and becomes easily agitated with changes in routine. On exam, he does not respond to questioning and exhibits limited eye contact and occasionally rocks back and forth while seated. You suspect that these are signs of: A. Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) B. Conduct disorder C. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) D. Dissociative identity disorder

A. Autism spectrum disorder (ASD)

A 21-year-old man presents with 2 months of paranoia and odd behavior. He reports that someone planted a microchip in his brain and his thoughts are being intercepted. He hears their voices for most of the day and believes the voices are CIA officers. His family reports that the odd behavior started 7 months ago, which they thought was due to school stress. On physical exam, he is paranoid, disheveled, malodorous, nervous, and has flat affect. His thoughts are illogical and disorganized with thought blocking. Patient has: A. Schizophrenia B. Major bipolar disorder C. Paranoid disorder D. Schizoaffective disorder

A. Schizophrenia

A 13-year-old boy is brought for evaluation due to disruptive behavior. His parents report that he has been suspended from school numerous times for initiating fights with other kids and stealing from them. They state that he is consistently disobedient, staying out late, and lying about what he has been doing. The other day they found him trying to put his hamster in the microwave. Physical exam is normal. You suspect that the patient has: A. Compulsive disorder B. Histrionic disorder C. Conduct disorder D. Factitious disorder

C. Conduct disorder

A 23-year-old woman is brought to clinic. The patient recently visited her family for the holidays. Her boyfriend states that she had to interact with her abusive, alcoholic father and seems like someone else ever since. The patient speaks in a childlike singsong voice and asks to be called by a name different than what is listed on her driver's license. She states she does not recognize her boyfriend despite their dating for 10 months. Vital signs are normal and she is cooperative but childlike in attitude and not oriented to her name. She is probably suffering from: A. Anterograde amnesia B. Dissociative identity disorder C. Retrograde amnesia D. Personality disorder

B. Dissociative identity disorder

A 7-year-old boy is having behavioral and social difficulties in his second-grade class. Although he seems to be able to attend and is doing "well" from an academic standpoint (though seemingly not what he is capable of), he is constantly interrupting, fidgeting, talking excessively, and getting out of his seat. He has friends, but he sometimes annoys his peers because of his difficulty sharing and taking turns and the fact that he is constantly talking over them. Although he seeks out play dates, his friends tire of him because he wants to play sports nonstop. At home, he can barely stay in his seat for a meal and is unable to play quietly. Although he shows remorse when the consequences of his behavior are pointed out to him, he can become angry in response and seems nevertheless unable to inhibit himself. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Autism spectrum disorder B. Generalized anxiety disorder C. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder D. Specific learning disorder

C. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder

A 15-year-old boy is referred to your care. His mother tells you that during middle school, he was teased for having vocal and motor tics. Since starting ninth grade, his tics have become less frequent. Currently, only mild motor tics remain. What is the appropriate DSM-5 diganosis? A. Tourette's disorder B. Persistent (chronic) motor tic disorder C. Provisional tic disorder D. Unspecified tic disorder E. Persistent (chronic) vocal tic disorder

A. Tourette's disorder

A 45-year-old man has always experience co-occurring symptoms of depression - including feeling "down in the dumps, having poor appetite, feeling hopeless, and suffering from insomnia - during his episodes of active psychosis. These depressive symptoms occurred only during his psychotic episodes. After his psychotic episodes were successfully controlled by medication, no further symptoms of depression were present. The patient has never met full criteria for major depressive disorder at any time. What is the appropriate DSM-S Diagnosis? A. Schizophrenia B. Schizoaffective disorder C. Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) D. Schizophrenia and persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) E. Unspecific schizophrenia spectrum and other psychotic disorder

B. Schizoaffective disorder

A 32-year-old man reports 1 week of feeling unusually irritable. During this time, he has increased energy and activity, sleep less, and finds it difficult to sit still. He also is more talkative than usual and is easily distractible, to the point of finding it difficult to complete his work assignments. A physical examination and laboratory workup are negative for any medical cause of his symptoms and he takes no medications. What diagnosis best fits this clinical picture? A. Manic episode B. Hypomanic episode C. Bipolar 1 disorder, with mixed features D. Major depressive episode E. Cyclothymic disorder

A. Manic episode

A 45-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis was treated with interferon beta-1a a year ago, which resolved her physical symptoms. She now presents with depressed mood (experience daily for the past several months), middle insomnia (of recent onset), poor appetite, trouble concentrating, and lack of interest in sex. Although she has no physical symptoms, she is frequently absent from work. She denies any active plans to commit suicide but admits that she often thinks about it, as her mood has worsened. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Major depressive disorder B. Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) C. Depressive disorder due to another medical condition D. Substance/medication-induced depressive disorder E. Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) and multiple sclerosis

C. Depressive disorder due to another medical condition

A 50-year-old man reports episodes in which he suddenly and unexpectedly awakens from sleep feeling a surge of intense fear that peaks within minutes. During this time, he feels short of breath and has heart palpitations, sweating, and nausea. His medical history is significant only for hypertension, which is well controlled with hydrochlorothiazide. As a result of these symptoms, he has begun to have anticipatory anxiety-associated with going to sleep. What is the most likely explanation for his symptoms? A. Anxiety disorder due to another medical condition (hypertension) B. Substance/medication-induced anxiety disorder C. Panic disorder D. Sleep terrors E. Panic attacks

C. Panic disorder

A 31-year-old man narrowly escapes (without injury) from a house fire caused when he dropped the lighter while trying to light his crack pipe. Six weeks later, while smoking crack cocaine, he thinks he smells smoke and runs from the building in a panic, shouting "it's on fire!". Which of the following symptoms or circumstances would rule out a diagnosis of posttraumatic stress disorder for this patient? A. Having difficulty falling asleep B. Being uninterested in going back to work C. Inappropriately getting angry at family members D. Experiencing symptoms only when smoking crack cocaine E. Concluding that "the world is completely dangerous".

D. Experiencing symptoms only when smoking crack cocaine

Over a period of several years, a 50-year-old woman visits her dermatologist's office every few weeks to be evaluated for skin cancer, showing the dermatologist various freckles, nevi, and patches of dry skin about which she has become concerned. None of the skin findings have ever been abnormal and the dermatologist has repeatedly reassured her. The woman does not have pain, itching, bleeding or other somatic symptoms. She does have a history of occasional panic attacks. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Unspecific anxiety disorder B. Illness anxiety disorder C. Hypochondriasis D. Somatic symptom disorder E. Factitious disorder

B. Illness anxiety disorder

What are the three essential diagnostic features of anorexia nervosa? A. Persistently low self-confidence, intense fear of becoming fat, and disturbance in motivation B. Low self-esteem, disturbance in self-perceived weight or shape, and persistent energy restriction C. Restricted affect, disturbance in motivation, and low-calorie intake D. Persistent restriction of energy intake, intense fear of becoming fat, and disturbance in self-perceived shape E. Persistent lack of weight gain, disturbance in motivation, and restricted affect

D. Persistent restriction of energy intake, intense fear of becoming fat, and disturbance in self-perceived shape

Refers to frequent and persistent pattern of angry/irritable mood, argumentative behavior, or vindictiveness. A. Intermittent explosive disorder B. Oppositional defiant disorder C. Conduct disorder D. Violent behavior

B. Oppositional defiant disorder

A feeling of irrational guilt about an event. A. Even guilt B. Intermittent guilt C. Survivor guilt D. anxious guilt

C. Survivor guilt

Often argues with authority figures; often actively refuses to comply with requests from authority; deliberately annoys others. A. Intermittent explosive disorder B. Oppositional defiant disorder C. Conduct disorder D. Violent behavior

B. Oppositional defiant disorder

Discrete episodes of failure to resist aggressive impulses that result in serious assaultive acts or destruction of property. A. Intermittent explosive disorder B. Oppositional defiant disorder C. Conduct disorder D. Violent behavior

A. Intermittent explosive disorder

Aggressive act is typically out of proportion to stressor. A. Intermittent explosive disorder B. Oppositional defiant disorder C. Conduct disorder D. Violent behavior

A. Intermittent explosive disorder

Repetitive and persistent pattern of behavior in which the basic rights of others or major age appropriate societal norms or rules are violated. A. Intermittent explosive disorder B. Oppositional defiant disorder C. Conduct disorder D. Violent behavior

C. Conduct disorder

Impulsive or anger based aggressive outbursts; have a rapid onset and typically little or no prodromal period. A. Intermittent explosive disorder B. Oppositional defiant disorder C. Conduct disorder D. Violent behavior

A. Intermittent explosive disorder

Symptoms are typically shown only at home and with the family members. A. Intermittent explosive disorder B. Oppositional defiant disorder C. Conduct disorder D. Violent behavior

B. Oppositional defiant disorder

Failure to maintain normal body weight, fear and preoccupation with gaining weight and unrealistic self-evaluation as overweight. A. Binge-eating disorder B. Bulimia nervosa C. Anorexia nervosa D. Purging behavior

C. Anorexia nervosa

Conscious production of signs and symptoms for an obvious gain. A. Malingering B. Overthinking C. Anxiety D. Depression

A. Malingering

Excessive, poorly controlled anxiety about life circumstances that continues for 6 months. A. Generalized anxiety disorder B. Specific anxiety disorder C. Anxiety caused by illness D. Anxiety

A. Generalized anxiety disorder

Emotional response to real or perceived imminent threat. A. Avoidance B. Fear C. Anxiety D. Panic attack

B. Fear

Anticipation of future threat. A. Avoidance B. Fear C. Anxiety D. Panic attack

C. Anxiety

Worry that is difficult to control, hypervigilance and restlessness, difficulty concentrating, and sleep disturbance. A. Physiologic anxiety B. Psychologic anxiety C. Physical anxiety D. Social anxiety

B. Psychologic anxiety

Worry that includes autonomic hyperactivity and motor tension. A. Physiologic anxiety B. Psychologic anxiety C. Physical anxiety D. Social anxiety

A. Physiologic anxiety

Feature prominently within anxiety disorders as a particular types of fear response; not limited to anxiety disorders but rather can be seen in other mental disorders as well. A. Paranoia B. Panic attacks C. Anxiety attacks D. Fear

B. Panic attacks

Chronic, fluctuating mood disturbance involving numerous periods of hypomanic symptoms and periods of depressive symptoms that are distinct from each other for at least 2 years. A. Bipolar 1 B. Bipolar 2 C. Cyclothymic D. Major depression

C. Cyclothymic

Atleast one hypomanic episode and atleast one major depressive episode; no manic episode. A. Bipolar 1 B. Bipolar 2 C. Cyclothymic D. Major depression

B. Bipolar 2

Manic episode may have been preceded by and may be followed by hypomanic or major depressive episodes. A. Bipolar 1 B. Bipolar 2 C. Cyclothymic D. Major depression

A. Bipolar 1

Fixed beliefs that are not amenable to change in light of conflicting evidence. A. Hallucinations B. Delusions C. Disorganized thinking D. Grossly disorganized or abnormal motor behavior

B. Delusions

Perception-like experiences that occur without an external stimulus. A. Hallucinations B. Delusions C. Disorganized thinking D. Grossly disorganized or abnormal motor behavior

A. Hallucinations

Individual may switch from one topic to another; answers to questions may be obliquely related or completely unrelated. A. Hallucinations B. Delusions C. Disorganized thinking D. Grossly disorganized or abnormal motor behavior

C. Disorganized thinking

Belief that one is under surveillance by the police, despite a lack of convincing evidence. A. Bizarre delusions B. Non-bizarre delusion C. Bizarre hallucinations D. Non-bizarre hallucinations

B. Non-bizarre delusion

Belief that an outside force has removed his or her internal organs and replaced someone else’s organs without leaving any wounds or scars. A. Bizarre delusions B. Non-bizarre delusion C. Bizarre hallucinations D. Non-bizarre hallucinations

A. Bizarre delusions

Previously a form of autism that do not present with language deficit/s. A. Asperger’s syndrome B. Harbinger’s syndrome C. Sparger’s syndrome D. Spurger’s syndrome

A. Asperger’s syndrome

Sudden, rapid, recurrent, nonrhythmic motor movement or vocalization A. Strout’s B. Snorts C. Tics D. Trouts

C. Tics

A 28-year-old woman presents to her physician with abdominal pain that has persisted intermittently for a decade. The pain has been particularly intense for the past several weeks. She is unable to sleep at night and has “tried everything for the pain but it won't go away." She reports nausea and diarrhea. She also has longstanding complaints of chronic headaches, muscle spasms, and dyspareunia (painful sexual intercourse). Her chart shows multiple visits over the years for similar symptoms with only vague physical examination findings and no laboratory findings. She has had several investigative surgeries and procedures without results. She asks if she should have another surgery to find out what is wrong. A. Body dysmorphic disorder B. Conversion disorder C. Illness anxiety disorder D. Somatic symptom disorder E. Malingering

D. Somatic symptom disorder

A 40-year-old man is referred to a psychiatrist by his physician because he is “too shy.” He has trouble going to parties, feels anxious about getting close to others, and stays at home in fear that others would laugh at him. When confronted by others, he develops severe anxiety as well as hyperventilation and increased sweating. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Panic disorder B. Social anxiety C. Generalized anxiety disorder D. Specific phobia E. Acute stress disorder

B. Social anxiety

A 7-year-old boy in second grade displays significant delays in his ability to reason, solve problems, and learn from his experiences. He has been slow to develop reading, writing, and mathematics skills in school. All through development, these skills lagged behind peers, although he is making slow progress. These deficits significantly impair his ability to play in an age-appropriate manner with peers and to begin to acquire independent skills at home. He requires ongoing assistance with basic skills (dressing, feeding, and bathing himself, doing any type of schoolwork) on a daily basis. Which of the following diagnoses best fits this presentation? A. Global Developmental Delay B. Intellectual Disability C. Specific Learning Disorder D. Asperger’s Syndrome

B. Intellectual Disability

A 19yo woman is hospitalized for dehydration caused by severe, laxative-induced diarrhea. She is depressed about the recent breakup of a romantic relationship. She admist that she uses laxatives becaue she has been binge-eating frequently and is worried about gaining weight. Although the woman has BMI 16, she believes that she is overweight. Which of the following most likely diagnosis? a. Anorexia nervosa b. Bulimia nervosa c. Binge-eating disorder d. Major depressive d/o e. Brief psychotic disorder

Anorexia nervosa

All of the followign are Cluster B personality disorders, EXCEPT: a. Narcissistic b. Histrionic c. Antisocial d. Avoidant e. Borderline

Avoidant

Most affceted area in Trichotillomania: a. Eyebrows b. Scalp c. Axilla d. Nostrils

Scalp

A 5yo child was present when her babysitter was sexually assaulted. Which of the following symptoms would be most suggestive of postraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) in this child? a. Playing normally with toys b. Having dreams about princesses and castles c. Taking the clothing off her dolls while playing d. Expressing no fear when talking about the event e. Talking about the event with her parents

Taking the clothing off her dolls while playing

"Free association" a. Carl Jung b. Alfred Adler c. Erik Erikson d. Sigmund Freud

Sigmund Freud

First-ling treatment for panic disorder: a. SNRIs b. SSRIs c. Alprazolam d. Benzodiazipines

SSRIs

Smallest organism considered to cause illness: a. Virus b. Bacteria c. Fungi d. Protozoa

Virus

All of the following are symptoms of RESPIRATORY ACIDOSIS, EXCEPT: a. Anxiety b. Somnolence c. Dizziness d. Headache

Dizziness

A high school student complains of fatigues and a sore throat. She has swolle, tender lymph nodes and a feveer. Blood test results show an increased white blood cell count with many atypical lymphocytes; the number and appearance of the erythrocytes are normal. This student is likely to have a. Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome b. Pernicious Anemia c. Infectious mononucleosis d. Hodgkin disease e. Factor VII deficiency

Infectious mononucleosis

A 30yo patient has been anemic for serveral years. The patient now complains of poor vision and hearing loss. It is determined that the patient lost function of some of the cranial nerves. Based on these findings, the patient might be having: a. Acromegaly b. Osteopetrosis c. Osteoporosis d. Osteomalacia e. Rickets

Osteopetrosis

How do you differentiate heat exhaustion from heat stroke? a. Heat stroke does not present with altered mental status, delirium, seizures b. Body temperature for heat exhaustion goes beyond 104 degrees Fahrenheit c. Exhaustion presents with decreased sympathetic activity resulting to diaphoresis, flushing d. Heat stroke can lead to heat exhaustion of not promptly treated

Exhaustion presents with decreased sympathetic activity resulting to diaphoresis, flushing

Medial winging of scapula is typically seen in: a. Weakness of serratus anterior b. Upper trunk nerve injuries c. Blunt trauma to long thoracic nerve d. A and C e. AOTA

A and C

A patient who reports falling on the shoulder during a biking competition came to the emergency room. According to the chart made by the resident-in-duty, the patient presented with a "step-off deformity" and the clavicle appears to be completely higher than the tip of the shoulder. Imaging studies show that both the coracoclavicular and acromioclavicular ligaments have been torn. How would you document these findings? a. (+) AC joint dislocation, Type II b.(+) AC joint dislocation, Type III c. (+) AC joint dislocation, Type IV d. (+) AC joint dislocation, Type V

(+) AC joint dislocation, Type III

A patient complains of right shoulder pain since falling onto the right shoulder 3 weeks ago. There was no dislocation and x-rays were negative. AROM is 35 degrees of flexion and abduction with scapular elevation noted. Passive ROM is nearly full with mild pain and muslce guarding at the end of range. Resisted abduction is weak with pain noted in the anterior and lateral deltoid region. There is no atrophy. Based on the above findings, the occupational therapist should MOST LIKELY suspect: a. Rotator cuff tear b. Axillary nerve palsy c. Supraspinatus tendinitis d. Adhesive capsulitis

Rotator cuff tear

Mr. Woods, comes to your clinic and complains of medial elbow pain. He was diagnoed with golfer's elbow. Which among the following management should not be included in the plan of care? a, Use larger grip b. Strike the ground less forceful c. Improve trunk rotation d. NOTA

NOTA

During which phase of throwing is the elbow joint placed under the most valgus stress? a. Follow-through b. Wind up c. Early cocking d. Late cocking e. NOTA

Late cocking

Bennet's fracture: a. Fracture of the neck of the thumb b. Fracture of the base of the fifth metacarpal c. Fracture of the base of the fifth metatarsal d. Fracture of the base of thumb

Fracture of the base of thumb

Dorsal prominence of lower end of ulna, instability of distal radioulnar articulation. a. Monteggia b. Galeazzi c. Madelung d. Colles e. NOTA

Madelung

All are found in a patient with Volkmann Ischemia, except: a. Tenderness b. Pale skin c. Paresis or paralysis d. Weak pulse e. Absent DTRs

Absent DTRs

This deformity is a result of the avulsion ofthe central slip of the xtensor tendon proximal to its insertion in the base of the middle phalanx: a. Swan neck deformity b. Boutonniere deformity c. Mallet finger d. Trigger finger

Boutonniere deformity

Which of the following statements about global developmental delay is true? a. The diagnosis is typically made in children younger than 5 years of age. b. The etiology can usually be determined c. The prevalence is estimated to be between 0.5% and 2%. d. The condition is progressive. e. The condition does not generally occur with other neurodevelopmental disorders.

a. The diagnosis is typically made in children younger than 5 years of age.

Which of the following is not associated with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)? a. Social rejection. b. Increased risk of developing conduct disorder in childhood and antisocial personality disorder in adulthood. c. Increased risk of Alzheimer's disease d. Increased frequency of traffic accidents and violations e. Increased risk of accidental injury

c. Increased risk of Alzheimer's disease

Which of the following characteristics of generalized anxiety disorder is especially common children who have the disorder? a. Complaining of physical aches and pains. b. Excessively preparing for activities. c. Avoiding activities that may provoke anxiety. d. Seeking frequent reassurance from others. e. Delaying or procrastinating before activities.

d. Seeking frequent reassurance from others.

Which of the following statements about compulsive behaviors in obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is true? a. Compulsions in OCD are best understood as a form of addictive behavior. b. Compulsive behaviours in OCD are aimed at reducing the distress triggered by obsessions. Examples of compulsive behaviors include paraphilias (sexual compulsions), gambling, and substance use. c. Compulsions involve repetitive and persistent thoughts (e.g., of contamination), images(e.g., of violent or horrific scenes), or urges (e.g., tostabsome- one). d. Compulsive behaviors in OCD are typically goal directed, fulfilling a realistic purpose.

b. Compulsive behaviours in OCD are aimed at reducing the distress triggered by obsessions. Examples of compulsive behaviors include paraphilias (sexual compulsions), gambling, and substance use.

What are the three essential diagnostic features of bulimia nervosa? a. Recurrent episodes of binge eating; recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviours to prevent weight gain; self-evaluation that is unduly influenced by body shape and weight. b. Recurrent restriction of food; self-evaluation that is unduly influenced by body shape and weight; mood instability. c. Delusions regarding body habitus; obsessional focus on food; recurrent purging. d. Hypomanic symptoms for 1month; mood instability; self-evaluation that is unduly influenced by body shape and weight. e. Self-evaluation that is unduly influenced by body shape and weight; history of anorexia nervosa; recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviors to gain weight.

a. Recurrent episodes of binge eating; recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviours to prevent weight gain; self-evaluation that is unduly influenced by body shape and weight.

Which of the following statements about enuresis is true? a. Over 60% of children diagnosed with enuresis have a comorbid DSM-5 disorder. b. Developmental delays are no more common in children with enuresis than in other children. c. Urinary tract infections are more common in children with enuresis. d. While embarrassing, enuresis has no effect on children's self-esteem. e. Prevalence rates for enuresis at age 10 are similar to those at age 5.

c. Urinary tract infections are more common in children with enuresis.

A 50-year-old man reports episodes in which he suddenly and unexpectedly awakens from sleep feeling a surge of intense fear that peaks within minutes. During this time, he feels short of breath and has heart palpitations, sweating, and nausea. His medical history is significant only for hypertension, which is well controlled with hydrochlorothiazide. As a result of these symptoms, he has begun to have anticipatory anxiety associated with going to sleep. What is the most likely explanation for his symptoms? a. Anxiety disorder due to another medical condition (hypertension). b. Substance/medication-induced anxiety disorder. c. Panic disorder d. Sleep terrors. e. Panic attacks.

c. Panic disorder

A depressed patient reports that he experiences no pleasure from his normally enjoyable activities. Which of the following additional symptoms would be required for this patient to qualify for a diagnosis of major depressive disorder/with melancholic features? a. Despondency, depression that is worse in the morning, and inability to fall asleep. b. Depression that is worse in the evening, psychomotor agitation, and significant weight loss. c. Inappropriate guilt, depression that is worse in the morning, and early-morning awakening. d. Significant weight gain, depression that is worse in the evening, and excessive guilt. e. Despondency, significant weight gain, and psychomotor retardation.

c. Inappropriate guilt, depression that is worse in the morning, and early-morning awakening.

A 45-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis was treated with interferon beta-1a a year ago, which resolved her physical symptoms. She now presents with depressed mood (experienced daily for the past several months), middle insomnia (of recent onset), poor appetite, trouble concentrating, and lack of interest in sex. Although she has no physical symptoms, she is frequently absent from work. She denies any active plans to commit suicide but admits that she often thinks about it, as her mood has worsened. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia). b. Major depressive disorder. c. Depressive disorder due to another medical condition d. Substance/medication-induced depressive disorder e. Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) and multiple sclerosis

c. Depressive disorder due to another medical condition

Which of the following statements best describes how panic attacks differ from panic disorder? a. Panic attacks require fewer symptoms for a definitive diagnosis b. Panic attacks are discrete, occur suddenly, and are usually less severe. c. Panic attacks are invariably unexpected. d. Panic attacks represent a syndrome that can occur with a variety of other disorders e. Panic attacks cannot be secondary to a medical condition

d. Panic attacks represent a syndrome that can occur with a variety of other disorders

A 7-year-old boy in second grade displays significant delays in his ability to reason, solve problems, and learn from his experiences. He has been slow to develop reading, writing, and mathematics skills in school. All through development, these skills lagged behind peers, although he is making slow progress. These deficits significantly impair his ability to play in an age-appropriate manner with peers and to begin to acquire independent skills at home. He requires ongoing assistance with basic skills, (dressing, feeding, and bathing him-self; doing any type of schoolwork) on a daily basis. What is the appropriate severity rating for this patient's current presentation? a. Mild b. Moderate c. Severe d. Profound e. Cannot be determined without an IQ score.

b. Moderate

Which of the following statements about adaptive functioning in the diagnosis of intellectual disability (intellectual developmental disorder) is true? a. Adaptive functioning is based on an individuals IQ score. b. "Deficits in adaptive functioning" refers to problems with motor coordination. c. At least two domains of adaptive functioning must be impaired to meet Criterion B for the diagnosis of intellectual disability. d. Adaptive functioning in intellectual disability tends to improve over time, although the threshold of cognitive capacities and associated developmental disorders can limit it. e. Individuals diagnosed with intellectual disability in childhood will typically continue to meet criteria in adulthood even if their adaptive functioning improves.

d. Adaptive functioning in intellectual disability tends to improve over time, although the threshold of cognitive capacities and associated developmental disorders can limit it.

In which of the following situations would a diagnosis of global developmental delay be inappropriate? a. The patient is a child who is too young to fully manifest specific symptoms or to complete requisite assessments. b. The patient, a 7-year-old boy, has a full-scale IQ of 65 and severe impairment in adaptive functioning. c. The patient's scores on psychometric tests suggest intellectual disability (intellectual developmental disorder), but there is insufficient information about the patient's adaptive functional skills. d. The patient's impaired adaptive functioning suggests intellectual developmental disorder, but there is insufficient information about the level of cognitive impairment measured by standardized instruments. e. The patient's cognitive and adaptive impairments suggest intellectual developmental disorder, but there is insufficient information about age at onset of the condition.

b. The patient, a 7-year-old boy, has a full-scale IQ of 65 and severe impairment in adaptive functioning.

A 3 1/2 year old girl with a history of lead exposure and a seizure disorder demonstrates substantial delays across multiple domains of functioning, including communication, learning, attention, and motor development, which limit her ability to interact with same age peers and require substantial support in all activities of daily living at home. Unfortunately, her mother is an extremely poor historian, and the child has received no formal psychological or learning evaluation to date. She is about to be evaluated for readiness to attend preschool. What is the most appropriate diagnosis? a. Major neurocognitive disorder b. Developmental coordination disorder c. Autism spectrum disorder d. Global developmental delay e. Specific learning disorder

d. Global developmental delay

A 7-year-old girl presents with a history of normal language skills (vocabulary and grammar intact) but is unable to use language in a socially pragmatic manner to share ideas and feelings. She has never made good eye contact, and she has difficulty reading social cues. Consequently, she has had difficulty making friends, which is further complicated by her being somewhat obsessed with cartoon characters, which she repetitively scripts. She tends to excessively smell objects. Because she insists on wearing the same shirt and shorts every day, regard less of the season, getting dressed is a difficult activity. These symptoms date from early childhood and cause significant impairment in her functioning. What diagnosis best fits this child's presentation? a. Asperger's Syndrome b. Autism Spectrum Disorder c. Pervasive Developmental disorder not otherwise specified (PDD-NOS) d. Social (pragmatic) communication disorder e. Rett's syndrome

b. Autism Spectrum Disorder

Which of the following is not characteristic of the developmental course of children diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder? a. Behavioral features manifest before 3 years of age. b. The full symptom pattern does not appear until age 2-3 years. c. Developmental plateaus or regression in social-communicative behaviour is frequently reported by parents. d. Regression across multiple domains occurs after age 2-3years. e. First symptoms often include delayed language development, lack of social interest or unusual social behavior, odd play, and unusual communication patterns.

d. Regression across multiple domains occurs after age 2-3years.

Which of the following disorders is generally not comorbid with autism spectrum disorder (ASD)? a. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). b. Rett syndrome. c. Selective mutism. d. Intellectual disability (intellectual developmental disorder) e. Stereotypic movement disorder.

c. Selective mutism.

Which of the following statements about developmental coordination disorder (DCD) is true? a. Some children with DCD show additional (usually suppressed) motor activity, such aschoreiform movements of unsupported limbs or mirror movements b. The prevalence of DCD in children ages 5-11 years is 1%-3% c. In early adulthood, there is improvement in learning new tasks involving complex/automatic motor skills, including driving and using tools. d. DCD has no association with prenatal exposure to alcohol or with low or with low birth weight or preterm birth. e. Impairments in underlying neurodevelopmental processes have not been found to primarily affect visuomotor skills

a. Some children with DCD show additional (usually suppressed) motor activity, such aschoreiform movements of unsupported limbs or mirror movements

Criterion A for schizoaffective disorder requires an uninterrupted period of illness during which Criterion A for schizophrenia is met. Which of the following additional symptoms must be present to fulfill diagnostic criteria for schizoaffective disorder? a. An anxiety episode-either panic or general anxiety. b. Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep behaviour disorder. c. A major depressive or manic episode. d. Hypomania. e. Cyclothymia.

c. A major depressive or manic episode.

Which of the following symptom combinations, if present for month, would meet Criterion A for schizophrenia? a. Prominent auditory and visual hallucinations b. Grossly disorganized behavior and avolition. c. Disorganized speech and diminished emotional expression. d. Paranoid and grandiose delusions. e. Avolition and diminished emotional expression.

a. Prominent auditory and visual hallucinations

In whichof the following ways do manic episodes differ from the attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)? A. Manic episodes are more strongly associated with poor judgement B. Manic episodes are more likely to involve excessive activity C. Manic episodes have clearer symptomatic onsets and offsets D. Manic episodes are more likely to show a chronic course E. Manic episodes first appear at an earlier age

C. Manic episodes have clearer symptomatic onsets and offsets

Which of the following features confers a worse prognosis for a patient with bipolar II disorder? A. Younger age B. Higher educational level C. Rapid-cycling pattern D. "Married" marital status E. Less severe depressive episodes

C. Rapid-cycling pattern

For an adoloescent who presents with distractability, which of the following additional features would suggest an association with bipolar II disorder rather than attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)? A. Rapid speech noted on examination B. A report of less need for sleep C. Complaints of racing thoughts D. Evidence that the symptoms are episodic E. Evidence that the symptoms are represent the individual's baseline behavior

D. Evidence that the symptoms are episodic

How do individuals with substance/medication-induced depressive disorder differ from individuals with major depressive disorder who do not have a substance use disorder? A. They are more likely to be female B. They are more likely to have graduate school education C. They are more likely to be male D. They are more likely to be white E. They are less likely to report suicidal thoughts/attempts

C. They are likely to be male

A 12-year-old boy begins to have new episodes often per out bursts that are out of proportion to the situation. Which of the following is not a diagnostic possibility for this patient? A. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder B. Bipolar disorder C. Oppositional defiant disorder D. Conduct disorder E. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder

A. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder

Children with disruptive mood dysregulation disorder are most likely to develop which of the following disorders in adulthood? A. Bipolar I disorder B. Schizophrenia C. Bipolar II disorder D. Borderline personality disorder E. Unipolar depressive disorders

E. Unipolar depressive disorders

An irritable 8-year-old child has a history of temper outbursts both at home and at school. What characteristic mood feature must be also present to qualify him for a diagnosis of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder? A. The child's mood between outbursts is typically euthymic B. The child's mood between outbursts is typically hypomanic C. The child's mood between outbursts is typically depressed D. The child's mood between outbursts is typically irritable or angry E. The mood symptoms and temper outbursts must not have persisted for more than 6 months

D. The child's mood between outbursts is typically irritable or angry

Which of the following symptoms must be present for a woman to meet criteria for prementrual dysphoric disorder? A. Marked affective lability B. Decreased interest in usual activities C. Physical symptoms such as breast tenderness D. Marked change inappetite E. A sense of feeling overwhelmed or out of control

A. Marked affective lability

Which of the following is considered a culture-specific symptom of panic attacks? A. Derealization B. Headaches C. Fear of going crazy D. Shortness of breath E. Heat sensation

B. Headaches

Which of the following types of specific phobia is most likely to be associated with vasovagal fainting? A. Animal type B. Natural environment type C. Blood-injection-injury type D. Situational type E. Other (e.g., in children, loud sounds or costumed characters)

C. Blood-injection-injury type

Although onset of a specific phobia can occur at any age, specfic phobia most typically develops during which age period? A. Childhood B. Late adolescence to early adulthood C. Middle age D. Old age E. Any age

A. Childhood

A 60-year-old man has just been diagnosed with congestive heart failure. He is intensely anxious and reports feeling as if he cannot breathe, which causes him to panic. Which of the following features, if present in this case, would tend to support a diagnosis of anxiety disorder due to another medical condition rather than adjustment disorder with anxiety? A. The patient says that he is relieved to know his diagnosis B. The patient has no anxiety-associated physical symptoms C. The patient is focused on the reasons he has a cardiac disorder D. Thr patient is delirious E. The patient is extremely concerned that he will not be able to return to work

A. The patient says that he is relieved to know his diagnosis

Men with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) differ from women with the disorder in which of the following ways? A. Men tend to get OCD later in life B. Men are more likely to have comorbidities C. Men are more likely to be obsessed with cleaning D. Men are more likely to spontanseously recover E. Men have much higher rates of OCD

B. Men are more likely to have comorbidities

Which of the following statements about the course of excoriation (skin-picking) disorder is true? A. Sking picking behavior tends to wax and wane in severity throughout an individual's life B. Skin picking behavior peaks in young adult hood and subsequently lessens in severity C. Excoriation disorder tends to become more severe with increasing age D. Skin-picking behavior begins in childhood, is chronic, and tends not to change in severity E. Excoriation disorder has a worse course when it begins in later adulthood or old age

A. Skin picking behavior tends to wax and wane in severity throughout an individual's life

A 6-year-old girl has repeatedly approached strangers while in the park with her class. The teacher requests an evaluation of the behavior. The girl has history of being placed in several different foster homes over the past 3 years. Which diagnosis is suggested from this history? A. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) B. Disinhibited social engagement disorder (DSED) C. Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) D. Bipolar I disorder E. Borderline personality disorder

B. Disinhbited social engagement disorder (DSED)

A 5-year-old child was present when her babysitter was sexually assaulted. Which of the following symptoms would be most suggestive of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) in this child? A. Playing normally with toys B. Having dreams about princesses and castles C. Taking the clothing off her dolls while playing D. Expressing no fear when talking about the event E. Talking about the event with her parents

C. Taking the clothing off her dolls while playing

A 45-year-old woman had a choking episode 3 years ago after eating salad. Since that time she has been afraid to eat a wide range of foods, fearing that she will choke. This fear has affected her functionality and her ability to eat out with friends and has contributed to weight loss. Which diagnosis best fits the clinical picture? A. Bulimianervosa B. Schizophrenia C. Avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder D. Binge-eating disorder E. Adjustment disorder

C. Avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder

A 7-yeard-old boy with mild to moderate developmentat delay presents with a chronic history of wetting his clothes during the day about once weekly, even during school. He is now refusing to go to school for fear of wetting his patns and being rediculed bey his classmates. Which of the following statements accurately describes the diagnostic options regarding enuresis in this case? A. He should not be diagnosed with enuresis because the frequency is less than twice per week B He should be diagnosed with enuresis in impairment of age-appropriate role functioning C. He should not be diagnosed with enuresis because his mental age is likely less than 5 years old D He should be diagnosed with enuresis, diurnal only subtype E. He should not be dianosed with enuresis because the events are restricted to the day time.

C. He should not be diagnosed with enuresis because his mental age is likely less that 5 years old

Which of the following statements correctly identifies a distinction between primary enuresis and secondary enuresis? A. Secondary enuresis is due to an identified medical condition; primary enuresis has no known etiology B. Children with secondary enuresis have higher rates of psychiatric comorbidity than do children with primary enuresis C. Primary enuresis has a typical onset at age 10, much later than the onset of secondary enuresis D. Primary enuresis is never preceded by a period of continence, whereas secondary enuresis is always preceded by a period of continence E. Unlike primary enuresis, secondary enuresis tends to persist into late adolescense

D. Primary enuresis is never preceded by a period of continence, whereas secondary enuresis is always preceded by a period of continence

An obese 52-year-old man complains of daytime sleepiness, and his partner confirms that he snores, snorts, and gasps during night time sleep. What polysomnographic finding is needed to confirm the diagnosis of obstructive sleep apnea hypopnea? A. No polysomnography is necessary B. Polysomnographic evidence of at least 5 apnea of hypopnea episodes per hour of sleep C. Polysomnographic evidence of at least 10 apnea of hypopnea episodes per hour of sleep D. Polysomnographic evidence of at least 15 apnea of hypopnea episodes per hour of sleep E. Polysomnographic evidence of resolution of apneas/hypopneas with application of continuous positive airway pressure

B. Polysomnographic evidence of at least 5 apnea or hypopnea episodes per hour of sleep

Which of the following metabolic changes is the cardinal feature of sleep-related hypoventilation? A. Insulin resistance B. Hypercapnia C. Hypoxia D. Low arterial hemoglobin oxygen saturation E. Elevated vasopressin

B. Hypercapnia

Dyskinesia A. Cerebellum B. Corpus Callosum C. Basal Ganglia D. Putamen

C. Basal Ganglia

Ataxia A. Cerebellum B. Corpus Callosum C. Basal Ganglia D. Putamen

A. Cerebellum

You are assisting your physiatrist as he takes a sample of synovial fluid from your patient. The fluid appears cloudy A. Septic inflammatory B. Non-inflammatory C. Normal D. With fever swelling

A. Septic inflammatory

Decreased cardiac output and exposure to cold may result to: A. Central cyanosis B. Peripheral cyanosis C. Ecchymosis D. Pallor

B. Peripheral cyanosis

Liver Problem A. Central B. Peripheral C. Erythema D. Jaundice

D. Jaundice

Aids what cell affected: A. Lymphocyte B. T cell C. B cell

B. T cell

Client with CTS. What is most appropriate? A. Volar Resting Splint B. Thumb Spica C. Dorsal based splint

A. Volar Resting Splint

Drug with main side effect of constipation? A. Narcotics B. Opioid C. DMARDs D. NSAIDS

B. Opioid

Medication that will cause constipation EXCEPT: A. Senna B. Antipsychotics C. Antidepressant

A. Senna

The functional range of motion of Shoulder IR is: A. Touching the forehead B. Touching the back of the head C. Touching the tummy D. Touching behind the back E. None of the above

D. Touching behind the back

What is the most common type of dementia? A. Alzheimer's B. Vascular C. Parkinson's disease-related D. Lewy Body dementia E. Frontotemporal dementia

A. Alzheimer's

A delta fiber EXCEPT? A. Dull B. Sharp C. Localized D. Fast pain

C. Localized

Largest representation in the motor homunculus A. Fingers B. Mouth C. Legs D. Feet

A. Fingers

Biggest muscle representation area in homunculus A. Muscle of mastication B. Thumb muscle C. Hip muscles D. Leg muscles

B. Thumb muscle

For spasticity: A. Baclofen B. Gabapentin C. Captopril

A. Baclofen

Inhibit the activity of alpha motor neuron in the pre-post synaptic terminal within the spinal cord A. Baclofen B. Dantrolene C. Diazepam

A. Baclofen

What is given for spasticity? A. Gabapentin B. Baclofen C. Diazepam

ALL ARE CORRECT

Modified Ashworth Scale: Characterized by marked spasticity but the affected part can be easily moved A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

B. 2

Site of pure sensory stroke A. Thalamus B. Internal capsule C. Both D. NOTA

A. Thalamus

Following a stroke involving the carotid arterial system, the physical finding which would indicate the poorest prognosis is: a. Hemiparesis b. Hemiplegia c. Hemianopia d. Altered consciousness e. Expressive aphasia

d. Altered consciousness

The most frequent motor abnormality and often the earliest manifestation of multiple sclerosis: a. Isolated peripheral neuropathy b. Mononeuropathy multiplex c. Paraplegia d. Hemiplegia e. Anterior horn cell

c. Paraplegia

Surgical management of the patient with cerebral palsy commonly has unpredictable or unfavorable results when the following form(s) of cerebral palsy are treated operatively: a. Spastic hemiplegia b. Athetoid c. Ataxic d. Spastic diplegia

c. Athetoid

Which of the following nerve palsies is most frequently seen in children with hemophilia? a. Sciatic b. Ulnar c. Median d. Femoral e. Radial

d. Femoral

The following drug/s are commonly supplied with calcium coatings: a. Verapamil, nifedipine b. Nitroglycerine c. Aspirin, indomethacin d. Ibuprofen, naproxen

a. Verapamil, nifedipine

Normal passive end feel for knee flexion is best described as which of the following? a. 0–120 degrees b. 0-125 degrees c. 0–130 degrees d. 0–135 degrees e. 0–145 degrees

d. 0-135 degrees

Cirrhosis primarily affects which of the following organs? a. Liver b. Gall bladder c. Spleen d. Kidney

b. Liver

The majority of cervical disc lesions occur at which segment? a. C1–C2 b. C2–C3 c. C4–C5 d. C5–C6

d. C5-C6

Graves' disease a. Hyperthyroidism b. Hypothyroidism c. Hyperpituitarism d. Hypopituitarism

a. Hyperthyroidism

The strength of the scar is in the: a. Keloids b. Protein c. Fibrin d. Collagen

d. Collagen

Patient has loss of strength at L2–L4 levels. What muscle should you test to confirm this weakness? a. Quadriceps b. Extensor hallucis longus c. Gluteus medius d. Peroneus longus

a. Quadriceps

At what level may a spinal cord patient begin to be a household ambulator? a. T1–T8 b. T9–T12 c. L1–L3 d. L4–L5

b. T9 - T12

A physical therapist is evaluating the cranial nerves of a child who has a medulloblastoma. The child’s right eye deviates laterally. The child has an impairment of which of the following cranial nerves? a. Oculomotor (CN III) b. Trochlear (CN IV) c. Abducens (CN VI) d. Vagus (CN X)

c. Abducens (CN VI)

Which of the following methods is MOST appropriate for handling a 1-year-old child with cerebral palsy who exhibits strong extensor tone in the trunk and lower extremities? a. Carrying a child in a sitting position b. Carrying the child over one’s shoulder c. Keeping contact with the back of the child’s head d. Packing the child up under the upper extremities

a. Carrying a child in a sitting position

Which of the following NSAIDs can be classified as Salicylate? a. Motrin (Ibuprofen) b. Bufferin (Aspirin) c. Vioxx (Rofecoxib) d. Naprosyn (Naproxen)

b. Bufferin (Aspirin)

In which of the following conditions is a nerve conduction velocity test MOST appropriate? a. CVA b. CTS c. Myotonia d. DMD

b. CTS

A patient suspected of having hyperglycemia is MOST likely to exhibit which of the following signs? a. Fruity smelling breath b. Thirst, nausea, and vomiting c. Dry, crusty mucous membrane d. Difficulty speaking and concentrating

a. Fruity smelling breath

A patient with leukemia has developed thrombocytopenia after a bone marrow transplant. Which of the following measures is indicative of the status of the thrombocytopenia? a. T4 lymphocyte count b. Red blood cell count c. Platelet count d. White blood cell count

c. Platelet count

What precaution should a physical therapist observe when working with a patient infected with Mycobacterium? a. Airborne b. Sterile c. Droplet d. Contact

a. Airborne

To determine whether a patient who is recovering from obturator nerve palsy has regained a muscle grade of Fair (3/5) or better, which of the following testing positions is MOST appropriate? a. Prone b. Supine c. Sidelying d. Long-sitting

c. Sidelying

d. Altered consciousness

c. Paraplegia

c. Athetoid

Which of the following nerve palsies is most frequently seen in children with hemophilia? a. Sciatic b. Ulnar c. Median d. Femoral e. Radial

d. Femoral

The following drug/s are commonly supplied with calcium coatings: a. Verapamil, nifedipine b. Nitroglycerine c. Aspirin, indomethacin d. Ibuprofen, naproxen

a. Verapamil, nifedipine

Normal passive end feel for knee flexion is best described as which of the following? a. 0–120 degrees b. 0-125 degrees c. 0–130 degrees d. 0–135 degrees e. 0–145 degrees

d. 0-135 degrees

Cirrhosis primarily affects which of the following organs? a. Liver b. Gall bladder c. Spleen d. Kidney

b. Liver

The majority of cervical disc lesions occur at which segment? a. C1–C2 b. C2–C3 c. C4–C5 d. C5–C6

d. C5-C6

Graves' disease a. Hyperthyroidism b. Hypothyroidism c. Hyperpituitarism d. Hypopituitarism

a. Hyperthyroidism

The strength of the scar is in the: a. Keloids b. Protein c. Fibrin d. Collagen

d. Collagen

Patient has loss of strength at L2–L4 levels. What muscle should you test to confirm this weakness? a. Quadriceps b. Extensor hallucis longus c. Gluteus medius d. Peroneus longus

a. Quadriceps

At what level may a spinal cord patient begin to be a household ambulator? a. T1–T8 b. T9–T12 c. L1–L3 d. L4–L5

b. T9 - T12

c. Abducens (CN VI)

a. Carrying a child in a sitting position

Which of the following NSAIDs can be classified as Salicylate? a. Motrin (Ibuprofen) b. Bufferin (Aspirin) c. Vioxx (Rofecoxib) d. Naprosyn (Naproxen)

b. Bufferin (Aspirin)

In which of the following conditions is a nerve conduction velocity test MOST appropriate? a. CVA b. CTS c. Myotonia d. DMD

b. CTS

a. Fruity smelling breath

c. Platelet count

What precaution should a physical therapist observe when working with a patient infected with Mycobacterium? a. Airborne b. Sterile c. Droplet d. Contact

a. Airborne

c. Sidelying

MES 2 Flashcards

(300 cards)