NAVLE PPT Study Guide > Canine NAVLE > Flashcards

Canine NAVLE Flashcards

(226 cards)

Study These Flashcards
1
Q

What is the quadrate lobe of the liver surrounded by?

A

R. medial lobes of liver

This anatomical feature is significant in understanding liver structure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the causes of Pulmonary Thromboembolism (PTE)?

A
  • Pulmonary hypertension
  • Acute profound dyspnea
  • UNR- TRADS
  • Split S2 on auscultation

PTE can lead to severe respiratory distress and requires prompt diagnosis and treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the clinical signs of Idiopathic Lymphoplasmacytic Rhinitis (ILPR)?

A
  • Uni or bilateral nasal discharge
  • Epistaxis

ILPR is often seen in dolichocephalic breeds and is a diagnosis of exclusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the treatment for Pneumothorax?

A
  • Thoracocentesis

This procedure is essential for relieving pressure in the thoracic cavity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the risk factors for Collapsing Trachea?

A
  • Small breeds (Chi, Pom, Toy Poodle, Shih Tzu, Lhasa, Yorkie)
  • Older age
  • Obesity

This condition is characterized by a weak or redundant tracheal membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the clinical signs of Bacterial Pneumonia?

A
  • Cough
  • Dyspnea
  • Pyrexia
  • Tachypnea
  • Tachycardia

Early recognition and treatment are crucial for recovery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the most common cause of Kennel Cough?

A

Bordetella bronchiseptica

This highly contagious respiratory disease often affects dogs in close quarters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the diagnostic methods for Keratoconjunctivitis Sicca (KCS)?

A
  • Schirmer tear test
  • Fluorescein stain
  • Jones Test
  • Seidel Test
  • Tonometry

These tests help assess tear production and corneal integrity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the treatment for Chronic Superficial Keratitis?

A
  • Topical steroids
  • Cyclosporine
  • Lifelong therapy

This condition, also known as Pannus, is often exacerbated by UV light exposure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the clinical signs of Progressive Retinal Atrophy (PRA)?

A
  • Abnormal fundic exam
  • Night blindness
  • Complete blindness

PRA is a hereditary condition that leads to progressive vision loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the pathology of Anterior Uveitis?

A
  • Inflammation of the iris and ciliary body

This condition can be caused by infections or autoimmune diseases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the most common ocular tumor in dogs?

A

Meibomian adenoma

This benign tumor typically appears as a mass on the upper eyelid margin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the clinical signs of Hemorrhagic Gastroenteritis (HGE)?

A
  • Severe vomiting
  • Hematochezia
  • Diarrhea
  • Dehydration
  • Painful abdomen

HGE is particularly common in small dog breeds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the treatment for Megaesophagus?

A
  • Dietary management
  • Treat underlying conditions

This condition can be congenital or acquired, often requiring long-term management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the pathology associated with Hemorrhagic Gastroenteritis (HGE)?

A

Severe V+, Hematochezia, D+, Dehydrated, painful abdomen

Common in small dogs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the diagnostic tests for Hemorrhagic Gastroenteritis (HGE)?

A
  • BW (PCV inc., TP norm)

Indicates dehydration and blood loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the treatment for Hemorrhagic Gastroenteritis (HGE)?

A

IVFT

Intravenous fluid therapy is critical for rehydration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the complications associated with Hemorrhagic Gastroenteritis (HGE)?

A
  • Shock
  • DIC
  • Renal Failure

These complications can arise from severe dehydration and blood loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the pathology of Megaesophagus?

A

Congenital, Myasthenia Gravis

It can be caused by various conditions, including congenital defects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the clinical signs of Megaesophagus?

A
  • Regurgitation
  • Harsh lung sounds
  • Exercise intolerance
  • Lethargy

These signs indicate esophageal dysfunction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the diagnostic test for Megaesophagus?

A

TRads (Dilated esophagus, may need fluoroscopy)

Radiographs help visualize esophageal dilation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the treatment for Megaesophagus?

A
  • Pyridostigmine
  • Feed High Calorie Diet

Treatment focuses on managing symptoms and improving nutrition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the pathology of Exocrine Pancreatic Insufficiency?

A

Pancreatic acinar atrophy (PAA): Autosomal recessive

This condition leads to insufficient digestive enzyme production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the complications of Exocrine Pancreatic Insufficiency?

A

SIBO (Secondary Intestinal Bacterial Overgrowth)

This can occur due to malabsorption of nutrients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the **pathology** of **Septic Peritonitis**?
Perf. ulcer/ ruptured bowel, ruptured gallbladder, neoplasia, FB/ Penetrating wound ## Footnote These conditions can lead to contamination of the abdominal cavity.
26
What is the **diagnostic test** for **Septic Peritonitis**?
Ab. tap (Neuts with intracellular BacT) ## Footnote Abdominal tap helps identify infection in the peritoneal cavity.
27
What is the **treatment** for **Septic Peritonitis**?
Fluids, Exploratory laparotomy ## Footnote Surgical intervention is often necessary to address the source of infection.
28
What is the **pathology** of **Gastric Dilatation-Volvulus (GDV)**?
Repositioning of pylorus to L. dr. abdomen, Volvulus ## Footnote This condition involves twisting of the stomach, leading to compromised blood flow.
29
What are the **clinical signs** of **Gastric Dilatation-Volvulus (GDV)**?
* Non-productive V+ (retching) * Lethargy * Distended abdomen * Shock (Tachycardia, pale mm, inc. CRT) ## Footnote These signs indicate a medical emergency.
30
What is the **diagnostic test** for **Gastric Dilatation-Volvulus (GDV)**?
RIGHT Lat. ARAD ## Footnote Radiographs help confirm the diagnosis by showing gas-filled stomach.
31
What is the **treatment** for **Gastric Dilatation-Volvulus (GDV)**?
* Place Cephalic cath * Crystalloid IVFT * Decompress stomach * Sx- Decompress & Reposition Stomach ## Footnote Immediate intervention is crucial for survival.
32
What is the **prognosis** for **Gastric Dilatation-Volvulus (GDV)** after surgery?
75-85% w/ sx ## Footnote Prognosis improves significantly with timely surgical intervention.
33
What is **Cushing’s Reflex**?
Response with bradycardia & hypertension during inc. ICP ## Footnote This reflex occurs due to increased intracranial pressure.
34
What are the **clinical signs** of **Wobblers Syndrome**?
* Two-engine gait * Pain * Varied Ataxia & paresis * Thoracic limb lameness ## Footnote These signs indicate spinal cord compression.
35
What is the **treatment** for **Wobblers Syndrome**?
* Anti-inflammatory steroids * Controlled PT * Sx: Ventral slot, dorsal laminectomy ## Footnote Treatment options vary based on severity.
36
What is the **pathogen** associated with **Tetanus**?
Clostridium tetani ## Footnote This bacterium produces a toxin that affects the nervous system.
37
What is the **treatment** for **Tetanus**?
Tetanus antitoxin ## Footnote This treatment does not reverse clinical signs but can prevent further toxin effects.
38
What are the **clinical signs** of **Geriatric Vestibular Disease**?
* Acute ataxia * Horizontal nystagmus ## Footnote These signs are indicative of vestibular dysfunction.
39
What is the **diagnostic test** for **Seizures**?
CS, HX ## Footnote Clinical signs and history are crucial for diagnosis.
40
What are the **treatment options** for **Seizures**?
* Phenobarb * Zonisamide * Levetiracetam ## Footnote Multiple anticonvulsants may be used for better control.
41
What is the **pathology** of **Myasthenia Gravis**?
Immune complexes block mm. ## Footnote This autoimmune condition affects neuromuscular transmission.
42
What are the **clinical signs** of **Myasthenia Gravis**?
* Regurgitation * Megaesophagus * Severe exercise intolerance ## Footnote These signs reflect muscle weakness and esophageal dysfunction.
43
What is the **diagnostic test** for **Myasthenia Gravis**?
AChr Ab test ## Footnote This test helps confirm the diagnosis by detecting antibodies.
44
What is the **treatment** for **Myasthenia Gravis**?
* Pyridostigmine bromide * Immunomodulatory meds ## Footnote Treatment focuses on improving neuromuscular transmission.
45
What is the **pathology** of **Fibrocartilagenous Embolism (FCE)**?
Ischemic myelopathy of T3-L3 ## Footnote This condition occurs due to embolism affecting spinal blood supply.
46
What are the **clinical signs** of **Fibrocartilagenous Embolism (FCE)**?
* Acute non-painful myelopathy * Lateralizing paresis/paralysis ## Footnote Signs appear suddenly, often after exercise.
47
What is the **treatment** for **Fibrocartilagenous Embolism (FCE)**?
Nursing care ## Footnote Supportive care is essential for recovery.
48
What is the **pathology** of **Brachial Plexus Avulsion**?
Trauma (Jump out of car, HBC) ## Footnote This injury results from severe trauma to the brachial plexus.
49
What are the **clinical signs** of **Brachial Plexus Avulsion**?
Thoracic Limb monoplegia, no CP, Motor Function ## Footnote These signs indicate severe nerve damage.
50
What is the **treatment** for **Brachial Plexus Avulsion**?
Leg Amputation ## Footnote Amputation may be necessary in severe cases.
51
What is the **pathology** of **IVDD Type 1**?
Contusion, Ischemia/infarction, compression ## Footnote This type involves acute extrusion of the intervertebral disc.
52
What are the **clinical signs** of **IVDD Type 1**?
* Painful * Hesitant to use stairs/jump * Tense over TL Spine ## Footnote Early signs indicate spinal cord involvement.
53
What is the **treatment** for **IVDD Type 1**?
* Cage rest for 4 weeks * Multimodal pain control * SX: Ventral slot, Hemilaminectomy ## Footnote Surgical intervention may be required for severe cases.
54
What is the **pathology** of **IVDD Type 2**?
Chronic- Protrusion > Mineralization ## Footnote This type involves gradual degeneration of the intervertebral disc.
55
What are the **clinical signs** of **IVDD Type 2**?
* Pain * Myelopathy * Incontinence ## Footnote These signs indicate chronic spinal cord compression.
56
What is the **treatment** for **IVDD Type 2**?
* Rest * Analgesia * SX: Hemilam, corpectomy ## Footnote Early intervention improves prognosis.
57
What is **Acute Non-Compressive Nucleus Pulposus Extrusion (ANNPE)**?
Type 3 IVDD ## Footnote This condition involves acute extrusion of a small volume of nucleus pulposus.
58
What is the **pathology** of **Paradoxical Vestibular Disease**?
Destructive lesion in Central NS ## Footnote This condition affects the central nervous system, leading to vestibular signs.
59
What are the **clinical signs** of **Paradoxical Vestibular Disease**?
* Head tilt * Ventral strabismus ## Footnote Signs are indicative of vestibular dysfunction.
60
What does **ANNPE** stand for?
Acute Non-Compressive Nucleus Pulposus Extrusion; Type 3 IVDD ## Footnote This condition involves acute extrusion of a small volume at high velocity.
61
What is a key characteristic of **Paradoxical Vestibular Dz**?
Destructive lesion in Central NS ## Footnote The lesion is ipsilateral to the side with CP deficits.
62
List the **clinical signs** (CS) of **Paradoxical Vestibular Dz**.
* Same side: Head tilt, ventral strabismus * Opposite side: Horizontal nystagmus, unilateral CP deficits, facial paralysis * Obtunded ## Footnote These signs indicate vestibular dysfunction.
63
What is the etiology (Et) of **Neuro Degenerative Myelopathy (DM)**?
Genetic (SOD-1 Gene) ## Footnote This condition is significant in breeds like GSD, Boxer, and Corgi.
64
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of **Neuro Degenerative Myelopathy (DM)**?
* Weakness in hind end * CP deficits * Paresis * UTI ## Footnote These signs indicate progressive neurological decline.
65
What is the pathophysiology (Path) of **Cervical Spondylopathy**?
Cervical vertebra malformation leading to stenosis/wedging of vertebral canal ## Footnote This condition is commonly seen in Doberman and Great Danes.
66
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of **Cervical Spondylopathy**?
* Ataxia * Paresis of all 4 limbs * UMN signs (hyperreflexive) * Delayed CP * Neck pain on ventroflexion ## Footnote These signs indicate cervical spinal cord compression.
67
Name some **types of tumors** associated with oncology in veterinary medicine.
* Peripheral Nerve Sheath Tumors * MCT * Anal Sac ACA * Sertoli Cell Tumor * Osteosarcoma * Hemangiosarcoma * Nasal Adenocarcinoma * Cutaneous lymphoma * Histiocytoma * Perineal Adenoma * Mammary Gland Tumor * Melanoma * Pheochromocytoma * TVT * Thymoma * Hepatocellular Carcinoma * Insulinoma * Beta Cell * Transitional Cell Carcinoma * Trigeminal Nerve Sheath Tumor ## Footnote These tumors represent a variety of malignancies seen in dogs and cats.
68
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for **Peripheral Nerve Sheath Tumor**?
Sx- limb amputation & tumor excision ## Footnote Surgical intervention can be curative if the spinal canal is not involved.
69
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of **Trigeminal nerve sheath tumor**?
Unilateral atrophy of muscles of mastication ## Footnote This condition affects the muscles responsible for chewing.
70
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for **Anal Sac Adenocarcinoma**?
Sx ## Footnote This condition is also known as AGASACA and can lead to hypercalcemia.
71
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of **Sertoli Cell Tumor**?
* Truncal alopecia * Aplastic Anemia * Gynecomastia ## Footnote This tumor is significant in male dogs, especially those that are cryptorchid.
72
What is the **prognosis** (Px) for **Osteosarcoma** with treatment?
* Palliative: 1-3 months * RT: 4-10 months * Sx: 3-4 months ## Footnote Prognosis varies based on treatment options and disease stage.
73
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of **Hemangiosarcoma**?
* Lethargy * Collapse * Pale gums * Distended abdomen * Tachycardia ## Footnote This condition is often seen in Golden Retrievers.
74
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for **Nasal Adenocarcinoma**?
Sx ## Footnote This condition is characterized by epistaxis.
75
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of **Cutaneous Lymphoma**?
* Pruritic * Oral mucosal ulcers * Hyperkeratotic foot pads * Exfoliative erythroderma * Erythema * Depigmentation ## Footnote This condition is often unresponsive to allergy treatments.
76
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for **Histiocytoma**?
Benign neglect ## Footnote These tumors are typically self-limiting.
77
What is the **prognosis** (Px) for **Perianal Adenoma** after treatment?
Very good ## Footnote Removal and castration are effective treatments.
78
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of **Mammary Gland Tumor**?
Masses within the mammary chain ## Footnote This condition is common in older female dogs.
79
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for **Melanoma**?
* Oncept Vax (Amelanotic melanoma) * Sx amputation (Nail bed melanoma) ## Footnote Treatment options depend on the location and type of melanoma.
80
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of **Mast Cell Tumor**?
Local inflammation ## Footnote These tumors can vary in grade and prognosis.
81
What is the **etiology** (Et) of **Pheochromocytoma**?
Tumor of Chromaffin cells in adrenal medulla ## Footnote This condition is often seen in very old Labrador Retrievers.
82
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of **Transmissible Venereal Tumor (TVT)**?
Mass on penis, mucocutaneous junctions, vulva ## Footnote This tumor is often transmitted through sexual contact.
83
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for **Thymoma**?
Sx via median sternotomy ## Footnote This tumor can cause paraneoplastic syndromes like Myasthenia Gravis.
84
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of **Hepatocellular Carcinoma**?
Hypoglycemia ## Footnote This condition can lead to significant metabolic disturbances.
85
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of **Insulinoma**?
Hypoglycemia ## Footnote This tumor affects insulin production in the pancreas.
86
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for **Transitional Cell Carcinoma**?
Piroxicam & Carboplatin ## Footnote This treatment is often used in conjunction with other therapies.
87
What is the **etiology** (Et) of **Atopic Dermatitis**?
Environmental Allergies ## Footnote This condition is common in breeds like Westies and Bulldogs.
88
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of **Malassezia dermatitis**?
* Symmetrical alopecia * Lethargy * Weight gain (normorexic) * Very itchy * Erythema * Waxy crusts ## Footnote This condition often occurs alongside other skin issues.
89
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for **Demodex with secondary bacterial infection**?
Keep them on ABx even if the skin looks fine ## Footnote This approach is necessary to prevent recurrence.
90
What is the **etiology** (Et) of **Dermatophytosis**?
M. Canis (Cats), M. Gypsum (Soil) ## Footnote This fungal infection is diagnosed through microscopic examination.
91
What is the recommended follow-up for a **skin scrape** if the result is negative?
Recheck in 1 month, then discontinue ivermectin ## Footnote Follow-up is crucial to ensure proper treatment and recovery.
92
In adult dogs, what should be done if a **skin scrape** indicates a potential issue?
Run further diagnostics for underlying systemic disease ## Footnote This helps identify any deeper health issues that may be affecting the skin condition.
93
What are the two types of **dermatophytosis** mentioned?
* M. Canis (Cats) * M. Gypsum (Soil) ## Footnote These fungi are common causes of skin infections in pets.
94
How can **M. Canis** be diagnosed?
Microscopic exam of Macroconidia; fluoresces with UV light ## Footnote This method helps in identifying the specific dermatophyte causing the infection.
95
What is the treatment for **Trichophyton Mentagrophytes** infection?
* Miconazole/Chlorhex shampoo * Terbinafine PO ## Footnote This combination is effective in treating the infection and alleviating symptoms.
96
What is **Alopecia X** and its pathophysiology?
Arrest of hair cycle ## Footnote This condition is often seen in certain breeds and can lead to hair loss.
97
Which breeds are commonly affected by **Alopecia X**?
* Nordic breeds * Pomeranians * Chow Chow * Toy Poodles ## Footnote These breeds are more prone to developing this condition.
98
What are the clinical signs (CS) of **Zn Responsive Dermatosis**?
* Crusting & scaling of foot pads * Periorbitally * Along mucocutaneous junctions ## Footnote These signs indicate a deficiency in zinc, which is crucial for skin health.
99
What is **Familial Dermatomyositis** and which breeds are affected?
* Collies * Shetland Sheepdogs * Other collie breeds ## Footnote This autoimmune condition can be triggered by various factors including vaccinations and sunlight.
100
What are the clinical signs of **Juvenile Cellulitis**?
* Acute, symmetrical facial swelling * Sub-mandibular lymph node enlargement * Pyrexia * Non-pruritic, painful, lethargy * Erythema, skin lesions (papules, pustules, draining sinuses, crusting & purulent exudate) ## Footnote This condition is also known as Puppy Strangles.
101
What is the treatment for **Juvenile Cellulitis**?
Prednisone ## Footnote Corticosteroids are commonly used to reduce inflammation and immune response.
102
What is the pathophysiology of **Oral Papillomatosis**?
Virus via direct contact/environment ## Footnote This condition is common in young, intact, outdoor/hunting dogs.
103
What are the clinical signs of **Seasonal Nasal Hypopigmentation**?
Loss of color in the nasal planum ## Footnote This condition is also known as Dudley Nose or Snow Nose.
104
What is the treatment for **Dermatomyositis (DMS)**?
* Pentoxifylline * Prednisone * Cyclosporine ## Footnote These treatments aim to improve blood flow and manage inflammation.
105
What is the significance of **Hepatocutaneous Syndrome**?
Associated with metabolic or vacuolar liver disease ## Footnote This syndrome can lead to severe skin lesions and requires careful diagnosis.
106
What are the clinical signs of **Ulcerative Skin Lesions**?
* Decreased appetite * Nausea * Diarrhea ## Footnote These signs indicate a serious underlying condition that needs to be addressed.
107
What is the treatment for **Portosystemic Shunts**?
* Metronidazole/Neomycin * Low-protein diet * Lactulose ## Footnote These treatments help manage symptoms and reduce ammonia absorption.
108
What is the typical length of pregnancy in dogs?
63 days +/- 1-2 days ## Footnote This is calculated from the day of ovulation.
109
What is the most common cause of **dystocia**?
Uterine inertia ## Footnote This condition can occur in older or smaller breeds.
110
What is the treatment for **mastitis** in lactating dogs?
* Remove puppies (and wean) * Warm compresses * Antibiotics (TMS, Clindamycin, Cephalosporins) ## Footnote These measures help manage infection and inflammation.
111
What is **Von Willebrand's Disease (vWD)**?
Primary hemostasis defect due to loss of vWD ## Footnote This hereditary condition affects clot formation and is common in certain breeds.
112
What are the clinical signs of **IMHA**?
* Lethargy * Weakness * Collapse * Yellow-orange feces * Hemoglobinuria ## Footnote These signs indicate severe anemia and require immediate veterinary attention.
113
What is the treatment for **IMTP**?
* Immunosuppression (Pred/Dex +/- Azathioprine) * Treat underlying disease ## Footnote This condition involves accelerated platelet destruction and requires careful management.
114
What is the **pathway** for **thrombocytopenia** in middle-aged female dogs?
* Accelerated platelet destruction * Enhanced platelet clearance by macrophages in spleen/liver * Thrombocytopenia ## Footnote Common clinical signs include petechia, lethargy, and melena.
115
List the **clinical signs** (CS) of thrombocytopenia.
* Petechia * Lethargy * Melena * Hematemesis * Intraocular hemorrhage/blindness * Hematuria * Oral bleeding * Epistaxis * Prolonged estrus ## Footnote These signs indicate bleeding tendencies due to low platelet counts.
116
What are the **differential diagnoses** (DDx) for thrombocytopenia?
* Spurious * Decreased production * Dilutional * Hemorrhage * DIC * Sequestration (splenomegaly) ## Footnote These conditions can mimic or contribute to thrombocytopenia.
117
What are the **diagnostic tests** (DX) for thrombocytopenia?
* Low platelet count * Prolonged bleeding time * Nonregenerative anemia * Bone marrow biopsy * Antiplatelet antibody assay ## Footnote These tests help confirm the diagnosis and assess the underlying cause.
118
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for thrombocytopenia?
* Azathioprine * Prednisone (high dose > taper) * Cyclophosphamide * Vincristine * Human Intravenous Immunoglobulin (hIVIG) * Splenectomy ## Footnote Treatment aims to manage the underlying cause and improve platelet counts.
119
True or false: **Cath/blood samples** are contraindicated in severe thrombocytopenia.
TRUE ## Footnote Performing these procedures can increase the risk of bleeding.
120
What is the **prognosis** (PX) for dogs with thrombocytopenia?
* Risk of bleeding increases as platelet count <20,000-50,000 * Generally good (first 2 weeks critical - 70-80%) * Relapse: 9-26% (~⅓) ## Footnote Monitoring is essential due to the risk of severe complications.
121
What is **Hyperadrenocorticism** also known as?
Cushing's syndrome ## Footnote It is characterized by excess cortisol production.
122
What are the **causes** (ET) of Hyperadrenocorticism?
* Pituitary tumor (80-85%) * Autonomous adrenocortical tumor * Iatrogenic ## Footnote Pituitary tumors are the most common cause, especially in smaller dogs.
123
List the **clinical signs** (CS) of Hyperadrenocorticism.
* Polyuria * Polydipsia * Pot-bellied appearance * Hepatomegaly * Muscle weakness * Panting * Lethargy * Obesity * Heat intolerance * Skin problems (e.g., calcinosis cutis) ## Footnote These signs are indicative of excess cortisol in the body.
124
What is the **diagnostic test** (Dx) for Hyperadrenocorticism?
* Low Dose Dexamethasone suppression test ## Footnote This test differentiates between pituitary and adrenal-dependent forms of the disease.
125
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for Hyperadrenocorticism?
* Trilostane * Ketoconazole * Adrenalectomy * O,p'-DDD (Mitotane) ## Footnote Treatment options vary based on the underlying cause and severity.
126
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of Diabetes Mellitus?
* Polyuria * Polydipsia * Polyphagia * Weight loss * Cataracts * Recurrent infections ## Footnote These signs are due to the inability to properly utilize glucose.
127
What is the **diagnostic criteria** (Dx) for Diabetes Mellitus?
* Hyperglycemia (>300 mg/dl) * Glucosuria +/- ketonuria * +/- Metabolic acidosis * +/- Increased liver enzymes * Fructosamine test ## Footnote These tests confirm the diagnosis and assess glucose control.
128
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for Diabetes Mellitus?
* Insulin injections (typically BID) * Oral hypoglycemics (e.g., Glipizide, Metformin) * Consistent high-fiber diet ## Footnote Management focuses on maintaining stable blood glucose levels.
129
What is the **pathophysiology** of Diabetes Insipidus?
Hypothalamus and/or neurohypophysis problems releasing ADH/Vasopressin ## Footnote This condition leads to an inability to concentrate urine, resulting in excessive urination.
130
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for Diabetes Insipidus?
Desmopressin/Vasopressin (DDAVP) ## Footnote This medication helps to manage the condition by mimicking ADH effects.
131
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of Hypothyroidism?
* Weight gain * Alopecia * Pyoderma * Seborrhea * Hyperpigmentation * Lethargy * Bradycardia * Myxedema * Tragic face ## Footnote These signs result from decreased thyroid hormone levels.
132
What is the **diagnostic test** (Dx) for Hypothyroidism?
* Low serum T4 with confirmation of increased cTSH and decreased fT4 ## Footnote This helps confirm the diagnosis of hypothyroidism.
133
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for Hypothyroidism?
Levothyroxine ## Footnote Lifelong therapy is typically required for management.
134
What is the **pathophysiology** of Parathyroid Deficiency?
Decreased PTH leads to depressed osteoclast activity and decreased bone resorption ## Footnote This results in low calcium and phosphorus release from bones.
135
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of Parathyroid Deficiency?
* Muscle twitching * Seizures * Weakness * Bone deformities ## Footnote These signs are due to hypocalcemia resulting from parathyroid hormone deficiency.
136
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for Parathyroid Deficiency?
* Calcium supplementation * Vitamin D3 supplementation ## Footnote Management focuses on correcting calcium levels.
137
What is the **etiology** (Et) of Rabies?
Saliva in bite by rabid animal; Rhabdoviridae > Lyssavirus ## Footnote Rabies is a viral disease that affects the central nervous system.
138
What is the **diagnostic test** (DX) for Rabies?
Direct Fluorescent Antibody Test (FAT) ## Footnote This test detects the rabies virus in tissues.
139
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of Parvovirus?
* Vomiting * Diarrhea * Dehydration * Lethargy ## Footnote These signs are due to the virus's effect on the intestinal lining.
140
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for Parvovirus?
* Supportive care * IV fluids * Anti-emetics ## Footnote Early intervention is crucial for survival.
141
What is the **etiology** (Et) of Distemper?
Paramyxoviridae > Morbillivirus ## Footnote This viral infection affects multiple body systems, including respiratory and neurological.
142
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of Distemper?
* GI signs * Neurological signs * Respiratory signs * Chorioretinitis ## Footnote These signs reflect the systemic nature of the infection.
143
What is the **diagnostic test** (DX) for Distemper?
IFAT on affected epithelium ## Footnote This test helps confirm the presence of the virus.
144
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for Distemper?
Supportive care ## Footnote There is no specific antiviral treatment for distemper.
145
What is the **etiology** (Et) of Canine Hepatitis?
Adenoviridae Type 1 ## Footnote This viral infection primarily affects the liver.
146
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of Canine Hepatitis?
* Fever * Abdominal pain * Vomiting * Diarrhea ## Footnote These signs are due to liver dysfunction.
147
What is the **diagnostic test** (DX) for Canine Hepatitis?
Serology for antibodies ## Footnote This test helps confirm exposure to the virus.
148
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for Canine Hepatitis?
* Supportive care * IV fluids ## Footnote Management focuses on liver support and hydration.
149
What is the **etiology** (Et) of Aural Hematoma?
Otitis externa, trauma, autoimmune, allergy ## Footnote These factors can lead to the development of hematomas in the ear.
150
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of Aural Hematoma?
* Swelling on the ear pinna * Warmth * Pain ## Footnote These signs indicate inflammation and fluid accumulation.
151
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for Aural Hematoma?
* Surgical incision and drainage * Suture with mattress sutures * Glucocorticoid instillation ## Footnote Proper management is essential to prevent recurrence.
152
What is the **etiology** (Et) of Pancreatitis?
Injury, dietary indiscretion, obesity ## Footnote These factors can trigger inflammation of the pancreas.
153
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of Pancreatitis?
* Vomiting * Abdominal pain * Lethargy * Anorexia ## Footnote These signs reflect the acute inflammatory process.
154
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for Pancreatitis?
* Supportive care * IV fluids * Pain management ## Footnote Early intervention is critical for recovery.
155
What is the **etiology** (Et) of Intussusception?
Increased peristalsis, foreign body, parasites ## Footnote These factors can lead to the telescoping of the intestines.
156
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of Intussusception?
* Scant bloody diarrhea * Abdominal pain * Vomiting * Palpable sausage-like mass ## Footnote These signs indicate a surgical emergency.
157
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for Intussusception?
* Surgical reduction ## Footnote Timely intervention is necessary to prevent complications.
158
What is the **etiology** (Et) of Cranial Cruciate Rupture?
Injury, obesity, poor conformation ## Footnote These factors increase the risk of ligament injury.
159
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of Cranial Cruciate Rupture?
* Lameness * Swelling * Pain on extension ## Footnote These signs indicate instability in the stifle joint.
160
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for Cranial Cruciate Rupture?
* Surgical stabilization * Rehabilitation ## Footnote Management aims to restore joint function.
161
What is the **pathophysiology** of Hip Dysplasia?
Abnormal development of the hip joint leading to instability ## Footnote This condition can lead to arthritis and pain.
162
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of Hip Dysplasia?
* Lameness * Difficulty rising * Decreased activity ## Footnote These signs reflect joint pain and dysfunction.
163
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for Hip Dysplasia?
* Weight management * Pain relief * Surgical options (e.g., hip replacement) ## Footnote Treatment focuses on improving quality of life.
164
What is the **condition** characterized by a rupture of the cranial cruciate ligament in dogs?
Cranial Cruciate Rupture (CCL) ## Footnote Diagnosis includes stifle instability, cranial drawer movement, tibial thrust, and radiographic findings.
165
What are the **common clinical signs** of **Hip Dysplasia**?
* Gradual lameness ## Footnote 30% of dogs with hip dysplasia may also have cranial cruciate ligament issues.
166
What is the **treatment** for **Immune Mediated Polyarthritis (IMPA)**?
* Immunosuppressive therapy (Pred + Azathioprine, Cyclophosphamide) ## Footnote Commonly associated with systemic lupus erythematosus and certain drug exposures.
167
What is the **most common location** for **Osteochondritis Dissecans (OCD)** in dogs?
Shoulder ## Footnote Typically bilateral in young large breed dogs.
168
What are the **clinical signs** of **Craniomandibular Osteopathy (CMO)**?
* Pain when lower jaw palpated * Hard swelling of mandible ## Footnote Common in young terrier breeds.
169
What is the **pathophysiology** of **Heartworm Disease**?
Caval Syndrome ## Footnote Heartworms partially obstruct blood flow via the tricuspid valve.
170
What are the **clinical signs** of **Subaortic Stenosis**?
* Left systolic murmur @ left heart base ## Footnote Common in breeds like Newfoundland, Rottweilers, and German Shepherds.
171
What is the **treatment** for **Tetralogy of Fallot**?
Surgical intervention ## Footnote This condition includes multiple cardiac defects leading to hypoxemia.
172
What is the **diagnostic test** for **Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)**?
Radiographs (Triple bump) ## Footnote Characterized by a loud continuous murmur at the left heart base.
173
What are the **stages** of **Mitral Valve Regurgitation**?
* Stage A: High risk, no identifiable structural disorder * Stage B: Structural heart disease, murmur present * Stage C: Past/current signs of heart failure * Stage D: End-stage disease with refractory signs ## Footnote Stages are based on clinical signs and structural changes.
174
What is the **treatment** for **Pericardial Effusion**?
Surgical intervention ## Footnote Diagnosis may include electrical alternans and pulsus paradoxus.
175
What is the **pathophysiology** of **Aortic Stenosis**?
Obstruction of blood flow from the left ventricle ## Footnote Common in breeds like Newfoundlands and Boxers.
176
What is the **diagnostic test** for **Atrial Fibrillation**?
Electrocardiogram (EKG) ## Footnote Characterized by very rapid, irregularly irregular RR intervals with no P waves.
177
What are the **clinical signs** of **Ventricular Tachycardia (VT)**?
* Weakness * Lethargy * Tachycardia ## Footnote EKG shows more than three VPCs with an abnormal high rate.
178
What is the **treatment** for **Ventricular Fibrillation (VF)**?
Cardioversion ## Footnote This condition is characterized by chaotic electrical activity and can be fatal.
179
What is the **pathophysiology** of **Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT)**?
Pathologic tachycardia originating above the ventricles ## Footnote Clinical signs include weakness and lethargy.
180
What is the **treatment** for **Atrioventricular Block**?
Depends on the degree of block ## Footnote First-degree block is not hemodynamically significant, while third-degree requires more intervention.
181
What is the **critical safety rule** regarding a victim who may have injured their spine?
Never move them unless their current location presents an immediate danger to their life ## Footnote Moving a victim with a potential spinal injury may cause further harm, such as lacerating the spinal cord.
182
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of a spinal injury?
* Lethargy * Anorexia * Tachypnea * Muffled heart sounds ## Footnote These signs indicate potential complications from spinal injuries.
183
What does **electrical alternans** indicate in a patient?
Height of QRS complexes alternate ## Footnote This finding can suggest pericardial effusion or other cardiac conditions.
184
What is **pulsus paradoxus**?
Exaggerated decrease in arterial pulse quality during inspiration ## Footnote This can be a sign of cardiac tamponade or severe asthma.
185
List the **types of aortic stenosis lesions**.
* Subvalvular * Valvular * Supravalvular ## Footnote These lesions can lead to significant cardiac issues.
186
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of aortic stenosis?
* Waterhammer pulses * Exercise intolerance * Syncope * Sudden death * Left basilar systolic murmur ## Footnote These signs are indicative of aortic stenosis in affected animals.
187
What diagnostic imaging is used for **aortic stenosis**?
TRads (Mildly enlarged left ventricle & left atrium, segmental enlargement of ascending aorta) ## Footnote This imaging helps assess the heart's structure and function.
188
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for aortic stenosis?
Beta Blocker (Atenolol) ## Footnote This medication is used to decrease myocardial oxygen demand and potentially reduce ventricular arrhythmias.
189
What breeds are commonly affected by **pulmonic stenosis**?
* Chihuahua * English Bulldogs * Beagles * Mini Schnauzers * Samoyeds * Mastiffs * Fox Terriers ## Footnote These breeds are predisposed to this congenital heart defect.
190
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of pulmonic stenosis?
Systolic murmur on left over heart base ## Footnote This murmur is a key indicator of the condition.
191
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for pulmonic stenosis?
Balloon valvuloplasty ## Footnote This procedure helps alleviate the obstruction caused by the stenosis.
192
What breeds are commonly affected by **degenerative mitral valve disease**?
Mini Schnauzer, Old ## Footnote This condition is prevalent in older small breed dogs.
193
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of degenerative mitral valve disease?
Murmur on left lateral thorax (systolic) ## Footnote This murmur is characteristic of the disease.
194
What is the **diagnostic method** (DX) for monitoring degenerative mitral valve disease?
TRads (Cardiac enlargement/pulmonary edema) ## Footnote This imaging helps assess the severity of the disease.
195
What is the **pathophysiology** of aortic regurgitation?
Waterhammer pulses ## Footnote This sign indicates significant hemodynamic changes due to the condition.
196
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for aortic regurgitation?
Varies based on severity ## Footnote Management may include medications or surgical intervention.
197
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for ventricular premature complexes (VPCs)?
Class I antiarrhythmic ## Footnote These medications help stabilize heart rhythm.
198
What is **ARVC**?
Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricular Cardiomyopathy ## Footnote This condition is characterized by fibrofatty infiltrate into the right ventricle.
199
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of ARVC?
* Syncope ## Footnote This sign is often associated with arrhythmias.
200
What is the **diagnostic method** (DX) for ARVC?
Holter monitor ## Footnote This device records heart rhythms over an extended period.
201
What is the **pathophysiology** of atrial septal defect (ASD)?
Left to right shunt ## Footnote This shunting leads to increased blood flow to the right side of the heart.
202
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of ASD?
Variable, often asymptomatic ## Footnote Many dogs may not show signs until later in life.
203
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for ASD?
Surgical correction ## Footnote This is often necessary to prevent complications.
204
What is **complete heart block** also known as?
Third Degree AV block ## Footnote This condition results in a complete dissociation between atrial and ventricular activity.
205
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of complete heart block?
* Collapsing episodes * Syncope with excitement ## Footnote These signs indicate severe cardiac dysfunction.
206
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for complete heart block?
Pacemaker ## Footnote This device helps regulate heart rhythm.
207
What is the **pathophysiology** of cardiac arrest?
High potassium elevates resting membrane potential above threshold potential ## Footnote This interferes with cardiac electrical signaling.
208
What is the **diagnostic method** (DX) for cardiac arrest?
BW (Hyperkalemia) ## Footnote Blood work helps identify electrolyte imbalances.
209
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for persistent right aortic arch (PRAA)?
Resection of the ligamentum arteriosum ## Footnote This surgical procedure corrects the anatomical defect.
210
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of pericardial effusion?
* Electrical alternans * Pulsus paradoxus ## Footnote These signs indicate fluid accumulation around the heart.
211
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for pericardial effusion?
Pericardiocentesis or surgical intervention ## Footnote This helps relieve pressure on the heart.
212
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of hypoglycemia?
* Acute onset ataxia * Weakness * Tremors/seizures * Vomiting * Hypersalivation ## Footnote These signs indicate a critical drop in blood sugar levels.
213
What is the **diagnostic method** (DX) for hypoglycemia?
Chem (Hypoglycemia) ## Footnote Blood chemistry tests confirm low glucose levels.
214
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for hypoglycemia?
Underlying cause, IVFT, Dextrose ## Footnote Immediate treatment is crucial to prevent severe complications.
215
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of blastomycosis?
* Exercise intolerance * Cough * Tachypnea * Harsh lung sounds * Enlarged axillary lymph nodes ## Footnote These signs indicate a systemic fungal infection.
216
What is the **diagnostic method** (DX) for blastomycosis?
CBC: Mild anemia, leukocytosis with left shift ## Footnote Blood tests help assess the immune response.
217
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for blastomycosis?
Antifungals (-Azoles, Amphotericin B if severe) ## Footnote Treatment duration and type depend on the severity of the disease.
218
What is the **pathogen** (ET) responsible for coccidioidomycosis?
Coccidioides immitis ## Footnote This fungus is endemic to certain regions, particularly the southwestern United States.
219
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of coccidioidomycosis?
* Draining lesions * Lameness * Anterior uveitis ## Footnote These signs can indicate a disseminated infection.
220
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for coccidioidomycosis?
Fluconazole (prolonged Tx), Ketoconazole & itraconazole ## Footnote Treatment may vary based on the severity of the disease.
221
What is the **pathogen** (ET) responsible for leptospirosis?
L. Grippotyphosa, L. Pomona, L. Bratislava ## Footnote These bacteria are zoonotic and can cause severe illness in both animals and humans.
222
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of leptospirosis?
* Anorexia * Pyrexia * Vomiting * Dehydration * PU/PD ## Footnote These signs indicate a systemic infection affecting multiple organ systems.
223
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for leptospirosis?
Antibiotics and supportive care ## Footnote Early intervention is critical for a favorable outcome.
224
What is the **pathogen** (ET) responsible for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
Rickettsia Rickettsii via Dermacentor Andersoni, D. Variabilis ## Footnote This bacterium is transmitted through tick bites.
225
What are the **clinical signs** (CS) of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
* Fever * Depression * Anorexia * Subcutaneous edema * Petechiae of mucosa ## Footnote These signs indicate a serious infectious disease.
226
What is the **treatment** (Tx) for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
Tetracycline, Doxycycline, Chloramphenicol, enrofloxacin ## Footnote Prompt antibiotic treatment is essential for recovery.
NAVLE PPT Study Guide
flashcards
Decks in class (39)
# Cards
Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2026 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions