1
Q
What are the two main divisions of the immune system?
A
Innate (non-specific) and adaptive (specific) immunity.
2
Q
Name three physical barriers of the innate immune system.
A
Skin, mucous membranes, and cilia.
3
Q
What are the main chemical barriers in innate immunity?
A
Lysozyme, gastric acid, and antimicrobial peptides.
4
Q
What cells are the first line of defence in innate immunity?
A
Phagocytes such as neutrophils and macrophages.
5
Q
Which leukocytes are involved in allergic responses and parasitic infections?
A
Eosinophils and basophils.
6
Q
Which cells release histamine?
A
Mast cells and basophils.
7
Q
What is the function of histamine?
A
Vasodilation and increased vascular permeability during inflammation.
8
Q
What are cytokines?
A
Small signalling proteins that regulate immune responses.
9
Q
What is the main function of interferons?
A
Inhibit viral replication and activate NK cells.
10
Q
What are complement proteins?
A
Plasma proteins that enhance phagocytosis, inflammation, and cell lysis.
11
Q
Which complement pathway is antibody-dependent?
A
Classical pathway.
12
Q
Which complement pathway is triggered by pathogen surfaces?
A
Alternative pathway.
13
Q
Which complement component forms the membrane attack complex?
A
C5b-C9 complex.
14
Q
What is opsonisation?
A
Tagging pathogens with molecules (e.g., C3b) to enhance phagocytosis.
15
Q
Which cells are antigen-presenting cells (APCs)?
A
Dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells.
16
Q
Where do T lymphocytes mature?
A
In the thymus.
17
Q
Where do B lymphocytes mature?
A
In the bone marrow.
18
Q
What is the main role of helper T cells (CD4+)?
A
Activate B cells, cytotoxic T cells, and macrophages.
19
Q
What is the main role of cytotoxic T cells (CD8+)?
A
Destroy virus-infected and cancer cells.
20
Q
Which T cells regulate and suppress immune responses?
A
Regulatory (suppressor) T cells.
21
Q
What molecule on APCs presents antigen to CD4+ T cells?
A
MHC class II molecules.
22
Q
What molecule presents antigen to CD8+ T cells?
A
MHC class I molecules.
23
Q
What is clonal selection?
A
Activation and proliferation of lymphocytes specific to an antigen.
24
Q
What are antibodies also known as?
A
Immunoglobulins (Ig).
25
Which antibody is produced first in primary immune response?
IgM.
26
Which antibody is most abundant in blood and lymph?
IgG.
27
Which antibody is found in mucosal secretions?
IgA.
28
Which antibody is involved in allergy and parasitic response?
IgE.
29
Which antibody acts as a receptor on B cells?
IgD.
30
What is immunological memory?
Ability of the immune system to respond more rapidly upon re-exposure to the same antigen.
31
What are plasma cells?
Activated B cells that secrete antibodies.
32
What are memory B cells?
Long-lived cells that respond rapidly to re-exposure to antigen.
33
Which cells destroy virus-infected cells in innate immunity?
Natural killer (NK) cells.
34
What do pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) detect?
Pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs).
35
What is inflammation?
Local response to tissue injury or infection involving redness, heat, swelling, and pain.
36
What is chemotaxis?
Movement of immune cells toward a chemical gradient (site of infection).
37
What are the five cardinal signs of inflammation?
Redness, heat, swelling, pain, and loss of function.
38
What is the function of fever?
Inhibits pathogen growth and enhances immune activity.
39
Which part of the brain regulates fever?
Hypothalamus.
40
What are pyrogens?
Substances that induce fever (e.g., IL-1, TNF-α, bacterial toxins).
41
What is phagocytosis?
Engulfment and digestion of pathogens by phagocytes.
42
Name two key phagocytic cells.
Neutrophils and macrophages.
43
What is antigen processing?
Breakdown of pathogen proteins into peptides for MHC presentation.
44
What triggers the adaptive immune response?
Recognition of specific antigens by lymphocytes.
45
What is the main difference between innate and adaptive immunity?
Innate is immediate and non-specific; adaptive is slower but specific and has memory.
46
What is cell-mediated immunity?
Immune response involving T cells killing infected cells.
47
What is humoral immunity?
Immunity mediated by antibodies produced by B cells.
48
Which cytokine stimulates B-cell proliferation?
Interleukin-4 (IL-4).
49
Which cytokine activates macrophages?
Interferon-gamma (IFN-γ).
50
Which cytokine causes fever and acute-phase response?
Interleukin-1 (IL-1).
51
Which cytokine is a major mediator of inflammation?
Tumour necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α).
52
What is tolerance in immunology?
Ability to recognise self and not mount immune responses against it.
53
What are autoimmune diseases?
Conditions in which immune system attacks self-tissues.
54
What is hypersensitivity?
Exaggerated or inappropriate immune response to an antigen.
55
What is Type I hypersensitivity mediated by?
IgE and mast cells (immediate hypersensitivity).
56
Give an example of a Type I hypersensitivity reaction.
Anaphylaxis, allergic rhinitis, or asthma.
57
What is Type II hypersensitivity mediated by?
IgG or IgM antibodies binding to cells, causing cytotoxicity.
58
Give an example of a Type II hypersensitivity reaction.
Haemolytic anaemia, transfusion reaction.
59
What is Type III hypersensitivity caused by?
Immune complex deposition in tissues.
60
Give an example of a Type III hypersensitivity disease.
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).
61
What is Type IV hypersensitivity mediated by?
T cells (delayed-type hypersensitivity).
62
Give an example of a Type IV hypersensitivity reaction.
Contact dermatitis or tuberculin skin test.
63
What is an antigen?
A molecule that triggers an immune response.
64
What is an epitope?
Specific part of an antigen recognised by antibodies or T cells.
65
What is immunodeficiency?
Failure of immune system components to function properly.
66
Name one primary immunodeficiency disorder.
Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID).
67
Name one secondary immunodeficiency cause.
HIV infection, malnutrition, or chemotherapy.
68
What is HIV’s target cell?
CD4+ T helper cells.
69
What is the consequence of low CD4 count?
Increased susceptibility to opportunistic infections.
70
What is vaccination?
Introduction of antigenic material to induce protective immunity.
71
What is passive immunity?
Transfer of antibodies from another source (e.g., maternal antibodies).
72
What is active immunity?
Production of antibodies following exposure to antigen or vaccination.
73
What is the hygiene hypothesis?
Early-life exposure to microbes reduces allergy risk by balancing Th1/Th2 responses.
74
What are acute phase proteins?
Proteins produced by the liver during inflammation, e.g., CRP, fibrinogen.
75
What is the function of CRP?
Binds pathogens and activates complement, marking them for phagocytosis.
76
What is the purpose of complement regulation?
Prevents damage to host tissues by complement activation.
77
What are autoimmune markers in lupus?
Anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA).
78
Which autoantibody is associated with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis?
Anti-thyroid peroxidase (anti-TPO).
79
Which autoantibody is associated with Graves’ disease?
TSH receptor antibody.
80
Which autoantibody is associated with rheumatoid arthritis?
Rheumatoid factor (RF) and anti-CCP antibodies.
81
What is the role of HLA genes?
Encode MHC molecules influencing immune responses and disease susceptibility.
82
Which HLA type is associated with ankylosing spondylitis?
HLA-B27.
83
Which vitamin supports T-cell function and immune modulation?
Vitamin D.
84
Which nutrient deficiency can reduce immune competence?
Zinc deficiency.
85
What is immunosenescence?
Age-related decline in immune function.
86
Which type of immunity is present at birth?
Innate immunity.
87
A child with recurrent infections, no thymic shadow, and low T cells. Likely condition?
Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID).
88
A patient with facial rash, arthritis, and positive ANA test. Diagnosis?
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).
89
A woman with dry eyes, dry mouth, and positive anti-Ro antibodies. Diagnosis?
Sjögren’s syndrome.
90
A patient with hyperthyroidism, exophthalmos, and positive TSH receptor antibodies. Diagnosis?
Graves’ disease.
91
A patient with hypothyroidism, goitre, and anti-TPO antibodies. Diagnosis?
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.
92
A patient with joint pain, stiffness, and positive anti-CCP antibodies. Likely diagnosis?
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA).
93
A patient with back pain, morning stiffness, and HLA-B27 positivity. Diagnosis?
Ankylosing spondylitis.
94
A patient develops hives and bronchospasm minutes after eating peanuts. Reaction type?
Type I hypersensitivity (anaphylaxis).
95
A transfusion recipient develops haemolysis within hours. Mechanism?
Type II hypersensitivity (cytotoxic).
96
A patient with glomerulonephritis and immune complex deposition. Reaction type?
Type III hypersensitivity.
97
A patient develops rash 2 days after poison ivy exposure. Reaction type?
Type IV hypersensitivity.
98
A patient with oral candidiasis, low CD4 count, and high viral load. Likely cause?
HIV infection causing immunodeficiency.
99
A child given live vaccine develops disease due to B-cell deficiency. Diagnosis?
X-linked agammaglobulinaemia.
100
A chemotherapy patient develops recurrent pneumonia. Likely cause?
Secondary immunodeficiency due to immunosuppression.
101
A patient develops fever, redness, and swelling after injury. Mechanism?
Acute inflammatory response (innate immunity).
102
A patient treated with corticosteroids develops thrush. Why?
Suppressed immune function.
103
A patient with eczema, asthma, and hay fever. Which immune imbalance?
Overactive Th2 response (IgE-mediated allergy).
104
A neonate has passive immunity against measles. How?
Maternal IgG antibodies crossing placenta.
105
A vaccinated individual develops mild symptoms but no severe illness. Why?
Memory immune response prevents full infection.
106
A patient has delayed wound healing and recurrent infections. Which nutrient may be deficient?
Zinc.
Biomed 2
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