1
Q
What are the two main divisions of the nervous system?
A
Central nervous system (brain and spinal cord) and peripheral nervous system (all nerves outside CNS).
2
Q
List the three core functions of the nervous system.
A
Sensory (input), integration (processing), and motor (output).
3
Q
Define proprioception.
A
The sense of body position and movement.
4
Q
Which system works with the nervous system to maintain homeostasis?
A
The endocrine system.
5
Q
What structures make up the CNS?
A
Brain and spinal cord.
6
Q
What structures make up the PNS?
A
Peripheral nerves and ganglia outside the CNS.
7
Q
What does the somatic nervous system control?
A
Voluntary control of skeletal muscles and somatic sensation.
8
Q
What does the autonomic nervous system (ANS) control?
A
Involuntary control of glands, cardiac muscle, and smooth muscle.
9
Q
Name the two branches of the ANS.
A
Sympathetic and parasympathetic.
10
Q
State the functional theme of the sympathetic division.
A
Fight or flight (thoracolumbar outflow).
11
Q
State the functional theme of the parasympathetic division.
A
Rest and digest (craniosacral outflow).
12
Q
Give two opposing effects of sympathetic vs parasympathetic on the eye and lungs.
A
Pupil: dilation vs constriction; Lungs: bronchodilation vs bronchoconstriction.
13
Q
Which organ converts glycogen to glucose under sympathetic drive?
A
The liver.
14
Q
Which gland releases adrenaline in sympathetic activation?
A
Adrenal medulla.
15
Q
What is the enteric nervous system (ENS)?
A
Intrinsic ‘brain’ of the GIT regulating motility and secretions; modulated by ANS.
16
Q
Name two receptor types used by ENS sensory neurons.
A
Chemoreceptors and stretch receptors.
17
Q
What are the two major cell types in nervous tissue?
A
Neurons and neuroglia (glial cells).
18
Q
Why are neurons considered excitable?
A
They can generate action potentials in response to stimuli.
19
Q
Define a nerve.
A
A bundle of one or more neurons (axons) in the PNS.
20
Q
List four parts of a typical neuron.
A
Dendrites, cell body (soma), axon, axon terminals.
21
Q
What is grey matter mainly composed of?
A
Neuron cell bodies, dendrites, and unmyelinated axons.
22
Q
What is white matter mainly composed of?
A
Myelinated axons.
23
Q
What are clusters of cell bodies called in the CNS vs PNS?
A
Nuclei (CNS) and ganglia (PNS).
24
Q
Define axolemma.
A
The plasma membrane of an axon.
25
What are nodes of Ranvier?
Gaps in the myelin sheath along myelinated axons.
26
Which cells myelinate in the CNS and PNS?
Oligodendrocytes (CNS) and Schwann cells (PNS).
27
How does myelination affect conduction speed?
It increases conduction speed via saltatory conduction.
28
Which vitamin is a cofactor in myelin production?
Vitamin B12.
29
Define graded potential vs action potential in one line.
Graded: variable amplitude, short-distance; Action: all-or-nothing, long-distance along axon.
30
What is the approximate resting membrane potential of a neuron?
About −70 mV (inside negative).
31
Which ions dominate ECF vs ICF at rest?
ECF: Na+ and Cl−; ICF: K+ and large negatively charged proteins/phosphates.
32
What maintains ionic gradients at rest?
The Na+/K+ ATPase pump (3 Na+ out, 2 K+ in).
33
Define depolarisation threshold for an action potential.
About −55 mV (membrane potential at which AP is triggered).
34
What peak voltage does the membrane reach during depolarisation?
Approximately +30 mV.
35
Which ion influx drives depolarisation?
Na+ influx through voltage-gated Na+ channels.
36
Which ion efflux drives repolarisation?
K+ efflux through voltage-gated K+ channels.
37
What is the refractory period?
Time after an AP when another AP is harder or impossible (absolute then relative).
38
How do local anaesthetics block pain transmission?
They block voltage-gated Na+ channels, preventing action potentials.
39
Contrast continuous vs saltatory conduction.
Continuous: stepwise depolarisation in unmyelinated axons; Saltatory: APs 'jump' node-to-node in myelinated axons (faster, efficient).
40
Define a synapse.
A junction where a neuron communicates with another cell across a synaptic cleft via neurotransmitters.
41
Which ion triggers vesicle exocytosis at the synaptic end bulb?
Ca2+ entering through voltage-gated calcium channels.
42
List the four broad classes of neurotransmitters.
Amino acids, monoamines, peptides (neuropeptides), and unique molecules (e.g., ACh, NO).
43
What is the effect of excitatory vs inhibitory NTs on the postsynaptic membrane?
Excitatory: depolarisation (open Na+ channels); Inhibitory: hyperpolarisation (open K+ channels).
44
Name the major excitatory amino acid NT in the CNS.
Glutamate.
45
Name the major inhibitory amino acid NT in the brain.
GABA.
46
Which vitamin is required for conversion of glutamate to GABA?
Vitamin B6 (pyridoxal phosphate).
47
Where is most serotonin produced?
In the enteric nervous system (~95%), remainder in CNS.
48
Which enzyme removes serotonin from the synapse?
Monoamine oxidase (MAO).
49
From which amino acid is dopamine synthesised?
Tyrosine (via L-DOPA).
50
Name two roles of dopamine.
Movement control/reward; inhibits prolactin release from anterior pituitary.
51
Name two enzymes that degrade dopamine and noradrenaline.
MAO and COMT.
52
Which monoamines are associated with sympathetic activity?
Adrenaline (epinephrine) and noradrenaline (norepinephrine).
53
Where is acetylcholine a major NT?
Parasympathetic NS, CNS, and neuromuscular junction.
54
Which enzyme breaks down acetylcholine?
Acetylcholinesterase.
55
What is the primary action of nitric oxide (NO) as a NT?
Vasodilation (short-lived gaseous transmitter).
56
Define a dermatome.
An area of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve.
57
How many pairs of spinal nerves are there?
31 pairs.
58
What happens to CNS axons after injury compared to PNS axons?
CNS axons generally do not regenerate (glial inhibitory factors); PNS axons can regenerate if Schwann cells and soma intact.
59
Name two PNS glial cell types and their roles.
Schwann cells (myelinate, aid regeneration); Satellite cells (support cell bodies in ganglia).
60
Name four CNS glial cell types.
Astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, microglia, ependymal cells.
61
Give one function of astrocytes.
Support neurons and help maintain the blood–brain barrier.
62
Give one function of microglia.
Phagocytose pathogens and debris (immune cells of CNS).
63
Give one function of ependymal cells.
Line ventricles/central canal and produce/circulate CSF.
64
What clinical test names are used for carpal tunnel provocation?
Tinel’s test and Phalen’s test.
65
Which nerve is compressed in carpal tunnel syndrome?
Median nerve.
66
List two symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome.
Tingling/numbness in median nerve distribution; nocturnal pain; weak grip/thumb opposition.
67
Name one common cause of Bell’s palsy.
Viral (e.g., herpes simplex), surgery, or injury causing facial nerve inflammation.
68
Is Bell’s palsy upper or lower motor neuron facial weakness?
Lower motor neuron pattern (entire unilateral facial weakness).
69
What is Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS)?
An acute post-infectious, autoimmune demyelinating polyneuropathy of peripheral nerves.
70
Describe the classic progression of weakness in GBS.
Sudden, bilateral, ascending paralysis with sensory changes.
71
Name two investigations used in GBS.
Nerve conduction studies and lumbar puncture.
72
What is multiple sclerosis (MS)?
Autoimmune inflammatory demyelination in the CNS with plaque (sclerosis) formation.
73
Name two common MS symptoms.
Optic neuritis/visual loss; sensory changes; weakness; bladder urgency.
74
Which vitamins are highlighted in MS myelin support?
Vitamin D and vitamin B12.
75
What is motor neurone disease (MND)?
Progressive degeneration of motor neurons in spinal cord, motor cortex, and brainstem.
76
Do sensory functions remain intact in MND?
Yes, typically sensory is spared.
77
Define dementia.
Syndrome of memory loss and cognitive decline interfering with daily activities.
78
What proportion of dementia is Alzheimer’s disease (AD)?
Approximately 50%.
79
Name a hallmark protein associated with AD pathology.
Beta-amyloid deposition (with neuronal atrophy and reduced acetylcholine).
80
Which brain areas are early targets in AD?
Hippocampus (memory) early; amygdala later.
81
List two risk factors or associations for AD from the lecture.
Cardiometabolic risk/oxidative stress; nutritional deficiency (B vitamins, omega-3); possible metal exposures; chronic inflammation.
82
What is Parkinson’s disease (PD) pathophysiology in one line?
Degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra with Lewy body accumulation.
83
List four Parkinson’s motor features.
Bradykinesia, resting tremor, rigidity, stooped posture/reduced arm swing.
84
Name the main pharmacologic replacement used in PD.
Levodopa (L-DOPA).
85
Why may dietary protein be shifted to dinner in PD management?
To reduce competition for L-DOPA absorption/transport earlier in the day.
86
How do temperature and myelination affect conduction speed?
Lower temperature slows conduction; myelination speeds conduction.
87
What happens to ATP use in saltatory vs continuous conduction?
Saltatory uses less ATP (more energy efficient).
88
What is the role of substance P vs endorphins?
Substance P enhances pain; endorphins/enkephalins/dynorphins are opioid analgesics.
89
Which enzyme group breaks down monoamines and where are they found?
MAO (neurons/astrocytes) and COMT; degrade dopamine, NA, adrenaline (MAO also serotonin).
90
A typist has nocturnal hand tingling and positive Phalen’s test. Likely diagnosis?
Carpal tunnel syndrome (median nerve compression).
91
A patient cannot close one eye and has unilateral facial droop after a viral illness. Likely nerve involved?
Facial nerve (CN VII) involvement in Bell’s palsy.
92
A traveller develops rapidly ascending weakness two weeks after gastroenteritis. Likely condition?
Guillain–Barré syndrome.
93
A young woman has optic neuritis and sensory changes with MRI plaques. Likely diagnosis?
Multiple sclerosis.
94
A 62-year-old with shuffling gait, resting tremor and rigidity. Which neurotransmitter is deficient?
Dopamine (loss in substantia nigra).
95
Postpartum patient with wrist pain and median paresthesia from fluid retention. Likely condition?
Carpal tunnel syndrome.
96
Sudden bilateral leg weakness with areflexia and neuropathic pain. What emergency support might be required?
Respiratory support (risk of respiratory failure) and IVIG/plasma exchange.
97
A patient with MS asks why cold worsens movement. What conduction change explains this?
Lower temperature slows nerve conduction; demyelinated fibers are especially affected.
98
Elderly patient with memory loss, hippocampal atrophy, and reduced acetylcholine. Likely disease?
Alzheimer’s disease.
99
Patient with depression and pain modulation issues has altered serotonin handling. Which enzyme clears serotonin?
Monoamine oxidase (MAO).
100
A boxer has reduced arm swing, bradykinesia and pill-rolling tremor. What brain region is affected?
Substantia nigra (dopaminergic neuron loss).
101
A patient on local dental anaesthetic feels numbness. Which channel is blocked?
Voltage-gated Na+ channels.
102
A malnourished infant shows developmental delay from poor myelination. Which vitamin may be lacking?
Vitamin B12.
103
An anxious student has tachycardia, dilated pupils and dry mouth. Which ANS branch is dominant?
Sympathetic nervous system.
104
After a large meal, peristalsis increases. Which ANS branch mediates this?
Parasympathetic nervous system (via vagus; ENS activity).
105
A patient presents with glove-and-stocking sensory loss but preserved motor in hands. Does this fit MND?
No; MND primarily affects motor neurons, sensory is typically intact.
106
A man with hand then leg weakness, fasciculations, and dysphagia over months. Likely prognosis feature of disease?
Motor neurone disease with progressive course and risk of respiratory failure.
107
A patient’s dermatomal numbness over lateral leg and foot suggests which spinal level?
Likely L5/S1 distribution (sciatic/peroneal involvement).
108
A woman has intermittent double vision and nystagmus with remitting-relapsing course. Likely pathology process?
CNS demyelination with plaques (multiple sclerosis).
109
A runner with calf pain and weak plantarflexion has depressed ankle reflex. Which spinal nerve root?
S1 root involvement (dermatome/myotome correlation).
Biomed 2
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