Biomed 2 > Oncology! > Flashcards

Oncology! Flashcards

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1
Q

What is oncology?

A

The study and treatment of cancer (malignant tumours).

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2
Q

Define a neoplasm.

A

A mass of tissue that grows faster than normal in an uncoordinated manner.

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3
Q

Define a tumour.

A

A swelling or growth of tissue that may be benign or malignant.

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4
Q

What is meant by mutation?

A

A change in genetic information (DNA sequence or number).

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5
Q

What is a mutagen?

A

An agent that changes genetic information (e.g., chemicals, radiation, viruses, inflammation).

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6
Q

What is a carcinogen?

A

Any agent that causes cancer (e.g., nitrosamines, heavy metals, asbestos, x-rays, UV).

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7
Q

Define carcinogenesis.

A

The process by which normal cells are transformed into cancer cells.

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8
Q

What is an oncogene?

A

A gene that causes overproduction of growth signals and increases cell division.

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9
Q

What are tumour suppressor genes?

A

Genes that normally restrain cell growth; when inactivated, cancer risk increases.

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10
Q

What is angiogenesis?

A

Formation of new blood vessels that allows malignant tumours to grow beyond ~12 mm³.

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11
Q

What is contact inhibition?

A

A normal mechanism preventing cells from dividing beyond available space; lost in cancer cells.

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12
Q

What is meant by grading of a tumour?

A

A measure of cell differentiation/abnormality (e.g., Grade 1 differentiated to Grade 4 undifferentiated).

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13
Q

What is meant by staging of cancer?

A

Classification by the extent of disease at diagnosis (e.g., Stage 0–IV).

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14
Q

What does the TNM system stand for?

A

Tumour size (T1–4), lymph Node involvement (N0–3), and Metastasis (M0–1).

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15
Q

Define metastasis.

A

The spread of malignant cells via blood or lymph to form secondary tumours.

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16
Q

Define cachexia.

A

Weight loss with muscle atrophy causing fatigue and weakness in cancer.

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17
Q

What are para-neoplastic syndromes?

A

Symptoms distant from a tumour due to substances produced by cancer cells (e.g., ACTH from lung tumours causing Cushing’s).

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18
Q

What is palliative care?

A

Care focused on reducing symptom severity and improving quality of life rather than cure.

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19
Q

What is a carcinoma?

A

A malignant tumour arising from epithelial tissues.

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20
Q

What is a sarcoma?

A

A malignant tumour developing in connective tissues (bone, cartilage, muscle, tendon).

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21
Q

Approximately what proportion of cancers are attributed to inherited defects versus environment/lifestyle?

A

About 5–10% inherited; 90–95% environment and lifestyle.

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22
Q

Name two lifestyle or dietary factors that increase cancer risk highlighted in the PDF.

A

High red/processed meat and low fibre; refined sugars; smoked/burnt foods; excess alcohol.

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23
Q

Name two radiation sources listed as risk factors for cancer.

A

X-rays and UV rays (also environmental exposures including microwaves/phones listed).

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24
Q

Name two infection/immunity-related risks for cancer.

A

Viruses (e.g., hepatitis B/C, HPV, EBV) and immunodeficiency (e.g., HIV).

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25
How does chronic inflammation influence carcinogenesis?
It promotes cell proliferation and increases cancer risk (e.g., IBD, GERD, gastritis).
26
Which hormone-related factor increases post-menopausal breast cancer risk in the PDF?
Obesity due to altered hormone metabolism leading to higher oestrogen exposure.
27
Which vitamin deficiency is listed as a risk factor for cancer?
Vitamin D deficiency.
28
List two chemical exposures cited as potential risks.
Parabens and aluminium; also pesticides, heavy metals, aspartame.
29
What three metabolic conditions characterise the environment cancer cells thrive in, per the PDF?
Acidic, anaerobic (low oxygen), and glucose-rich environments.
30
Which behaviours related to sexual health increase certain cancer risks?
High-risk sexual behaviour and persistent HPV infection (cervical cancer), HIV.
31
Which medications are mentioned as possible risk factors?
Immunosuppressants, HRT, and antibiotics (altering flora and immunity).
32
Which dietary compound is produced by burnt food and is listed as harmful?
Acrylamides.
33
Why is pain not usually an early symptom of cancer?
Early tumours often cause minimal pain; pain arises from pressure or inflammation later.
34
Name two local effects of a growing tumour.
Compression of blood vessels causing necrosis and obstruction of ducts/tubes.
35
Why might large tumours show calcification on x‑ray?
Necrosis within a large tumour can calcify and appear on imaging.
36
Name two systemic effects commonly seen in cancer.
Weight loss/cachexia and anaemia; also infections and para‑neoplastic syndromes.
37
Why are cancer patients at increased infection risk?
Compromised host resistance and treatment-induced immunosuppression.
38
List two common sites for metastasis.
Bone and liver (also lungs and brain).
39
List three common initial, non‑specific cancer symptoms.
Unexplained weight loss, fatigue/anaemia, night sweats.
40
What change in a skin lesion may suggest malignancy?
A change in size, shape, or colour; elevation; or a new mole.
41
What typical lymph node change may occur in malignancy?
Painless lymphadenopathy (e.g., in lymphoma).
42
What does ‘clubbing’ of the nails suggest in an oncology context?
Possible lung cancer, especially with apical tumours.
43
Name two categories of diagnostic tests used in cancer.
Blood tests and tumour markers; imaging; biopsies.
44
What is the primary role of CEA in colorectal cancer management?
Monitoring rather than screening or diagnosis due to low sensitivity/specificity.
45
Which blood tumour marker is commonly elevated in ovarian cancer?
CA‑125 (normal <35 U/mL).
46
Which tumour marker can be useful in monitoring metastatic breast cancer?
CA 15‑3 (normal <30 U/mL).
47
What is PSA and how is it used?
Prostate‑specific antigen; assists in diagnosing and monitoring prostate cancer but can yield false positives.
48
Why must tumour markers be interpreted in clinical context?
Some markers rise in non‑cancerous conditions and vary in sensitivity/specificity.
49
What is Tumour M2‑PK and how may it be applied?
A non‑organ‑specific marker; stool levels investigated for colorectal screening and follow‑up.
50
What is a core principle of biopsy in cancer diagnosis?
Removal of tissue for histological examination showing undifferentiated malignant cells.
51
Name two imaging modalities listed for cancer evaluation.
MRI and CT (also x‑ray and radioisotopes).
52
What is one concern mentioned regarding mammography?
It uses x‑ray radiation and may increase breast cancer risk per the PDF.
53
What alternative breast imaging does the PDF highlight and why?
Thermography, to detect earlier pathological changes via angiogenesis/increased temperature.
54
What stool test components are mentioned for colorectal cancer workup?
Occult blood and M2‑PK.
55
Name the three basic conventional cancer treatments listed.
Surgery, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy.
56
What is meant by curative versus palliative intent?
Curative aims to resolve the malignancy; palliative focuses on symptom relief and complications.
57
Name two common adverse effects of radiotherapy.
Bone marrow depression (aplastic anaemia/pancytopenia) and skin/gut ulceration with hair loss.
58
Which non-pharmacological measure reduces radiotherapy‑related fatigue?
Exercise (along with adequate rest and relaxation).
59
Name two supportive topical or complementary measures for radiation dermatitis mentioned.
Calendula and creams/gels/oils; homeopathic radium bromatum/sol/sulphur also listed.
60
Why does chemotherapy cause many adverse effects?
It targets rapidly dividing cells but cannot distinguish between normal and malignant cells.
61
List three adverse effects of chemotherapy noted in the PDF.
Bone marrow depression, nausea/vomiting/diarrhoea, hair loss (and organ damage).
62
Which endocrine therapies are cited for hormone‑sensitive cancers?
Tamoxifen (blocks oestrogen receptors) and anti‑androgens; glucocorticoids in lymphomas.
63
What is a common adverse effect profile of tamoxifen noted?
Hot flushes, joint pains, osteoporosis, DVT, and sleep irregularities.
64
What is the leading cause of lung cancer listed?
Smoking (accounting for ~90%).
65
Name two symptoms of lung cancer.
Persistent dry cough and haemoptysis; also dyspnoea, chest pain, weight loss, hoarseness.
66
Where do most primary lung cancers arise and how are they commonly detected?
In the bronchi; often diagnosed by chest x‑ray.
67
List two common metastasis sites for lung cancer.
Liver and brain (also bone).
68
What physical sign in the hands may suggest apical lung tumours?
Wasting of hand muscles and finger clubbing.
69
Name two risk factors for colorectal cancer.
High meat/low fibre diet and low vitamin D; polyps and family history.
70
List two red‑flag symptoms of colorectal cancer.
Rectal bleeding and change in bowel habit (diarrhoea/constipation).
71
Which blood marker may be elevated in colorectal cancer?
CEA (carcinoembryonic antigen).
72
Which investigations confirm colorectal cancer?
Colonoscopy with biopsy; stool tests for occult blood and M2‑PK.
73
How does 5‑year survival vary by stage in colorectal cancer per the PDF?
Stage I ~91% and Stage IV ~14%.
74
What are two typical features of benign breast lumps?
Mobile, smooth masses with regular borders (e.g., cysts or fibroadenomas).
75
Is breast pain usually associated with breast cancer?
No; breast pain is not usually associated with breast cancer.
76
What are two typical signs of breast cancer on examination?
A painless fixed lump and overlying skin changes (dimpling or ‘orange peel’).
77
Which receptors are most commonly expressed in breast cancer?
Oestrogen receptors (≈80%); also progesterone and epidermal growth factor receptors.
78
What is meant by ‘triple‑negative’ breast cancer?
A tumour lacking oestrogen, progesterone, and epidermal growth factor receptors (~15%).
79
Name two factors that increase lifetime oestrogen exposure.
Early menarche and late menopause; COCP and HRT also increase exposure.
80
Name two environmental chemicals in the PDF that may mimic oestrogen.
BPA (plastics) and parabens (also aluminium in antiperspirants listed).
81
Which breast quadrant is most commonly affected and why per the PDF?
Upper lateral quadrant, where oestrogen metabolites exit the breast.
82
List two natural support approaches for breast cancer in the PDF.
Support oestrogen detoxification/elimination and a plant‑based, antioxidant‑rich diet; shiitake, green tea.
83
What are the main conventional treatments for breast cancer?
Surgery, chemotherapy, radiotherapy, and hormonal therapy (e.g., tamoxifen if ER+).
84
What is the most lethal gynaecological malignancy listed?
Ovarian cancer.
85
Name two risk factors for ovarian cancer.
Family history/BRCA mutations and late menopause/early menarche; infertility/never given birth.
86
Which tumour marker supports diagnosis/monitoring in ovarian cancer?
CA‑125.
87
Name two common early features of ovarian cancer.
Often asymptomatic early; vague abdominal discomfort and bloating.
88
Which infection is a key risk factor for cervical cancer?
Persistent HPV infection.
89
What screening modality detects cervical pre‑cancer and cancer?
Smear test (cervical screening).
90
Name two common features of advanced primary liver cancer.
Jaundice and ascites with hepatomegaly; pruritus and weight loss may occur.
91
List two key causes/risk factors for primary liver cancer.
Cirrhosis (alcohol/toxins) and hepatitis B or C with viral genome integration.
92
Name two early symptoms of gastric cancer.
Persistent indigestion and frequent burping/heartburn; early satiety and bloating.
93
Name two risk factors for gastric cancer.
Diet rich in salted/pickled/smoked foods and H. pylori infection; male sex and age 55+.
94
Which tumour markers may be used in gastric cancer work‑up per the PDF?
CEA and CA 19‑9.
95
What is the hallmark symptom of oesophageal cancer?
Progressive dysphagia (a red flag).
96
Name two risk factors for oesophageal cancer.
Chronic irritation with alcohol/smoking and GORD/Barrett’s oesophagus; obesity and low fruit/veg diet.
97
List two common features of pancreatic cancer.
Epigastric pain radiating to the back and unexplained weight loss; jaundice and fatigue are also common.
98
Are most pancreatic cancers exocrine or endocrine in origin?
Most arise from exocrine cells; a minority are neuroendocrine (islet) tumours.
99
What proportion of pancreatic cancers are metastatic at diagnosis according to the PDF?
Approximately 60% are metastatic at diagnosis.
100
What are two common symptoms suggestive of prostate cancer?
Nocturia and haematuria; back pain may indicate bone metastases.
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