Urology Flashcards

(43 cards)

1
Q

What are the symptoms of epididymitis?

A

Acute epididymal pain/swelling, erythema, urethral discharge; TTP epididymis/vas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What conditions should be ruled out in epididymitis?

A

Torsion (emergency), trauma, varicocele, tumor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the etiology of epididymitis in patients under 35?

A

Chlamydia/Gonorrhea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the etiology of epididymitis in patients over 35?

A

E. coli/G-negative bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What tests are used for diagnosing epididymitis?

A

Urethral swab/urine NAAT; tips: no void 2 h, milk urethra, swab 3–4 cm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the treatment for epididymitis in patients over 35?

A

> 35: ofloxacin 300 mg BID x10 d / ciprofloxacin 500 mg BID x10 d / levofloxacin 500 mg OD x10 d.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the treatment for epididymitis in patients under 35?

A

<35: cefixime 800 mg PO x1 + doxy 100 mg BID x10 d (or) ceftriaxone 250 mg IM x1 + azithro 1 g PO x1/doxy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the etiologies of erectile dysfunction?

A

Vascular, neuro, medications (SSRIs, β-blockers, antiandrogens, barbiturates, H₂ blockers), substances, post-TURP, endocrine (DM).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What history and physical exam elements are important for erectile dysfunction?

A

Nocturnal tumescence, erection attainment/maintenance, self-stimulation; neuro/vascular exam, orthostatics, DRE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What labs are recommended for erectile dysfunction?

A

CBC, lipids, FBG/HbA1c, TSH, prolactin, free testosterone, LH/FSH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the treatment for erectile dysfunction?

A

PDE-5 inhibitors (sildenafil 50–100 mg PRN; tadalafil longer) — avoid with nitrates; alprostadil/vacuum; prosthesis; T replacement if hypogonadal; psych; exercise/weight loss; PE: SSRI/clomipramine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) of BPH?

A

Frequency, nocturia, hesitancy, urgency, weak stream.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for BPH?

A

Stricture, bladder neck contracture, prostate/bladder CA, stones, UTI/prostatitis, neurogenic bladder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is included in the work-up for BPH?

A

DRE, UA (hematuria → work-up), PSA, PVR, uroflow, cytology; consider U/S, TRUS/biopsy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the treatment options for BPH?

A

α-1 blockers (terazosin; SE: orthostasis, dizziness, congestion), 5-ARI (finasteride; SE: ↓libido/ED).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the risk factors for testicular cancer?

A

Cryptorchidism (#1), family history, Caucasian, atrophy; age 15–34.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What tumor markers are associated with testicular cancer?

A

AFP, β-hCG, LDH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the treatment for testicular cancer?

A

Orchidectomy, then risk-adapted RT/chemo (platinum).

19
Q

What labs are used for staging/monitoring prostate cancer?

A

ALP, Ca/PO₄, CBC, lytes, PSA.

20
Q

What is the recommendation for PSA/DRE screening in asymptomatic men over 50?

A

No routine PSA/DRE; use in abnormal DRE, LUTS eval, or post-treatment follow-up.

21
Q

What is the treatment for stage IV prostate cancer?

A

Bilateral orchiectomy or LHRH agonist/antagonist ± antiandrogen.

22
Q

What are the risks associated with radical prostatectomy/radiation therapy?

A

Incontinence, stricture, bowel injury, ED, anesthesia risks.

23
Q

What medications can worsen urinary incontinence (UI)?

A

Diuretics, anticholinergics (TCA).

24
Q

What types of urinary incontinence are related to BPH?

A

Overflow, urge.

25
What antihypertensive is helpful for urinary incontinence?
α-1 blocker.
26
What is the follow-up recommendation for microscopic hematuria?
UA & BP yearly → q2y.
27
What should be excluded if microscopic hematuria is detected?
Transient causes (menses, exercise, sex, instrumentation, DRE) → repeat; culture for UTI; if negative, serum Cr + renal U/S.
28
What are the risk factors for bladder cancer?
Age >40, smoking, gross hematuria, prior urologic disease, chemical/dye exposure, phenacetin/cyclophosphamide/HIV treatment, HIV/SLE/vasculitis/schisto, pelvic RT.
29
What are the components of a semen analysis for male infertility?
Volume, count, motility, progression, morphology.
30
What are some causes of male infertility?
Cryptorchidism, varicocele, hypogonadism; drugs (opioids, antiandrogens, ketoconazole, spironolactone, H₂ blockers, psych meds), radiation; epididymal dysfunction (colchicine), CF; ejaculatory disorders.
31
What are the differential diagnoses for a painful testicle?
Torsion, epididymitis, trauma, hernia, HSP, mumps, Fournier’s.
32
What is the emergency treatment for testicular torsion?
Detorsion within 4–6 hours; U/S if time permits.
33
What are the complications of undescended testes?
Cancer (≈1/80 uni; 1/50 bilat), infertility, torsion, indirect hernia.
34
What is the treatment for undescended testes?
Orchidopexy before 1 year (orchidectomy if late to lower CA risk).
35
What are the causes of urinary retention?
DM neuropathy, BPH, cognitive/neurologic disease, medications (amitriptyline, opioids, baclofen, testosterone), pelvic organ prolapse, masses, infections, postpartum.
36
What are the types of urinary incontinence?
Stress, urge, overflow, mixed, functional.
37
What interventions are recommended for stress urinary incontinence?
Kegels; topical estrogen/TCA; sling (TVT); behavior.
38
What is the classic triad of renal cell carcinoma?
Hematuria, flank pain, palpable mass (late).
39
What are the paraneoplastic syndromes associated with renal cell carcinoma?
Cushing’s, SIADH, hypercalcemia, hypoglycemia, carcinoid, polycythemia, neuro syndromes, dermato, Trousseau; endocrine (HTN/erythrocytosis), hepatic dysfunction.
40
What is the treatment for renal cell carcinoma?
Surgery; RT for palliation; immunotherapy for metastasis.
41
What are the symptoms of nephrolithiasis?
Severe flank pain, N/V, frequency/urgency, hematuria, CVA TTP.
42
What is the best imaging for nephrolithiasis?
Non-contrast CT abdomen/pelvis.
43
What is the management for nephrolithiasis?
NSAIDs, fluids, opioids PRN; if not passed by 4 weeks, refer.