Methods MCQs Flashcards

(30 cards)

1
Q

How can you best describe Cytoarchitectonics?

A) A physiological method based on segmenting the brain according to its appearance under a microscope
B) An anatomical method based on segmenting the brain according to its appearance under a microscope
C) A physiological method based on how the brain appears when you first look at it
D) An anatomical method based on how the brain appears when you first look at it

A

B) An anatomical method based on segmenting the brain according to its appearance under a microscope

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2
Q

How are Cytoarchitectonics characterised?

A) By the staining method
B) By their borders
C) By fine spatial resolution
D) By their cortical layers

A

C) By fine spatial resolution

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3
Q

What can the type of cells found often correlate with?

A) Size of cell
B) Location of cell
C) Name of cell
D) Function of cell

A

D) Function of cell

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4
Q

What layer does this describe?
“An output layer that contains cell that send signals from the brain to the periphery”

A) Layer II
B) Layer III
C) Layer IV
D) Layer V

A

D) Layer V

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5
Q

What layer does this describe?
“An input layer that contains cells receiving input from the periphery”

A) Layer II
B) Layer III
C) Layer IV
D) Layer V

A

C) Layer IV

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6
Q

What are 2 advantages of TMS?
(select 2 answers)

A) Millisecond temporal resolution
B) Second temporal resolution
C) Resolved within cortical maps
D) Not required within cortical maps

A

A) Millisecond temporal resolution
C) Resolved within cortical maps

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7
Q

What is a negative of TMS?

A) Has to be alien to multiple locations
B) Can only be applied to one location
C) Cannot choose the location its applied to
D) There are no negatives

A

B) Can only be applied to one location

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8
Q

What method of brain study does this describe?
“Non-invasive, painless stimulation”

A) MRI
B) fMRI
C) CT
D) TMS

A

D) TMS

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9
Q

In what ways are TMS useful for brain study?
(select all that apply)

A) Studying behaviour during virtual brain lesions
B) High temporal resolution
C) Chronometry in brain activity
D) Functional connectivity

A

A) Studying behaviour during virtual brain lesions
C) Chronometry in brain activity
D) Functional connectivity

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10
Q

What do TMS effects depend on?

A) Stimulation site
B) Signal strength
C) Number of locations used
D) Size of skull

A

A) Stimulation site

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11
Q

What does the TMS activate with motor cortex stimulation?

A) Frontal lobe activation
B) Cortical neurons post-synaptically
C) Corticospinal neurons trans-synaptically
D) Hypothalamus activation

A

C) Corticospinal neurons trans-synaptically

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12
Q

Which of the below are more advantages of TMS?
(select all that apply)

A) Short duration reduces risk of plasticity
B) Cortical areas accessible
C) Ability to study double dissociations
D) Spatial undersampling

A

A) Short duration reduces risk of plasticity
C) Ability to study double dissociations

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13
Q

Which of the below are more disadvantages of TMS?
(select all that apply)

A) Spatial undersampling
B) Only cortical areas accessible
C) Short duration increases risk of plasticity
D) Loud coil click creates need for sham condition

A

A) Spatial undersampling
B) Only cortical areas accessible
D) Loud coil click creates need for sham condition

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14
Q

Why do the dipoles in individual cells add up to stronger signals?

A) Cortical areas are aligned parallel to the cortical surface with axons closer to the surface and dendrites closer to the white matter.
B) Cortical areas are aligned perpendicular to the cortical surface with dendrites closer to the surface and axons closer to the white matter
C) Cortical areas are aligned parallel to the cortical surface with dendrites closer to the surface and axons closer to the white matter.
D) Cortical areas are aligned perpendicular to the cortical surface with axons closer to the surface and dendrites closer to the white matter.

A

B) Cortical areas are aligned perpendicular to the cortical surface with dendrites closer to the surface and axons closer to the white matter

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15
Q

What is another factor enhancing the signal?

A) Synchronous firing of large neuron populations
B) Synchronous firing of smaller neuron populations
C) Surface negative dipoles influence postsynaptic potentials
D) Surface negative dipoles influence presynaptic potentials

A

A) Synchronous firing of large neuron populations

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16
Q

Why are the cyclic changes in amplitudes referred to as oscillations?

A) Spontaneous EEG results
B) Occipital variations
C) Beta rhythms and blockades
D) Alpha rhythms and blockades

A

D) Alpha rhythms and blockades

17
Q

What does this best describe?
“Stimulus or task related changes in EEG oscillations”

A) Event related potentials
B) Event related oscillations
C) Action potentials
D) Readiness potential

A

B) Event related oscillations

18
Q

What does this best describe?
“Waveforms defined in terms of latency relative to an event eg sensory stimulus”

A) Event related potentials
B) Event related oscillations
C) Action potentials
D) Readiness potential

A

A) Event related potentials

19
Q

What has to be excluded when averaging ERP results?
(select all that apply)

A) Voltage fluctuations
B) Spontaneous EEG fluctuations
C) Movement of eyeballs
D) Muscle activity

A

C) Movement of eyeballs
D) Muscle activity

20
Q

What best describes Exogenous ERPs?

A) Conscious responses from the brain controlled by physical properties of stimulus
B) Automatic responses from the brain controlled by physical properties of stimulus
C) Interactions between between subject and event
D) Separation between subject and event

A

B) Automatic responses from the brain controlled by physical properties of stimulus

21
Q

What best describes Endogenous ERPs?

A) Conscious responses from the brain controlled by physical properties of stimulus
B) Automatic responses from the brain controlled by physical properties of stimulus
C) Interactions between between subject and event
D) Separation between subject and event

A

C) Interactions between between subject and event

22
Q

What does this describe?
“Semi automatic but modulated by cognitive processes

A) Mesogneous ERPs
B) Metacortical ERPs
C) Metartranist ERPS
D) Metarelational ERPs

A

A) Mesogneous ERPs

23
Q

How best to describe Mismatch negativity (MMN)?

A) Waveform typically recorded in an active auditory oddball paradigm with frequent ‘standard’ tones
B) Waveform typically recorded in an active auditory oddball paradigm with frequent ‘unusual’ tones
C) Waveform typically recorded in a passive auditory oddball paradigm with frequent ‘standard’ tones
D) Waveform typically recorded in a passive auditory oddball paradigm with frequent ‘unusual’ tones

A

C) Waveform typically recorded in a passive auditory oddball paradigm with frequent ‘standard’ tones

24
Q

What is created by more discriminable stimuli?

A) Shorter MMN latency
B) Longer MMN latency
C) Nonexistent latency
D) None of the above

A

A) Shorter MMN latency

25
What can MMN reflect? (select all that apply) A) Preattentive processing of deviant features B) High levels of topography C) Low levels of topography D) Sensory memory
A) Preattentive processing of deviant features D) Sensory memory
26
What can a P3 response reflect? A) Categorisation of stimuli as latency decreases when stimuli are difficult to recognise B) Categorisation of stimuli as latency increases when stimuli are difficult to recognise C) Novelty of stimuli as latency decreases when stimuli are difficult to recognise D) Novelty of stimuli as latency increases when stimuli are difficult to recognise
B) Categorisation of stimuli as latency increases when stimuli are difficult to recognise
27
When is the 'omitted stimulus' P3 observed? A) When expected stimuli do not occur B) When expected stimuli occur C) When unexpected stimuli do not occur D) When unexpected stimuli occur
A) When expected stimuli do not occur
28
What is a positive of EEG measures? A) High spatial resolution B) Low signal to noise ratio C) Not waveform dependent D) Excellent temporal resolution
D) Excellent temporal resolution
29
What is a negative of EEG measures? A) Poor spatial resolution B) Waveform dependent C) High signal to noise ratio D) Low signal to nosie ratio
A) Poor spatial resolution
30
How are ERPs obtained? A) Waveform variation B) Through interaction between subject and event C) Time locked averaging of EEG epochs D) None of the above
C) Time locked averaging of EEG epochs