Semester 3 > Nursing > Flashcards

Nursing Flashcards

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1
Q

What factors affect animal response to restraint

A

Demeanor
What the procedure is
Health status of pet
Species
Gender
Herd status

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2
Q

A cat exhibits agonistic behaviour during a blood draw that results in scratches to the restrainer. What type of response is this?

A

Sympathetic fight or flight

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3
Q

Some dogs will use aggressive behaviour as a means to avoid situations they are uncomfortable in. This may seem to be ________ behaviour but can be a learned behaviour if the aggression is successful

A

Dominance
(Not actually dominance, pet has learned being aggressive stops the things they don’t like from happening)

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4
Q

Where should evaluation of a new patients behaviour begin when determining the type of restraint they may need

A

in the lobby

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5
Q

Cattle will perceive a small technician as a larger object when the flight zone is entered if they utilize ______

A

An extender
(Paddle or cane)

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6
Q

How would you recognize a stallion that is an imminent threat?

A

Ears pinned back
Arched neck posture
Flared nostrils
Tail extended slightly away

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7
Q

T/F dairy bulls are considered the safest type of bovine because they are used to people

A

FALSE - more dangerous cause they don’t gaf about us

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8
Q

If you enter a barn to work with a new group of piglets what precautions do you need to take to avoid problems with the sow

A

Separate sows from the piglets
Don’t let the sow hear the piglets

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9
Q

Why is management ethology an important component of a vet nurses skills?

A

Understanding behaviour helps you understand good control methods

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10
Q

What are the danger areas when restraining a horse being examined

A

Directly in front below eye level
Directly behind

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11
Q

T/F when a horse is tied to a fence for temporary holding you want them to be able to reach the ground for food and water

A

FALSE - danger of getting tangled

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12
Q

What are the types of twitches for horses and what are they used for

A

Hand twitch - on horses side for distraction/diversion
Lip twitch(hand, humane twitch, rope/chain)- releasing endorphins to calm the horse and distract it

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13
Q

How long is the analgesic stage in horses with a lip twitch

A

10-12 minutes

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14
Q

what is this called and what is it used for

A

Belly rope
Encourage horse to move forward

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15
Q

Describe how to lift the forelimb of a horse

A

Approach at left side
Face the rear of the horse
Contact at withers and maintain contact down the leg
Gently squeeze suspensory ligament
Lift leg and place between your legs

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16
Q

Describe how to lift the rear limb of a horse

A

Approach on left side facing rear
Scratch withers and work your way to back of horse maintaining contact
Work your way down the rear leg
Lean into horse and pull medial hock outwards
Lay leg across your legs

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17
Q

Describe how to hold a rabbit after getting it out of its cage

A

Football hold
Hold scruff and support back with the other arm
Rabbits head will be in the pit of your elbow

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18
Q

T/F the inflammatory phase of wound healing can be divided into 2 phases - hemostasis & remodeling

A

FALSE - hemostasis & debridement

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19
Q

List three different processes that constitute the repair phase of wound healing

A

Epithelialization
tissue regeneration
Contraction

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20
Q

What are wound factors that may delay healing

A

Infection
Contamination
Clinical infection
Nonviable materials
Vascularity
Edema
Motion/tension

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21
Q

What are the two types of tension in wound healing

A

Extrinsic - tissue too far apart and being pulled together
Intrinsic - sutures too tight

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22
Q

While doing surgery for laryngeal paralysis the surgeons hemostats penetrate into the laryngeal lumen. How would you classify this wound as far as contamination?

A

Clean contaminated

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23
Q

T/F increased virulence of invading organisms means that it takes fewer numbers to initiate an infection

A

TRUE

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24
Q

Why is it important to eliminate dead space when wounds are healing

A

Space can fill with fluids and cells necessary for healing can’t cross fluids

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25
Besides eliminating empty space in wounds, name the other wound management principles & how you implement them
Aseptic technique - sterile gloves, cap, mask, clean environment, sterile equipment Prevent further contamination - temporary bandage +/- antimicrobials Remove foreign debris - intrinsic (hair), extrinsic (gravel), irrigation, manual removal Sufficient debridement - enzymatic, biologic, surgical, mechanical (wet-to-dry/dry-to-dry) Eliminate space - drains Promote vascular bed - wound care, wound protection with bandages Closure selection - absorbable suture and smallest possible
26
T/F wet to dry bandaging is used to help debride wounds
TRUE
27
Closing a contaminated wound after a couple days of wound care, before granulation tissue forms, is called _____
Delayed primary
28
Explain why a Robert Jones bandage is able to stop hemorrhage but not lead to ischemia?
When applied has more pressure to stop hemorrhage, but pressure decreases after 15-20 minutes to allow for blood flow again
29
What are the layers of a bandage and what is the function of each
Primary - wound contact layer Secondary - conforming to wound, immobilization & absorption Tertiary - securing and protective layer
30
T/F acquired immunity can either be active or passive
TRUE
31
T/F immunity after vacc with a modified live vaccine doesn't last as long as from maternal antibodies from colostrum
FALSE
32
What is the difference between core and non core vaccines
Core - required by all species. Highly contagious and ubiquitous Non core - at risk only
33
What vaccines are non core for canine
Leptospirosis Lyme Canine parainfluenza Infectious tracheobronchitis (bordetella) Canine flu Corona
34
What are the core feline vaccines and where are they administered
Rabies - right rear Fvrcp - right front (Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis, calicivirus, panleukopenia)
35
What vaccines are non core for adult horses
Strangles Rhinopheumonitis Equine flu Anthrax Botulism
36
How are hooks, ramps, and points treated in horses
Floating the teeth
37
T/F clostridial diseases are among those included in the core vaccine category for cattle
TRUE - clostridial diseases rapidly fatal
38
Diamond skin disease in swine is prevented by the core vaccine for ______
Erysipelas
39
water loss is either ________ or _________
Sensible or insensible
40
What hormone is released when plasma osmolality increases dramatically
Antidiuretic hormone
41
Potassium is a very important electrolyte in the body and at times is required as a fluid additive. What is the max rate for potassium administration
0.5 mEq/kg/hour
42
how much fluid is lost for patient that has lost 1.5kg of body weight in 24 hours
1kg = 1l 1.5L or 1500ml
43
how much urine production should a normal patient have
1-2ml/kg/hr
44
what is the normal pH range for the body
7.35-7.45
45
T/F the kidneys primarily regulate HCO3 to help maintain body pH
TRUE -
46
what is the most common acid-base disturbance
Metabolic acidosis
47
What are the 6 questions you should ask before starting fluid therapy
Is it needed What type What route What rate How much When to stop
48
Where can you administer intraosseous fluids
Medial tibial tuberosity Trochanteric fossa Greater tubercle
49
T/F subcutaneous administration is a good method to provide fluids to a severely dehydrated animal
FALSE - too slow
50
Blood typing is a determination of
Antigens on the blood cell
51
What is the purpose of performing a cross match procedure
Test for antibodies in the recipients blood to prevent acute reactions *compatibility*
52
a doctor is doing a surgery using the suction device and is concerned about blood loss. Calculate how much blood is contained in the suction bottle. Patients PCV is 43% and you measure the PCV of the bottle at 9%. The bottle contains 500ml of bloody fluid how much does the bottle contains
Blood in bottle = PCV of fluid x volume of fluid / PCV patient 9 x 500/43 = 105ml
53
Why is DEA 1.1 considered the most important when it comes to potential blood transfusions in the canine
Has the potential to have the most severe reactions. If the patient has had a blood transfusion in the past you must cross match first
54
T/F blood transfusion can cure problem such as anemia
FALSE - doesnt cure, only supports while you figure out the main problem
55
What causes neonatal isoerythrolysis
a DEA 1.1 - mom bred with DEA 1.1+ dad and baby comes out DEA 1.1+. When nursing from colostrum antibodies from mom begin to attack puppies blood
56
What is a major cross match
Determines if donor RBC are compatible with recipient serum *Donor Rbc to recipient serum compatibility*
57
What is a minor cross match
Determine if donor serum compatible with recipient RBC *Donor serum to recipient Rbc compatibility*
58
what is generally the first sign seen in transfusion reaction
fever
59
What is a good indicator of survival up to a week after a neonatal puppy has been delivered via c-section
Vocalization
60
Describe the responsibilities you would have regarding a neonatal puppy just delivered via c-section
Remove fetal membranes ASAP Stimulate via drying/rubbing Aspirate fetal fluids with bulb syringe Tie off umbilical cord & iodine dip to prevent infection Check for birth defects TPR & vitals Warm with incubator
61
How do you tube feed a puppy that has been rejected
Measure tube from tip of nose to last rib and mark tube Attach to syringe and prime line so no air in it Have puppy in normal position (sternal) Moisten tube with some formula Slightly open mouth and insert to mark (If tube makes it to mark it is in correctly. If stops before you are in trachea and need to pull out and try again)
62
Define opthalmic neonatorum
Purulent conjunctivitis before eyes open Bilateral protruding eyelids
63
What are the options for therapy for a foal that has failure of passive transfer
Oral administration of high quality colostrum IV plasma products from appropriate donor
64
What are the maternal factors that lead to a high risk mare
Advanced age Poor health Poor perineal conformation Previous dystocia Twins
65
what is included in the subjective of SOAP notes
Observations shared by client or team
66
What is included in the objective of SOAP notes
Factual status of patient
67
What is included in the assessment of SOAP notes
Diagnosis given by doctor and prognosis
68
What is included in the plan of SOAP notes
Treatment recommendations, follow up instructions
69
If a patient weights 17 kg on the first day of boarding, then 15.5 kgs on their second day, explain and quantify their weight loss
Patient lost 1.5 L - 1kg=1L Patient lost body water because it's impossible to lose that much muscle/fat that quickly
70
What clinical lab parameters would support the findings of a 10% dehydration in a patient
Increased PCV Increased TP Increased USG (>1.040) Electrolytes
71
Describe the placement of a wet-to-dry bandage and state the purpose
Moisten adherent bandage with LRS or sterile water. Should be used on wound with excess high viscosity exudate. Place moistened bandage on wound, not touching skin. Then add thick, absorptive layer of gauze. Tertiary layer is self adhesive wrap and tape to secure and protect bandage
72
During a surgery a patient loses a considerable amount of blood and you need to determine the loss. He tells you there are 2 laparotomy sponges fully soaked with blood. He used 8, 4x4 gauze sponges fully soaked. The suction bottle has 800 mls of blood and lavage fluid. The patients PCV before surgery was 46%. The bottle PCV is 4%
Laparotomy sponges: 12x12 = 50ml. 100ml in lap sponges 4x4 sponges: 10mls per sponge = 80ml Suction bottle: 4x800/46 = 69.57ml 100+80+69.57 = 249.57ml total
73
How much fluid does a 26kg dog that is 8% dehydrated and has vomited 4x and had diarrhea 2x since becoming Ill. How much will he need over 24 hours to get back to "normal" fluid balance
Dehydration: 26x.08x1000 = 2,080ml Vomiting: 4ml/kg/episode. 4x26=104x6(v&d)=624ml ongoing Maintenance: 60ml/kg/day. 60x26=1,560 ml 2,080 + 624 + 1,560 = 4,264ml/24 hours
74
How does a wet-to-dry bandage aid in wound debridement
Mechanical non-selective debridement When it dries the tissue sticks to the bandage, and when removed it takes the tissue with it. Takes necrotic & healthy tissue
75
a patient is experiencing prolonged hemorrhage. PCV is normal. What blood component should be administered to control bleeding
Plasma or platelets
76
Explain the proper way to correct the weight of a patient recorded in a medical record when it is recognized that an incorrect weight was entered
Weight again to confirm weight. Make a line through the old weight, then initial and date right next to line.
77
T/F a veterinary client has no responsibilities regarding VCPR
FALSE
78
POVMR format uses what method to record patient findings
SOAP
79
Clinical microbiology is to identify ______, _______, & _______
Bacteria, fungal, viruses
80
T/F When performing a bacterial culture of a of a cat abscess, the quickest way to obtain the proper sample is to insert the culture swab into the pus within the abscess
FALSE - you want to avoid pus because it is dead bacteria
81
T/F a bacterial culture swab is adequate for a blood culture
FALSE - bacteremia can be transient/intermittent
82
Which staining procedure is used to identify bacterial cell wall characteristics
Gram stain
83
When performing an oxidase test on a bacteria that has been isolated from a wound, what indicates a positive test
Blue/purple color appears on filter paper when colony is placed in reagent
84
Explain how to take a sample and monitor a sample for Staphylococcus spp
Gather equipment'swab affected area Have an agar plate and swab in 4 quadrants. First quadrant use the swab from the pet, the next quadrant use a clean swab and take some from the first quadrant. Repeat until 4 quadrants are done. Incubate upside down in incubator and check for growth every day for 3 days.
85
What mood is this horse in. How do you know
Aggressive - ears back and down, direct eye contact, flared nostrils
86
What mood is this cat in. How can you tell
Frightened - ears flat, tail tucked, eyes dilated, crouched
87
What mood is this cow in. How do you know
Aggressive - standing sideways with head low & perpendicular to the ground. Pawing ground, blowing air from nostrils
88
What is this called and what is it used for
Casting - used to cause cow to lay down
89
What mood is this dog in. How can you tell
Aggressive/offensive - direct eye contact, ears & tails up, lips raised rostrally, hackles up
90
What mood is this dog in. How can you tell
Fear/anxiety - avoiding eye contact, ears & tail down, turned sideways (sometimes rolls over)
91
What mood is this cat in. How do you know
Aggressive - rear higher, tail down and pointed away, piloerection, ears opened to the side
92
What mood is this cat in. How do you know
Chilling - ears forward, tail down
93
What are the results of this blood test. How do you know?
Cat is Type B blood. The test that agglutinates is the type of blood the cat is
94
Are these animals compatible? How do you know
No. Blood is hemolyzed
95
Are these animals compatible? How do you know
No. Agglutinated
96
Is this dog DEA 1.1 negative or positive. How do you know?
Negative. No agglutination on patient test
97
19.5 kg dog with history of v/d. Diarrhea very watery and occurs 3x/d. Vomiting 2x/day. Dog has prolonged skin tenting, crt is 2.5, and mm are tacky. How do you approach this?
6 questions Symptoms indicate 6-8% dehydrated 19.5x0.08x1000=1560ml 19.5x5(v&d)X4=390ml ongoing losses 60x19.5=1170ml maintenance 1560+390+1170=3120ml/day ## Footnote vomiting & diarrhea: 4ml/kg/epidose maintenance: 60ml/kg/day
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