ABVP ARM Study Qs > VCNA Exotics > Flashcards

VCNA Exotics Flashcards

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1
Q

What is important to examine at every routine physical exam of male chinchillas?

A

Glans penis and prepuce due to how common penile disorders are in this species
May see fur rings, balanoposthitis, prepucial abscesses, paraphimosis, and phimosis.

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2
Q

What is the most important pathogen in chinchillas?
A) Streptococcus equi subsp. Zooepidemicus
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Most common bacterial pathogen isolated in chinchillas with conjunctivitis

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3
Q

What are common clinical findings of Streptococcus equi subsp. Zooepidemicus in chinchillas?
A) pruritis and fur loss
B) subcutaneous abscesses and conjunctivitis
C) subcutaneous abscesses and dental disease

A

B) subcutaneous abscesses and conjunctivitis

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4
Q

How was a chinchilla reportedly diagnosed with balanoposthitis and what was the treatment?

A

Presented with lethargy and inappetance; purulent discharge and phimosis on physical exam; repeated mechanical breakdown of the adhesions between the prepuce and the glans penis were required.

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5
Q

What is the typical urine specific gravity of a healthy chinchilla?

A

Greater than or equal to 1.050
(Range was 1.014 to 1.060)

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6
Q

What percentage of urinary samples in chinchillas contain amorphous crystals?
A) 48%
B) 58%
C) 68%

A

C) 68%
Calcium carbonate crystals were not found because chinchillas do not excrete significant calcium through their kidneys.

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7
Q

Which urine dipstick values may be positive in anorexic chinchillas?
A) ketones
B) decreased urine pH
C) both A and B

A

C) both A and B

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8
Q

True or false: protein can be found in the urine of healthy chinchillas when analyzed on dipstick?

A

True (overestimated on dipstick)

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9
Q

What is the normal pH of chinchilla urine on urine dipstick?

A

8.5

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10
Q

How many urinary papillae do chinchillas have?

A

One per kidney, unipapillate

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11
Q

What is the normal kidney size in chinchillas?

A

2cm long x 1 cm wide

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12
Q

Is urolithiasis more common in male or female chinchillas?
A) no difference in incidence based on sex
B) males
C) females

A

B) males
In a retrospective study of 15 chinchillas with urolithiasis, all were male with a median age of 30 months.

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13
Q

What was the majority type of urinary stones reported in a retrospective review of 15 chinchillas with urolithiasis?
A) calcium carbonate
B) structure
C) calcium oxalate

A

A) calcium carbonate
Cause unknown but unlikely related to diet since chinchillas excrete excess calcium in feces rather than urine.
Semen-matrix calculi have also been reported in chinchillas

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14
Q

What types of uroliths have been reported in chinchillas?
A) calcium carbonate
B) semen matrix calculi
C) struvite
D) a and b
E) a and c

A

D) a and b

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15
Q

How do chinchillas excrete excess calcium?
A) urine
B) feces
C) skin

A

B) feces

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16
Q

In a retrospective study of urolithiasis in chinchillas, what percent of chinchillas with urethral stones were euthanized within 24 hrs of diagnosis?
A) 100%
B) 75%
C) 25%

A

B) 75%

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17
Q

According to a retrospective study of urolithiasis in chinchillas, what is the reported recurrence rate?
A) 90%
B) 75%
C) 50%

A

C) 50%
Median time to recurrence was 68 days.

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18
Q

According to a retrospective study of urolithiasis in chinchillas, what is the median time to recurrence after surgical removal?
A) 68 days
B) 108 days
C) 308 days

A

A) 68 days

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19
Q

What are potential causes of otitis media in chinchillas?

A

Primary bacterial infections (usually Pseudomonas aeruginosa), and secondary to cleft palate, neoplasms, and inflammatory polyps

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20
Q

What type of neoplasm has been reported in a chinchilla’s middle ear (diagnosed on ct and biopsy as a cause of hemorrhagic and purulent otic discharge)?

A

Leiomyosarcoma

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21
Q

What has been a diagnosed cause of secondary otitis media in chinchillas that is also seen in cats and dogs, but not in rodents or rabbits?

A

Inflammatory polyps within the middle ear

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22
Q

A chinchilla with cleft palate developed secondary infections leading to otitis media of which organism(s)?
A) Pasteurella pneumotropica
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Proteus mirabilis and a-hemolytic Streptococcus

A

C) Proteus mirabilis and a-hemolytic Streptococcus

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23
Q

What surgical treatment has been reported for chronic otitis media in a chinchilla?
A) partial ear canal ablation and bulla osteotomy
B) total ear canal ablation and bulla osteotomy
C) modified total ear canal ablation and temporary bulla fenestration

A

C) modified total ear canal ablation and temporary bulla fenestration
Fenestrated the caudodorsal and rostroventral chambers of the bulla; left open for 5 weeks for flushing and antibiotic administration; multidrug resistant Pseudomonas was cultured.

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24
Q

In a report of a chinchilla that underwent a modified total ear canal ablation and temporary bulla fenestration, what postoperative complication and treatment was reported?

A

Temporary facial nerve paralysis, treated with temporary tarsorrhaphy
Persistent otitis media (surgery resolved the otitis externa) due to the multichambered anatomy of the bulla and the multi resistant/biofilm forming Pseudomonas infection that was present.

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25
In a retrospective study of chinchilla eye disease, what were the most common anatomic locations of lesions?
Lens was most common followed by corneal abnormalities and conjunctivitis
26
What is the prevalence of ophthalmic disorders in chinchillas according to a retrospective study? A) 10.8% B) 7.8% C) 5.8%
B) 7.8%
27
What are the most common normal flora in chinchilla eyes according to a retrospective study?
Gram positive flora (94%) Streptococcus, Staphylococcus aureus, and coagulase-negative Staphylococcus most common.
28
What are the most common bacterial causes of conjunctivitis in chinchillas according to a retrospective study?
Gran negative bacteria (62%), usually Pseudomonas aeruginosa (50% of all cases), followed by Staphylococcus species at 27%. Acute onset conjunctivitis more likely to be gram negative. All chinchillas with concurrent upper respiratory signs were infected with P. aeruginosa.
29
In a retrospective study, all chinchillas with conjunctivitis and concurrent upper respiratory signs were infected with _______. A) Staphylococcus species B) Streptococcus species C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
30
What is the recommended empirical therapy for conjunctivitis in chinchillas while awaiting culture results?
Topical gentamicin or polymixin B to cover for Pseudomonas; 89% of all isolates were susceptible to gentamicin and all P. aeruginosa isolates were sensitive to polymixin B. Consider systemic antibiotics if other signs (including respiratory signs) are present.
31
When assessing the normal reference range for vertebral heart scores in chinchillas, is the range higher or lower for CT compared to radiographs? A) higher B) lower C) VHS reference ranges are not established for CT in chinchillas
B) lower 7.5-10.4 on radiographs; 7.1-9.4 on CT.
32
True or false: normal echocardiographic reference ranges are established in chinchillas
True
33
What is the reported prevalence of heart murmurs in chinchillas? A) 23% B) 33% C) 43%
A) 23%
34
Chinchillas with a grade 3 or higher heart murmur are how many times more likely to have echocardiographic abnormalities? A) 2.9 times B) 29 times C) 209 times
B) 29 times
35
What should be on the differential list for a chinchilla presenting with a 2 day history of lethargy, anorexia, and respiratory signs, with pleural effusion and a soft tissue mass in the caudal thorax? A) chylothorax B) diaphragmatic hernia C) trans-diaphragmatic hepatic abscess
B) diaphragmatic hernia Has been reported in a chinchilla with identical presenting signs
36
What are the reported organs that have herniated into the perianal area of chinchillas?
Urinary bladder and fat (Surgical hernia repair successful in both cases)
37
What is believed to be the most common cause of fur chewing in chinchillas?
Stress Dental disease and otitis media are rule outs
38
In a recent study of fur chewing in chinchillas, what treatment was explored and what was found?
Fluoxetine 10mg/kg orally SID; had limited success in reducing the behavior.
39
What two parts of chinchilla anatomy are typically unaffected in cases of fur chewing behavior?
Head and tail
40
In the reported cases of squamous cell carcinoma in chinchillas, what is the most common location of the masses and what complication(s) was/were reported?
Limbs, self mutilation of the tumor
41
What are the best antibiotics for use against Pseudomonas aeruginosa in chinchillas according to one study?
Piperacillin, ceftazidime, and Amikacin were 100% effective. Gentamicin was 89% effective, ciprofloxacin 63%, enrofloxacin 36%, and TMS 8% Need surgical debridement of biofilms along with antimicrobials whenever feasible
42
What percentage of healthy chinchillas are positive for Giardia?
Ranges from 27-61% depending on study
43
Is chinchilla Giardia zoonotic?
Yes. Single report of zoonotic transmission from a chinchilla to a child in the Netherlands after the child ingested pet feces. Was Giardia “assemblage B” type
44
What species of mycobacteria has been diagnosed in a chinchilla?
Mycobacterium genavense Severe pneumonia, bullous emphysema, and weight loss
45
How many pet chinchillas in a survey performed in Italy were positive for Rodentolepis nana?
6/13 tested Superinfection possible since no intermediate host necessary
46
What was diagnosed in an adult male chinchilla from Switzerland with progressive subcutaneous fluctuations edema over the face and thorax?
Taenia crassiceps and Taenia taniaeformis superinfection, transmitted through foliage offered from outside the shelter that was likely contaminated by local foxes and martens.
47
What clinical signs are reported in chinchillas with Streptococcus equi subsp. zooepidemicus infections?
Conjunctivitis, SQ abscesses, and pyometra +/- sepsis
48
Does S. equi subsp zooepidemicus survive longer in water or soil?
Water Survives 4 weeks in water, 1-3 days in soil
49
What is the recommended empirical treatment for S. equi subsp zooepidemicus in chinchillas while awaiting culture results?
Parenteral penicillin, parenteral ceftiofur, or oral trimethoprim sulfa
50
What antibiotic class should be avoided when treating suspected cases of S. equi subsp zooepidemicus in chinchillas?
Second generation quinolones such as enrofloxacin
51
What is the average age of thymoma diagnosis in rabbits?
6-7 years
52
What are paraneoplastic syndromes diagnosed in rabbits with thymoma?
Hemolytic anemia, exfoliative dermatitis with sebaceous adenitis, paraneoplastic hypercalcemia
53
What is the most common reproductive tumor of guinea pigs?
Uterine leiomyoma
54
What percentage of mammary tumors are locally invasive adenocarcinomas in guinea pigs?
30%
55
Do ovarian teratomas typically metastasize in guinea pigs?
No, usually seen in sows >3 years and usually unilateral
56
What is the most common skin tumor of guinea pigs according to two different studies?
Trichofolliculoma (38-45%)
57
Is there a sex predilection for trichofolliculomas in guinea pigs? A) males B) female C) neither
A) typically occur in males, usually on the dorsum, lateral trunk, and lateral thighs
58
What is the most prevalent geriatric disease of small mammals?
Neoplasia
59
What are the most common non-neoplastic pathologies of aged rats?
Chronic respiratory disease complex, cardiomyopathy, and chronic progressive nephropathy
60
What is the most common non neoplastic disorder of aged hamsters?
Atrial thrombosis
61
What trio of infectious organisms is responsible for rat respiratory disease complex?
Mycoplasma pulmonis, Sendai virus, and CAR-bacillus.
62
What is the classic lesion of chronic respiratory disease of rats?
Suppurative bronchopneumonia with bronchiectasis and abscessation
63
What causes the classic “cobblestone” appearance of lungs grossly for rats with chronic respiratory disease?
Bronchiectasis
64
In rats with concurrent CAR-bacillus, where are the bacteria going to be found?
Filamentous bacteria in parallel with respiratory cilia
65
What is the cause of pulmonic pseudotuberculosis in rats?
Corynebacterium kutscheri
66
How common is pulmonic pseudotuberculosis in rats according to Reavill 2020?
6.8% of cases with chronic respiratory disease had Corynebacterium kutscheri
67
What is the most common cause of respiratory signs in aged mice according to Reavill 2020?
Eosinophilic crystalline pneumonia (also called acidophilic macrophage pneumonia), 83.3% of cases Prevalence increases with age and presence of other pulmonary diseases such as adenoma or chronic passive pulmonary congestion from congestive left sided heart failure
68
What are eosinophilic crystalline pneumonia crystals composed of?
YM1 chitinase, derived from activated macrophages Part of the systemic hyalinosis seen incidentally in the respiratory, biliary, and gastric epithelium of aged mice according
69
What was the most common respiratory disease in aged hamsters?
Chronic passive pulmonary congestion due to heart failure secondary to left atrial thrombosis 66.7%
70
Is cardiovascular disease more common in pet rats, mice, or hamsters?
Hamsters (43.5%), then mice (essentially tied at 43%), then pet rats (27.7%) However, some strains of rat can have up to 80% incidence of cardiac disease.
71
What was the most frequent indicator of cardiomyopathy in rats and mice?
Left ventricular hypertrophy
72
What was the incidence rate of chronic necrotizing arteritis in mice per Reavill 2020?
17.9% of cases Affects arteries in the head, heart, kidneys, messer, tongue, and urogenital tract primarily
73
What was the incidence rate of atrial thrombosis of aged hamsters in Reavill 2020?
60%
74
What was unique about the hamster atrial thrombosis cases in Reavill 2020?
None of the hamsters with atrial thrombosis had concurrent renal amyloidosis or anasarca (protein losing nephropathy). Historically the pathogenesis of atrial thrombosis has been hypothesized to be due to loss of antithrombin III through the kidneys due to renal amyloidosis.
75
What was the most common diagnosis in aged rats with renal disease according to Reavill 2020?
Chronic progressive nephropathy, 98.4%
76
What hormone may contribute to development of chronic progressive nephropathy in rats?
Prolactin (not statistically significant, pituitary adenomas may just occur simultaneously with old rats that have renal disease)
77
How common is chronic nephropathy in aged mice per Reavill 2020?
Diagnosed in 83.3% of mice with renal disease
78
What kidney disorder of aged mice can be confused with amyloidosis?
Hyaline glomerulonephropathy
79
What was the most common cause of renal disease in hamsters according to Reavill 2020?
Chronic nephropathy (90.9% of cases with renal disease) Renal disease diagnosed in 47.8% of aged hamsters No cases of renal amyloidosis diagnosed
80
In Reavill 2020, which species did not have any disorders of the ears or eyes reported?
Hamsters
81
In Reavill 2020, what percentage of rats and mice had otitis media or interna?
82.5%
82
In Reavill 2020, what percentage of rats and mice had cataracts?
27.5%
83
What percentage of rat otitis cases in Reavill 2020 were diagnosed with mycoplasmosis in the ears or lungs?
36.4%
84
In which anatomic location can chronic necrotizing arteritis cause local tissue infarction in mice?
In the labyrinthine ear of mice (60% of cases with ear disorders)
85
In Reavill 2020, what percentage of rats had radiculonephropathy diagnosed?
75%
86
In Reavill 2020, what percentage of rats had evidence of central nervous system infections?
25%
87
What was the most common neurologic disorder of aged mice in Reavill 2020?
IVDD
88
The presence of neoplastic disease in aged rats, mice, and hamsters is what per Reavill 2020?
64.6-77.4%
89
In Reavill 2020 what was the most common tumor identified in rats?
Pituitary adenoma (19.2%) Mammary fibroadenoma (16.8%) No statistically significant relationship between the two diagnoses (both were found in 46.5% of cases, others were individual diagnoses).
90
What is this mass in a rat?
Pituitary adenoma
91
Name three abnormalities seen in this picture.
Mammary fibroadenoma, chromodacryorrhea (eyes and medial forelimbs), scruffy hair coat, possible ectoparasites (From Reavill 2020)
92
In Reavill 2020, what was the most common neoplasms diagnosed in mice?
Histiocytic sarcoma (33.3%) and lymphoma (17.6%) This is due to strain bias as most mice were C57BL/6 mice, which don’t tend to get mammary gland, salivary gland, or muscle/bone tumors
93
In Reavill 2020, what was the most common neoplasm diagnosed in hamsters?
Lymphoma, 3 disseminated T cell lymphomas and 2 epitheliotrophic T cell lymphomas
94
What age related disease of mice can lead to dental attrition and inanition due to reactive inflammation and bony resorption?
Foreign body periodontitis caused by lodging of hair shafts in the gingival sulcus
95
What is a newer name for Streptococcus zooepidemicus per Reavill 2020?
Caviibacter abscessus
96
What is the underlying cause for mucosal recto-anal papillomas in rabbits?
Benign growths, not viral mediated, technically not a neoplasm No sex predilection, median age of onset 4.8 years
97
What is a collagen nevi in rabbits?
Collagenous hamartoma. Nodular, raised, firm skin lesion described primarily in males, usually on the abdomen and thorax. Contain haphazardly arranged collagen bundles in the middermis
98
Where do spondylotic vertebral lesions develop first in rabbits per Reavill 2020?
Cervicothoracic region, followed by lumbar spine Other references state lumbar first
99
How frequently do endometrial adenocarcinomas metastasize in rabbits per Reavill 2020?
44.2%
100
What are characteristics of trichoblastomas in rabbits?
Basal cell skin tumors of rabbits that are very common and are almost always benign. Found on neck, head, axilla, thorax, flank, and hind limb
101
What are histopath characteristics of inflammatory bowel disease in ferrets?
Blunting of intestinal villi and lymphoplasmacytic inflammatory infiltrate of the mucosa
102
Which Cryptococcus species is more pathogenic in ferrets? A) C. gattii B) C. neoformans C) neither, they are the same
A) C. gattii Can cause infection in immune competent hosts
103
What type of tree is associated with Cryptococcus infection?
Eucalyptus trees
104
Eucalyptus trees are associated with which infectious disease?
Cryptococcosis
105
Is gastric lymphoma in ferrets B cell or T cell in origin?
B cell, associated with Helicobacter mustelae infection
106
Does T cell or B cell lymphoma carry a better prognosis in ferrets?
B cell lymphoma carries a 3.4 month-longer survival time in ferrets
107
What type of lymphoma is cutaneous lymphoma?
T cell epitheliotropic
108
What causes single cutaneous nodules that originate from smooth muscles of the arrector pili in ferrets?
Dermal leiomyosarcomas Sex predilection in males according to two studies
109
What is the HHHHHMM algorithm and what is it used for?
Quality of life assessment - stands for: Hurt Hunger Hydration Hygiene Happiness Mobility More good than bad days
110
In addition to OVH, what can reduce the risk of mammary fibroadenoma development in rats?
Restricting food to 65% of ad lib consumed food Also reduces pituitary tumors/hyperplasia
111
What is the recommended treatment for radiculoneuropathy in rats?
Vitamin b and NSAIDs
112
What are the two forms of transmission for mouse mammary tumor virus?
Endogenous (transmitted through germ cells/genome) or exogenous (transmitted in milk/saliva, can also cause lymphoma)
113
What is a reason to avoid castrating male Syrian hamsters?
Castration is linked to an increased prevalence of atrial thrombosis
114
Why are some gerbils prone to cerebral ischemia?
Not all gerbils have an anatomically complete circle of Willis - used as a research model because of this
115
What are signs of cerebral ischemia in gerbils and what is the recommended treatment?
Paralysis, inability to open one or both eyes, head tilt, incoordination Treatment includes sq fluids, force feeding, heat support, and NSAIDs. Steroids do not help with return to function.
116
What concepts help inform treatment recommendations for acupuncture?
Qi, yin, and yang Wu Xing (Five elements theory - wood, fire, earth, metal, water)
117
What are the most common conditions treated with acupuncture in rabbits?
Musculoskeletal and gastrointestinal
118
Name several types of acupuncture administration techniques
Dry needling Electroacupuncture Aquapuncture Circle the dragon (surrounding lesion with needles)
119
Which of the following species has the highest maintenance energy requirements? A) mouse B) guinea pig C) ferret
C) ferret Equation for guinea pigs, rats, and mice for assessing MER is 110xBWinkg^75 Equation for rabbits is 100xBWinkg^75 Ferret equation is 200-300xBWinkg^75
120
Which of the following is consistent with refeeding syndrome? A) sudden rise in glucose leads to a release of insulin and the uptake of phosphorus, magnesium, potassium, and thiamine intracellularly B) sudden rise in glucose leads to a release of insulin and a decrease in phosphorus, magnesium, potassium, and thiamine in circulation C) both a and b D) neither a or b
C) both a and b Decline in circulating nutrients causes hemolytic anemia, muscle weakness, ataxia, cardiac and respiratory abnormalities, and neurologic dysfunction.
121
How do you prevent refeeding syndrome?
Feed at risk patients a diet containing low to moderate amounts of digestible carbohydrates (25-33% of resting energy requirements) then reintroduce food slowly while monitoring phosphate, magnesium, and potassium
122
How much more dense is fat compare to carbohydrates or proteins?
2x more nutrient dense
123
What level of vitamin c in the diet is associated with toxicity and cartilage damage in guinea pigs?
Chronic administration of 8500 mg/kg of diet vitamin C
124
What are potential complications of nasal feeding tubes?
Epistaxis, nasal discharge, kinking, tube obstruction, tube displacement, aspiration, higher risk of reflux (reduced reflux risk if tube stays in the esophagus rather than entering the stomach)
125
What is the RECOVER acronym stand for?
Reassessment Campaign on Veterinary Resuscitation
126
How often should response to CPR be assessed according to RECOVER guidelines? A) every 30 seconds B) every 60 seconds C) every 120 seconds
C) every 120 seconds
127
What is the reported outcomes for CPR in exotics?
1.3% survival rate
128
Why is haloperidol no longer recommended as an antipsychotic agent?
Does not have any anti anxiety effects, likely to function by sedative properties primarily (do not promote normal behavior or address underlying causes), and are associated with severe side effects.
129
What are the 3 components of hemostasis?
Vasculature, coagulation proteins, and platelets
130
What is the primary trigger for coagulation?
Exposure of circulating platelets and proteins to sub-endothelial tissue factor
131
Which is the only clotting factor that does not require activation? A) V B) VI C) VII
C) VII (Active form is VIIa)
132
What is involved in the extrinsic clotting pathway?
VIIa, tissue factor
133
What is involved in the common clotting pathway?
Prothrombin, thrombin, fibrinogen, fibrin, II, IIa, Va, Xa
134
What is involved in the intrinsic clotting pathway?
vWF, VIII/VIIIa, IX/IXa, X, XI, XII, high molecular weight kininogen, prekallikrein
135
What is the cell based model of coagulation? A) initiation, amplification, propagation B) damage, repair, maturation C) platelet, factors, stabilization
A) initiation, amplification, propagation
136
Which clotting factors are dependent on vitamin K?
II, VII, IX, X
137
Which is the clotting factor with the shortest half life?
VII
138
What do the following things do for the clotting cascade? 1) Von Willebrand factor 2) liver 3) vitamin K
1) initiates platelet aggregation during primary hemostasis; produced by endothelial cells and megakaryocytea 2) synthesizes clotting proteins (except for von willebrand factor) 3) carboxylates glutamate residues onto some clotting factors to allow them to form clotting complexes
139
What is a known cause for clotting disorders in rabbits? A) persistent estrus B) benzamidazole toxicity C) Eimeria perforans infection D) b & c
B) benzamidazole toxicity Eimeria stiedae is another cause in rabbits
140
What fungal infection can cause clotting disorders in African Pygmy hedgehogs? A) Blastomyces dermatitidis B) Histoplasma capsulatum C) Trychophyton erinacei
B) Histoplasmosis has been documented to cause platelet depletion in an APH
141
What is a potential vascular cause of clotting disorders in guinea pigs?
Hypovitaminosis C due to abnormal collagen synthetase
142
What infectious diseases are associated with clotting disorders in rabbits and ferrets?
Rabbits: Eimeria stiedae, RHD Ferrets: HPAI/influenza
143
What is the optimal technique for preparing cytology smears for digital cytology?
Pull-apart technique (slide over slide smear)
144
Unstained cytology samples should never be placed close to what solution? A) isopropyl alcohol B) formalin C) glutaraldehyde
B) formalin Formalin fumes permanently alter the affinity of cells to Romanowsky stains and ruin the diagnostic potential of the sample.
145
What is Kohler illumination?
Creating optimum contrast and resolution by focusing the light path from the light source on the microscope to get the best quality diagnostic cytology images
146
What percentage of pets in Hong Kong and Taiwan are exotic species?
>25%
147
What percentage of veterinarians in Latin America reported working at exotic exclusive practices?
43.5%
148
What percentage of ferret kits have congenital diseases?
3-4% Other resources say 1% or less
149
What is the gestation length of ferrets?
39-43 days
150
What is the max litter size that a single Jill can nurse?
11 kits
151
How many ferret kits are born per hour during parturition?
5
152
What is unique about ferret milk?
Very high fat content that increases with time postpartum; 8-10% fat at birth and 20% fat 3 weeks post partum. Ferrets should receive supplemental pelleted diets with 30% fat and 40% protein by 2-3 weeks of age to help reduce strain on the female.
153
Solid food should be offered to ferrets: A) before their eyes open B) after their eyes open C) no sooner than 4 weeks postpartum
A) before their eyes (and ears) open
154
What hand rearing formula has been suggested for ferrets?
80% cows milk mixed with either 20% chicken egg yolk or 20% strained beef liver
155
When is the most common time frame for clinical disease from canine distemper to develop in ferrets?
3-6 months of age after they have lost maternal antibodies
156
What is the incubation for canine distemper in ferrets with natural infections?
11-56 days
157
How long is the course of distemper disease in ferrets?
14-36 days, occasionally as long as 7 weeks. Almost always fatal.
158
What form of distemper infection carries a better prognosis?
Distempervirus transmitted from vaccination with modified live virus Survival rates may exceed 85% with supportive care.
159
What are the 3 phases of distempervirus infection in ferrets?
Initial - respiratory/gi signs Mid-late - dermatological signs Advanced - neurologic signs, severe secondary pneumonia/sepsis and death
160
What tissues should be sampled to test for distempervirus infection in ferrets?
Conjunctiva, respiratory secretions, urine (for RT-PCR)
161
Injection on the day of infection and the day after infection with what treatment may improve recovery and decrease clinical signs in ferrets experimentally infected with distemper?
Vitamin A at 50K IU once daily for 2 doses Also, vaccination with canary pox vectored vaccine (vaccination ineffective 48 hrs after exposure though)
162
When are distemper virus vaccines most effective in ferrets exposed to a distemper outbreak?
Within hours of exposure, at high doses Not effective if given greater than 48 hrs post infection but can help reduce disease spread
163
Why is rotavirus group C challenging to eradicate in ferrets?
Virus is stable in feces and can remain for long periods of time in the contaminated fur of infected jills
164
When is rotavirus C morbidity highest for ferrets?
Kits born to primiparous jills - 90% Decreases by 10-20% morbidity for each subsequent gestation.
165
What age of ferret is most likely to develop clinical signs of rotavirus group C?
Neonates 1-3 weeks of age
166
What are clinical signs of rotavirus c in ferrets?
Yellow, watery diarrhea, dehydration, perianal fur staining/erythema, distended abdomen, gas/fluid filled intestines, and death
167
What is the most effective disinfectant for rotavirus C in ferrets?
Chlorine solutions
168
What is the best disinfectant for canine distemper?
It is fragile in the environment, does not require specialized disinfection, only infectious with close contact.
169
Eimeria furonis causes diarrhea in what age of ferrets?
Weanling ferrets
170
What is the risk of transmission of feline panleukopenia virus to ferrets?
Has caused disease experimentally in ferret kits inoculated IP with live vaccine on day 1-2 of age. Developed cerebellar ataxia and loss of righting reflex 6-7 weeks later due to cerebellar hypoplasia. No clinical signs if virus was administered to 3 day old kits or pregnant females (either the female or kits). No natural infections reported.
171
What were clinical signs associated with an outbreak of a congenital Toxoplasma-like parasite disease in ferrets?
36% mortality in kits <28 days old, no clinical signs premortem
172
How long do maternal antibodies persist in ferrets?
6-14 weeks
173
What age is recommended for ferrets to receive their first distemper vaccine?
8 weeks old Boosters at 11 and 14 weeks old (Or, at 14 and 16 weeks of age if received 2 doses at the breeding facility)
174
What congenital defect is more common in blaze jills?
Head deformities/neural tube defects
175
What is a possible cause of neural tube defects in ferrets?
Folic acid deficiency
176
In a study of 152 ferrets, which coat colors were associated with 100% deafness?
Panda, American panda, and blaze
177
Deafness is associated with what behavioral traits in ferrets?
Abnormal social interactions, tendency to bite, and louder vocalizations
178
What is the most common spinal abnormality in ferrets?
Transitional vertebrae, 89.7% of abnormalities, found in thoracolumbar and lumbosacral regions
179
Any juvenile ferret with tetraparesis, paraparesis, or ataxia should have what performed?
Spinal radiographs including the skull with a follow up ct scan or myelogram
180
Any juvenile female ferret with urinary incontinence should receive what test?
Excretory urography (either radiographs or ct scan)
181
Circumcaval ureter causes what in ferrets?
Hydroureter proximal to caval compresssion from the right caudal cardinal vein Diagnosed on excretory urography All three diagnosed cases found in males
182
What is a vesicourachal diverticulum?
Congenital disorder of ferrets causing a blind ended sac at the bladder apex
183
If a ferret is cryptorchid, which testicle is more likely to be undescended?
Left testes (80%) Testes may descend into the scrotum with time
184
How many vertebral formulas have been identified in ferrets?
5 different formulas All have 7 cervical vertebrae
185
What can happen if ferrets have block vertebrae?
They can develop IVDD in adjacent vertebrae
186
In which states is it illegal to own ferrets?
California and Hawaii
187
In which states is it illegal to own hamsters and gerbils?
Hawaii
188
Where are rabbit sweat glands located?
Only on the lips
189
What diseases are associated with feeding low fiber diets to rabbits?
Dental disease, GI disease, stereotypical behavior, obesity, reduction in water intake, urolithiasis, myiasis
190
What is different about the typical diets of wool producing rabbits?
They are fed pellets and once weekly allowed access to straw or bulky forage, but not allowed to have access to hay as it contaminates the fleece
191
What is the water intake per gerbil per day?
4 mL Contrast with 10 mL per 100g in rats and mice - gerbils require much less water due to arid adaptations
192
What physical therapy was effective at restoring normal function in a rabbit after undergoing cranial cruciate ligament repairs in both hind legs?
3 month rehab program that involved walking on a leash and harness in a straight line on a hard surface for 5 minutes and gradually increased to 15 minutes
193
Name some passive functional assessments for rehab.
Passive ROM, end feel (restrictions in motion), goniometry (joint angles), joint play (movement within a joint), flexibility, muscle girth, myofacial exam
194
Name some active functional assessments for rehab.
Posture, gait, transfer (ability of body to change postures), strength test
195
What are the three stages of tissue healing
Inflammatory, reparative, and remodeling/maturation
196
Name some rehab treatments to consider during the inflammatory stage.
Confinement, pain medication, manual therapy, cryotherapy, PBM, PEMF, acupuncture, PROM, assisted standing and walking, weight shifting
197
Name some rehab treatments to consider during the reparative stage.
Heat therapy, PBM, PEMF, therapeutic ultrasound, acupuncture, gait patterning, exercises to improve weight bearing, balance, and active ROM
198
Name some rehab treatments to consider during the remodeling stage.
Improve muscle and core strength, proprioception, endurance, and functional activities; PBM, PEMF, therapeutic ultrasound, extracorporeal shockwave therapy, acupuncture
199
How long does the inflammatory stage of wound healing last?
7 days post injury or surgery
200
What are the goals for managing the inflammatory stage?
Protect healing tissues, address pain, reduce inflammation, maintain ROM
201
What are the goals for managing the reparative (also known as the subacute or transition phase) stage?
Promote weight bearing and joint function, reeducate muscle, regain ROM, and retain flexibility/strength
202
How long does the reparative stage last?
2-4 weeks
203
What are the goals for the remodeling phase (also known as the chronic or strength/function phase)?
Restore full ROM, flexibility, and endurance; improve muscle mass, strength, and proprioception; return to functional activities
204
How long does the remodeling phase take?
12 weeks to 12 months depending on the tissue that is healing
205
What is effleurage?
A form of manual therapy - gliding or sliding the palms/fingertips over the skin in a rhythmic circular pattern
206
What is pettrissage?
Kneading or wringing of soft tissues in a circular motion with hands
207
What is myofacial release?
Slowly pressing on and stretching the facia to elongate and release tissue restrictions
208
What is friction massage?
Circular, longitudinal, or transverse pressure to small area tissues or tendons to breakdown scar tissue, loosen ligaments, and relieve trigger points
209
What is tapotement or percussion?
Striking tissues on stiff or weak muscles
210
What is photobiomodulation or PBM?
Therapy laser
211
What is pulsed electromagnetic field therapy or PEMF?
Flow of electricity to generate a magnetic field that is directed at tissues for therapeutic effects
212
What is extracorporeal shockwave therapy?
Application of high pressure acoustic waves to tissues to improve pain relief and affect cell signaling/growth factors.
213
Generalized alopecia in rabbits with paradoxic hyperexia, weight loss, and atrial fibrillation and dilation may be suggestive of what disease process? A) thymoma B) idiopathic hyperthyroidism C) cystic ovaries
B) idiopathic hyperthyroidism
214
A ferret with diffuse generalized alopecia with erythema, erosions, crusts, and plaques should be suspected of what disease? A) adrenal disease B) cutaneous lymphoma C) ringworm
B) cutaneous lymphoma
215
Unilateral or bilateral intensely pruritic otitis with thick crusting the external ear pinna, face, and genitals is associated with what disease in rabbits? A) Treponema cunicuil B) Psoroptes cuniculi C) Pasteurella multocida
B) Psoroptes cuniculi
216
A rabbit presents with perineal pruritis with no other clinical signs. What should be your top differential? A) Passalurus ambiguous B) Ctenocephalides delis C) Spilopsyllus cuniculi
A) Passalurus ambiguous
217
What is the most common cause of ear mites in hedgehogs?
Notoedres cati
218
What is the most common cause of ear mites in ferrets?
Otodectes cynotis
219
A guinea pig presents with intense pruritis, alopecia, scales, crusts, and hyperkeratosis. A child in the household is also itchy. What is the most likely diagnosis? A) Sarcoptes scabei B) Trixacarus caviae C) Ornithonyssus bacoti
B) Trixacarus caviae (Most common species of mite seen in guinea pigs)
220
Where are lesions expected to be seen in cases of Ornithonyssus bacoti infection?
Poorly demarcated dorsal alopecia in the neck and midline with pruritis and erythema
221
Facial and perineal crusts in a rabbit are classic signs of what disease?
Treponematosis
222
What fur mites in rabbits will show diffuse scaling/crusting along with papular eruptions on humans in the household?
Cheyletiella parasitovorax , Leporacaris gibbus
223
What should be suspected in a ferret with papular crusted dermatitis involving the tail, ventrum, or medial thighs of ferrets?
Fleas
224
What should be suspected in ferrets with a generalized orange tinted dermatitis with diarrhea and crusting or the face and feet?
Distemper virus
225
Which species can develop epitheliotropic lymphoma?
Ferrets, guinea pigs, hamsters, and rabbits
226
Which neoplasia is associated with lichenification of the front and rear limbs and ventral region in ferrets and guinea pigs?
Epitheliotropic T cell lymphoma
227
Mice with ringworm develop lesions where and what type?
Alopecia, erythema, scaling, and crusting over the face, head, neck, and tail (Trichophyton mentagrophytes)
228
What are expected clinical signs of sebaceous adenitis in rabbits?
Chronic exfoliative dermatitis and patchy alopecia
229
Severe crusting progressive to lichenification is seen in hedgehogs with what disease?
Caparinia tripilis mite infestation Or dermatophyte infection Or both
230
Crusted ulcerative lesions around the lips and nose of a guinea pig can be suggestive of what disease(s)?
Poxvirus or candidiasis
231
What is the average gestation of rabbits?
30 days
232
How long should parturition take in a rabbit?
30 minutes or less
233
How do rabbits obtain immunity from their mother?
Passive transfer transplacental Some antibody transfer in colostrum
234
How often do rabbits nurse their young?
Q24h
235
How much do rabbit kits consume with each feeding?
20% body weight within 3 minutes
236
Do rabbit kits need to be stimulated to urinate?
No
237
When do rabbit kits begin to eat solid food?
Day 12-18
238
What is unique about rabbit milk?
Has bacteriostatic properties with fatty acids that are broken down by gastric lipase. High in protein and fat (15% protein, 10% fat)
239
How do rabbit kits colonize their gut?
Eating the doe’s cecotrophs
240
When does the pH of the rabbit kits stomach change?
At weaning, the gastric pH drastically decreases from 4-6 to less than 2
241
What is the most common inherited disorder of rabbits?
Mandibular prognathism (also known as maxillary brachygnathism) due to an autosomal recessive gene affecting growth of skull bones
242
When do clinical signs of maxillary brachygnathism develop?
3 weeks of age
243
Congenital glaucoma is more common in which rabbit coat color?
Albino breeds - the genes for both traits are located in the same chromosome
244
What is the most common coccidia of rabbits?
Eimeria perforans
245
Why are rabbits less than 19 days old not susceptible to coccidia?
Digestive enzymes in the duodenum are required to break down ingested oocysts and release sporozoites; these enzymes may not be present before the shift in intestinal environment that occurs with weaning
246
What is the only extra-GI Eimeria species in rabbits?
Eimeria stiedae Sporozoites travel into bile duct epithelial cells and proliferate causing bile duct obstruction and hepatic dysfunction
247
248
What does the liver look like in ultrasound of rabbits with Eimeria stiedae?
Diffusely heterogenous with multiple poorly defined, hyperechoic regions and dilated hepatic blood vessels and bile ducts
249
How many species of Eimeria have been implicated in rabbit intestinal coccidiosis?
At least 14
250
What are the two most pathogenic species of intestinal coccidia in rabbits?
Eimeria intestinalis and Eimeria flavescens
251
What is both the most common and least pathogenic Eimeria species of rabbits? A) Eimeria magna B) Eimeria perforans C) Eimeria intestinalis
B) Eimeria perforans
252
Rabbits that recover from Eimeria infection are immune afterwards. A) true B) false C) only to the species they were infected with - there is no cross immunity
C) only to the species they were infected with - there is no cross immunity
253
When is primary bacterial enteritis from E. coli usually seen in neonate rabbits?
Newly weaned rabbits from 4-7 weeks of age, associated with stressors
254
Where does E. coli primarily cause pathology in rabbit kits?
Ileum, cecum, and colon
255
Enterohemorrhagic E. Coli produces what type of toxin?
Shiga toxin
256
What toxin is produced by Clostridia spiriforme?
Iota-like toxin which multiplies rapidly and alters cecal microbiota
257
When is the highest mortality seen for Clostridia spiriforme in rabbit kits?
Newly weaned kits, 3-6 weeks of age
258
What pathologies develop with C. spiriforme infections in rabbit kits?
Severe enteritis and typhlitis with petechiation and hemorrhage within the cecum, appendix, and/or colon.
259
When does C piliforme cause the majority of mortalities in rabbit kits?
Weanling rabbits from 6-8 weeks of age
260
What are pathologic lesions of C piliforme in rabbit kits?
Multifocal hepatic necrosis, mucosal necrosis within the ileum, cecum, and colon (also heart lesions)
261
Rabbit enteric coronavirus carries what morbidity and mortality rate in Weanling rabbits?
Nearly 100% in outbreaks
262
Epizootic rabbit enteropathy is also known as what?
Mucoid enteritis
263
What does epizootic rabbit enteropathy cause?
Major cause of morbidity and mortality in post weaning rabbits; causes anorexia, lethargy, weight loss, mucoid yellow diarrhea, and impaction of the cecum and colon. Mortality rates range from 35-95% in outbreaks and death occurs within 1-3 days. Etiology is unknown.
264
265
Deficiency in what vitamin in young growing rabbits can cause hydrocephalus from defective bone growth and stenosis of the cerebral aqueduct?
Vitamin A
266
Deficiency of what vitamin in young growing rabbits can cause paresis or paralysis from degeneration and necrosis of skeletal muscle myofibers, along with myocardial dysfunction?
Vitamin E
267
Deficiency of what mineral(s) in young growing rabbits causes seizures and poor bone quality?
Magnesium, calcium, and vitamin D
268
Which rodents are precocial?
Guinea pigs, chinchillas, and degus
269
What is the gestation of rats?
21-23 days
270
When can rats start to hear?
9 days
271
When can rat pup eyes open?
14-17 days old; complete development of the eye does not occur until day 60
272
When do rat pup incisors emerge?
6-8 days old
273
When do rat pup molars emerge?
Between 16-34 days
274
When does antibody transfer through colostrum occur in rats
Peaks at 14 days and is complete by 21 days
275
When do rat pup testicles descend?
Day 15
276
Do male rats, mice, or hamsters have nipples?
No
277
When are rat, mice, and hamster pups weaned?
20-21 days
278
When should male rat pups be separated from females?
5 weeks
279
What is the gestation of mice?
19-21 days
280
When do mouse pup eyes open?
Day 12-13
281
When do mice reach puberty?
28-49 days of age
282
What is the gestation of Syrian hamsters?
15-18 days
283
When do Syrian hamster incisors emerge?
Present at birth
284
When do Syrian hamster ears open?
5 days
285
When do Syrian hamster eyes open?
Day 15
286
When can female hamsters become pregnant?
Estrus at 6-8 weeks of age
287
When do female Syrian hamsters need to be separated from each other to prevent aggression?
40-50 days old
288
What is gestation for Chinese hamsters?
20.5 days
289
When do Chinese hamster incisors emerge?
Born with incisors present
290
When do Chinese hamster eyes and ears open?
Day 10-14
291
When do Chinese hamsters testicles descend?
Day 30
292
When do Chinese hamsters become sexually mature and what is the behavioral implication?
They become sexually mature at 8-12 weeks and females need to be separated from each other at that time to prevent aggression
293
What is the gestation for phodopus hamsters?
18 days
294
When do Phodopus hamster eyes open?
10-14 days
295
What is the gestation of gerbils?
24-27 days
296
When do gerbil eyes open?
Day 16-18
297
When does sexual maturity develop in gerbils?
70-84 days in males and 70-90 days in females
298
What is the gestation of guinea pigs?
59-72 days (average of 68 days)
299
How do guinea pigs, chinchillas, and degus transfer antibodies to offspring?
They have a hemomonochorial labyrinthine placenta which transfers antibodies in utero
300
When do guinea pigs start eating solid food?
Within days of birth
301
When do guinea pigs reach sexual maturity?
60 days in females and 90 days in males
302
What is the gestation period for chinchillas?
105-118 days
303
When do chinchillas start eating solid food?
Within 1 week
304
Sexual maturity in chinchillas occurs when?
240-270 days in males, 120-180 days in females
305
What is degu gestation?
87-93 days.
306
When do degu pups begin eating solid food?
As early as 6 days, weaned around 4-6 weeks of age
307
Which rodent species has penile spines?
Degus
308
What type of milk replacer is closest to guinea pig milk?
Cat milk replacer - high in carbs and higher protein than fat levels Need to also supplement vitamin c and ensure young receive adult fecal pellets in food to inoculate intestines with bacteria. Also require anogenital stimulation for first week to permit urination/defecation.
309
How often do orphan guinea pig and chinchillas pups need to be fed?
Every 2 hrs initially, then every 4 hours until weaning
310
What milk replacer is closest to chinchilla milk?
Canine milk replacer with added lactase
311
Degu milk is more or less concentrated than chinchilla or guinea pig milk? A) more B) less C) neither
A) more Milk fat is the main energy source
312
What is the best milk replacer for degu orphans?
Canine milk replacer with added vegetable oil and Lactobacillus
313
Degu juveniles should NOT receive what type of diet?
Chinchilla or guinea pig pelleted diets Need rodent breeder diets in addition to hay
314
What normal husbandry feature should be avoided during chinchilla late pregnancy and lactation?
Dust baths. Predisposes to mastitis
315
316
What is the cause of transmissible murine colonic hyperplasia?
Citrobacter rodentium Can look like Lawsonia intracellularis or E. coli
317
What causes epizootic diarrhea of infant mice (EDIM)?
Mouse rotavirus
318
What causes intestinal coronavirus in mice?
Mouse hepatitis virus
319
Does rotavirus or intestinal coronavirus carry a better prognosis in mice?
Rotavirus is a better prognosis
320
What was the leading cause of mortality in a retrospective study of ranched chinchillas?
Enteritis, with the most common cause being hemolytic E. coli Second most common was pneumonia
321
What opportunistic bacterial disease are degu pups prone to?
pseudomonas infections from contaminated water bottles
322
What are possible complications of infection with Trichomoides crassicauda in rats?
Urolithiasis, pyelitis, or asymptomatic
323
324
What type of congenital heart disease has been documented in neonatal gerbils and degus?
Ventricular septal defect
325
Avascular necrosis of what joint has been reported in young rats?
Femoral head
326
What can reduce the risk of gerbil seizure disorder?
Handling pups during the first 3 months of life, starting at 1 week of age
327
What percentage of time do adult wild sugar gliders spend foraging for food?
55-60% of waking hours
328
What is the metabolic rate of sugar gliders compared to other similarly sized non marsupial mammals?
2/3 of normal mammals
329
What accessory sex glands do male sugar gliders have?
Prostate and 2 paired bulbourethral glands
330
What is the name of the male sugar glider’s scent glands?
The frontal gland (on head) and the gular gland (on ventral neck/chest)
331
How many paracloacal glands do sugar gliders have?
6 (3 pairs)
332
How many teats are in sugar glider’s pouches?
4
333
What is the estrus cycle of sugar gliders?
29 days
334
When do female sugar gliders sexually mature?
8-12 months
335
When do sugar gliders males sexually mature?
12-15 months
336
Do sugar gliders exhibit embryonic diapause?
No
337
What is sugar glider gestation?
15-17 days
338
Do sugar gliders have postpartum estrus?
No
339
What color pattern in sugar gliders is associated with male sterility?
Mosaic
340
When do sugar glider joeys begin to emerge from the pouch?
50-60 days
341
What is a risk of anesthetizing sugar gliders with joeys in the pouch?
Teat detachment
342
How long does it take for sugar glider joeys to be able to thermoregulate?
110 days
343
What is a prognostic indicator for success of hand rearing sugar glider joeys?
Whether or not they are furred (furred joeys have a good prognosis, unfurred joeys have a poor to grave prognosis)
344
What is the best milk replacer for sugar gliders?
Wombaroo, Biolac, and Di-Vetalac Low Lactose milk replacers
345
Which form of lactate is measured by POC devices? A) L-lactate B) D-lactate C) B-lactate
A) L-lactate
346
What tissues produce L-lactate?
RBCs, brain, and skeletal muscles
347
What tissues produce D-lactate?
Bacteria in the gut
348
What are the two categories of lactate elevation?
Hypoxic and non-hypoxic
349
What are some causes of hypoxic lactate elevation?
Obstructive shock (thrombus), cardiogenic shock, distributive shock (anaphylaxis or septic), hypovolemic shock
350
What are causes of non hypoxic lactate elevation?
Liver disease, sepsis, neoplasia, acetominophen toxicity, cyanide exposure, propofol toxicity, disorder of pyruvate metabolism, mitochondrial errors
351
What are normal levels of lactate in mammals?
Less than 2 mmol/L is normal; 2-4 mmol/L is hyperlactatemia; greater than 4 mmol/L with a pH of less than 7.35 is lactic acidosis
352
What is the gold standard sample for lactate analysis?
Arterial blood Venous blood ok to use for monitoring trends
353
Which exotic mammal species is unique in their lactate response and why?
Rabbits that are ill with higher lactate concentrations have higher probability of survival. Suspected to be due to cecotrophy Rabbits also have naturally higher baseline L-lactate levels. L-lactate values in healthy rabbits are 5.1 (+/- 2.1) mmol/L by high-performance liquid chromatography, 6.9 (±2.7) mmol/L with the portable analyser and 7.1 (±1.6) mmol/L with the blood gas analyser.
354
What is a potential iatrogenic cause of lactate elevation?
Collecting samples from venous catheters while administering lactated ringer’s solution
355
Why do lactate values differ in different regions of the body?
Differs with regional perfusion
356
Which clotting factor is produced by both the intrinsic and extrinsic clotting pathways?
Xa Initiator of the common pathway that produces thrombin and fibrin
357
What are common diagnostic tests for hemostatic function?
Platelet counts, prothrombin time (PT), activated thromboplastin time (APTT), fibrinogen degradation product (FDP), D-dimer concentrations, activated coagulation time (ACT), buccal mucosal bleeding time, and viscoelastic-based global hemostasis testing.
358
What are clinical signs of primary hemostatic disorders?
Petechiation, ecchymosis, mucosal hemorrhage, melena, hematochezia, hematuria, and hematomas May present with nonspecific signs such as lethargy, weakness, anorexia, abdominal pain, mucosal pallor, tachycardia, tachypnea, or hypotension.
359
What tube should be used for blood being used in clotting assays?
Citrate anticoagulant (blue tube) Need 1:9 citrate to blood ratio
360
What volume of blood is needed to assess the following? 1) whole blood smear for platelet estimation 2) microhematocrit tube for pcv assessment 3) one micro volume citrate anticoagulant tube for coagulation testing
0.7 mL of blood Citrate tube needs 0.5 mL of blood Ideally collect sample directly into citrate anticoagulant within the syringe at a citrate:blood ration of 1:9
361
What is the most common cause of death in ferrets with estrogen mediated bone marrow toxicity from ovarian remnant syndrome?
Hemorrhage due to thrombocytopenia Adrenal disease less likely to cause this clinical sign
362
What infectious disease may cause coagulopathies in ferrets?
FSCV (vasculitis, DIC, bone marrow infection, intestinal hemorrhage), influenza (coagulation activation and subsequent consumptive coagulopathy)
363
What phlebotomy site should be avoided in ferrets with suspected coagulopathies?
CVC, jugular vein due to risk of serious hemorrhage
364
Rabbits have higher endogenous activity of which clotting pathways? A) intrinsic and common B) extrinsic and intrinsic C) extrinsic and common
A) intrinsic and common
365
Rabbits are more sensitive to what form of DIC?
Endotoxin induced DIC
366
What are common causes of coagulopathy disorders in rabbits?
Liver disorders (LLT, hepatic lipidosis, coccidia hepatitis), benzamidazole toxicity, aflatoxin exposure, RHDV1/2
367
What are common coagulopathies in rodents?
Coagulopathies are rare in rodents, but may be seen with vitamin c deficiencies, and atrial thrombosis in Syrian hamsters
368
Bile acids are a sensitive and specific indicator of liver disease in which small exotic mammals?
Hystricomorph rodents and ferrets (Not rabbits or myomorphic rodents)
369
Which exotic mammal does not have a gallbladder?
Rats
370
Which exotic mammal species have published research on whole blood viscoelastic coagulation testing?
Rats, mice, guinea pigs, and rabbits (Not all methods have been validated for all species)
371
What does whole blood viscoelastic coagulation testing screen for?
Global hemostatic pathways, including clotting factors, cellular contributions, and fibrinolysis Best assessment of coagulation currently available
372
What are potential clinical applications of whole blood viscoelastic coagulation testing based on published data?
Has been used to screen for paraneoplastic hypercoagulable states in rats and rabbits; hypo coagulation due to exposure to hepatoxins in rats; hyper coagulation due to scorpion envenomation in rats; assessment of coagulopathies associated with trauma, hypothermia, hemorrhagic shock, fluid therapy, etc
373
What is the “triad of death” for rats?
Acidosis, hypothermia, and coagulopathy
374
How can capillary refill time most easily be assessed in ferrets?
Paw pads
375
How can type II blocks be identified on ECG?
2 P waves for every QRS complex
376
Too large cuffs result in which abnormality in indirect blood pressure measurement?
Underestimation of actual blood pressure
377
What are beta blockers and calcium channel blockers used for when treating heart disease?
Reduce heart rate and treat supraventricular and ventricular arrhythmias
378
What drugs reduce preload?
Diuretics and nitroglycerin Also ACE inhibitors (reduce both preload and afterload)
379
What drugs reduce after load?
ACE inhibitors (Also reduce preload) Amlodipine
380
What is the treatment for ventricular tachycardia?
IV lidocaine
381
What is the treatment for bradycardia or bradyarrhythmia?
Atropine short term, propantheline long term
382
What is medical treatment for 3rd degree heart block?
Metaproterenol, isoproterenol, pacemaker
383
What is the primary finding in guinea pigs with cardiac disease?
Pericardial effusion +/- cardiac tamponade
384
How much more likely were chinchillas with grade 3 heart murmurs to have echocardiographic abnormalities?
29x
385
What is the prevalence of heart murmurs in chinchillas according to a retrospective study of 260 chinchillas?
23%
386
What is the normal respiratory rate of rabbits?
30-69 bpm
387
What is unique about guinea pig coronary arteries?
Significant collateralization of coronary arteries makes them unlikely to develop myocardial infarction
388
What is the normal respiratory rate of: 1) guinea pigs 2) chinchillas 3) rats
1) guinea pigs 40-120 bpm 2) chinchillas 40-80 bpm 3) rats 71-146 bpm
389
Hypothermic rabbits have a ___x higher risk of mortality compared to normothermic rabbits. A) 2x B) 3x C) 4x
B) 3x
390
Chinchillas are most commonly diagnosed with what heart condition per Jekl et Al 2022?
HCM
391
A 4 month old pot bellied pig was diagnosed with what cause of right sided CHF?
Idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension Pulmonary arterial pressure was 95mmHg on Doppler echocardiography Lungs were rubbery and there was tricavitary effusion
392
What heart disease was diagnosed in a 6 month old neutered male potbellied pig with exertional cyanosis and arterial hypoxemia?
Double outlet right ventricle (congenital disorder) Was euthanized 3 months later
393
What is an essential determinant of fluid flux in mammals?
The endothelial glycocalyx, a gel like layer of molecules that lines the endothelium of blood vessels
394
What forces between the intravascular space/plasma and the subglycocalyx fluid compartment drives fluid flux in mammals?
Starling’s forces (hydrostatic and oncotic pressures)
395
What is the most significant route for fluid to return to systemic circulation in mammals?
Lymphatic system However, plays little to no role in maintaining plasma volume in mammals.
396
Interstitial compliance plays what role in fluid balance of animals?
Controls vascular permeability or leakiness, and is a major determinant of plasma exchange rates
397
Poor perfusion equates to what?
Hypovolemia (low amounts of plasma) Hydration in contrast refers to the level of total body water in all body compartments
398
What is the goal of treating hypovolemic shock?
Quickly re-establish perfusion with resuscitative fluid therapy
399
What are potential deleterious effects of resuscitative fluid therapy?
Thinning of glycocalyx, leading to negative interstitial impacts such as edema and SIRS; high levels of chloride can correlate with higher rates of kidney injury and mortality
400
What dose of fluids induced pulmonary edema in mice?
33-40 mL/kg
401
What percentage of blood volume loss results in hypovolemic shock in mammals?
15-20% blood volume
402
How much water per kg is consumed daily for: 1) rabbits 2) guinea pigs 3) chinchillas
1) rabbits 150 mL/kg/d 2) guinea pigs 200 mL/kg/d 3) chinchillas 120 mL/kg/d
403
How much water per kg body weight do rabbits and guinea pigs have in their GIT?
Rabbits 75 mL/kg; Guinea pigs 100 mL/kg
404
True or false: small mammals may have lost more than their total blood volume in fluid by the time they enter a shock state
True due to GIT fluids
405
Hypertonic saline encourages the mobilization of fluids from the ______ to the ______.
Interstitium, intravascular space
406
What is the ideal fluid for hypovolemic mammals?
Hypertonic saline combined with isotonic crystalloids
407
What is blue ferret syndrome?
Skin obtains a bluish tinge after clipping fur - resolved in weeks without treatment
408
Where are ferret sweat glands located?
Paw pads only
409
Where can Otodectes cynotis mites be found in addition to ear canals?
Perineum
410
Is SQ or intra-aural ivermectin more effective at treatment of Otodectes cynotis in ferrets?
Intraural Must have an intact tympanic membrane to use this treatment
411
What are the two clinical forms of Sarcoptes scabei in ferrets?
Pedal (alopecic, swollen feet, with dark brown scabs, and sloughed claws) and generalized (intense pruritis and alopecia of the face, pinnate, and ventrum)
412
True or false: sarcoptes scabei can be fatal in ferrets
True
413
What species of Demodex may infect ferrets?
Demodex canis and Demodex criceti Usually no clinical signs
414
What fur mite can cause ulcerative facial lesions in ferrets?
Lynxacarus mustelae
415
What is the cause of migratory myiasis in ferrets?
Hypoderma bovis Causes granulomatous masses and sinuses in the cervical region
416
What is the cause of furuncular myiasis in ferrets?
Cuterebra
417
Is migratory or furuncular myiasis more common in ferrets?
Furuncular (cuterebra)
418
What is wound related myiasis caused by?
Wohlfahrtia vigil Flesh fly larvae
419
What is a zoonotic vector borne protozoal disease transmitted through sandflies?
Leishmania infantum Diagnosed in ferrets, rabbits, and rodents
420
What does cutaneous leishmaniasis cause in ferrets?
Inflammatory, erythematous, papular, nonpruritic skin lesions with local lymph node enlargement and splenomegaly
421
How is leishmaniasis diagnosed?
Identification of amastigotes in infected macrophages and multinucleate giant cells on cytologic, histopathologic, IHC, PCR, or western blot of skin biopsies or ELISA of IgG antibodies
422
What is the recommended treatment for leishmaniasis in ferrets?
Meglumine antimoniate with allopurinol, or miltefosine with allopurinol
423
What dermatophytes are known to cause disease in ferrets?
T. Mentagrophytes or M. Canis/nanum
424
What is the cause of pseudomycetomas in ferrets?
Fungal infection into the dermis and SQ/adipose tissue (dermatophytes)
425
What is the cause of mucormycosis in ferrets?
Absidia corymbifera - secondary to Otodectes cynotis infection Causes intense pruritis (unlike the mite infection) and can spread to inner ear to cause granulomatous meningoencephalitis. Can also see Malassezia species which causes pustular dermatitis with hyperkeratosis and alopecia.
426
Inhalation of Cryptosporidiosis spores causes what in ferrets?
Rhinitis, pneumonia, lymphatic/hematogenous spread leading to meningoencephalitis, abscessed lymph nodes, and fungal nodules on internal organs Dermal presentations include erythematous, scaly, pruritic rash on the ridge of the nose and cutaneous masses (more common in ferrets than other species!!!)
427
What does infection with Blastimyces dermatitidis in ferrets cause?
Systemic neurologic and pulmonary disease +/- ulcerative nonhealing lesions on the skin and footpads Transmitted from Sandy acidic soil near water
428
What did infection with Candida parapsilosis cause in a ferret?
Necrotizing encephalitis, lymphadenitis, and ulcerative/perivascular dermatitis
429
What is erythema multiforme?
Autoimmune disease reported only in ferrets with concurrent adrenal disease Nonpruritic erythema, papules, and crusts in inguinal region spreading to extremities Immunosuppressive treatment may relieve signs.
430
What is pemphigus foliaceus in ferrets?
An autoimmune disease that causes fluid accumulation between keratinocytes, causing pustules and yellow brown skin crusts on the mouth, nose, chin, eyes, prepuce, and foot pads. Immunosuppressive treatment is warranted
431
What anchors hedgehog spines to the mantle?
A basal bulb
432
Where are Caparinia mites commonly found on hedgehogs?
Face, head, behind ears, and around eyes
433
What is the distinguishing feature of Caparinia tripilis mites?
3 long setae on the 3rd pair of legs (“3 on 3”, tripilis) and bell shaped tarsal suckers
434
What species have been diagnosed with epitheliotropic T cell lymphoma?
Ferrets, guinea pigs, hamsters, hedgehogs, rabbits
435
What are clinical signs of Sarcoptes infection in potbellied pigs?
Intense pruritis, generalized erythema, yellow crusty exudates on the ears, dorsum, ventrum, and legs
436
What is the rabbit ear mite? A) Psoroptes cuniculi B) Spilopsyllus cuniculi C) Otodectes cynotis
A) Psoroptes cuniculi
437
What insect is an important vector for myxomatosis?
Rabbit flea, Spilopsyllus cuniculi
438
What non-burrowing mite of rabbits commonly causes mild to severe scaly dermatosis?
Cheyletiella parasitovorax Less commonly, Lepoacarus gibbus Both potentially zoonotic
439
What respiratory sign may be seen with venereal spirochetosis in rabbits?
Sneezing was observed in 33% of cases with nasal lesions - Treponema paraluiscuniculi is the organism of concern
440
What species can develop epitheliotropic T cell lymphoma?
Ferret, guinea pig, hamster, hedgehog, rabbit
441
What are clinical signs of Sebaceous adenitis?
Multifocal alopecia, erythema, follicular casts, and scaling
442
What is a reported iatrogenic cause of dermatitis and self mutilation in 4 sugar gliders?
Microchip implantation Treatment was successful in 75% of cases, one fatality
443
What is a disease that causes alopecia and lacerations in the lumbosacral spine of capybaras and why does it develop?
Stress dermatosis or dermatitis; related to stress/high population density and possible intraspecific aggression
444
What parasitic skin infection is potentially fatal in capybaras?
Sarcoptes scabei
445
What is a reported cause of necrotic dermatitis of the ventrum in prairie dogs?
Developed after routine cystocentesis… cause not identified, some proposed causes included hypersensitivity to isopropyl alcohol, escaped urine, or prolonged heat exposure on water blankets and heat packs
446
Name some burrowing mites.
Sarcoptes scabei, Trixacarus caviae, Notoedres cati, Otodectes cynotis
447
Name some blood feeding ectoparasites.
Ornithonyssus bacoti, fleas (Ctenocephalides felis/canis, Spilopsyllus cuniculi, etc), ticks
448
What form of phosphate binds calcium, iron, and zinc, affecting their absorption and digestion?
Phytate
449
Which of the following should be used to measure copper levels? A) whole blood B) plasma C) serum
B) plasma May elevate with stress
450
What is the most common reason for elevated magnesium?
Hemolysis
451
When should parenteral nutrition be considered?
If the clinician is unable to meet 50% of the resting energy requirements with enteral methods alone.
452
What happens when an animal suffers from refeeding syndrome?
Life threatening hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, and/or hypomagnesemia within days of resuming eating
453
What is the maximum percent body weight that should be fed to mammals at risk for refeeding syndrome at the onset of supportive feedings?
1-1.5% body weight
454
L-lactate that is <3.3 mmol/L for more than 24 hours carries a ____ prognosis in rabbits compared to an L-lactate of 6 mmol/L.
Worse
455
Sodium levels that are persistently <129 meq/L are associated with ____ outcomes in rabbits.
Poor
456
BUN >24.74 in an anorexic rabbit carries a ___x higher odds of not surviving within 15 days of presentation, compared to a BUN
3x higher odds of death
457
Which exotic mammal species have been reported to develop diabetes insipidus?
Rats and rabbits
458
What species will become naturally polydipsic if food is restricted?
Gerbils
459
TRH and TSH stimulation testing has been reported in which species?
Rats, mice, ferrets, and guinea pigs
460
What side effects were seen in ferrets undergoing TRH stimulation testing?
Hyperventilation, salivation, vomiting, and sedation Use TSH stimulation testing in this species instead when possible since side effects not seen with this test.
461
Which exotic mammal species is most prone to thyroid disease?
Guinea pigs Up to 3.6% incidence of thyroid neoplasia (mostly hyperthyroid, only one report of hypothyroid)
462
A cabbage based diet for 2-3 months caused what disease to develop in rabbits?
Goiter
463
Do ferrets tend to get hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism?
Hypothyroidism (report in 7 ferrets)
464
Which exotic species is prone to euthyroid sick syndrome?
Rabbits
465
What exotic mammals are prone to diabetes?
Degus, gerbils, chinchillas, chinese hamsters, and ferrets (iatrogenic) Has also been reported in guinea pigs and rarely in rabbits
466
Which exotic mammals can produce exogenous vitamin D following exposure to artificial uvb light?
Guinea pigs, chinchillas, rats, and rabbits
467
The cecum of rabbits is in the: A) right abdomen B) left abdomen C) mid abdomen
A) right abdomen
468
The cecum of guinea pigs is in the: A) right abdomen B) central left abdomen C) central right abdomen
B) central left abdomen
469
Where is the majority of rabbit gastrointestinal lymphoid tissue located?
Sacculus rotundus at the ileocecal junction
470
How many jejunal lymph nodes do ferrets have?
1 very large jejunal lymph node
471
What can be mistaken for uterine horns on male guinea pig ultrasound?
Paired seminal vesicles
472
What are limitations of higher frequency ultrasound probes?
Decreased depth penetration which is contrasted with the improved spatial resolution
473
What does splenic neoplasia usually look like in ferrets on ultrasound?
Mottled Swiss cheese echogenicity
474
What are ultrasonic characteristics of abscesses in rabbits?
May not appear liquid on ultrasound due to caseated nature - color Doppler can help diagnose
475
What is currently the most common bladder stone type in ferrets?
Cysteine In 2007, only made up 15% of submissions From 2010-2018, 93% of submissions were cysteine stones
476
What surgical procedure was performed to treat a struvite urolith that was obstructing the ureter of a ferret and causing hydronephrosis?
Ureteroneocystotomy (ureter detachment and reattachment to the bladder). Ferret recovered well and the hydronephrosis and hydroureter had resolved 3 weeks postop.
477
What technique was used in 4 ferrets to remove lower urinary tract stones?
Percutaneous cystolithotomy All were cysteine stones, and 3/4 survived to discharge
478
What renal disorder is associated with Aleutian disease in ferrets?
Membranous glomerulonephritis
479
What are the most productive tissues to examine for distemper virus in ferrets?
Urinary bladder, renal pelvis, and biliary epithelium
480
What is the most common renal neoplasm of ferrets?
Lymphoma
481
What clinical signs are associated with polypoid cystitis in rabbits?
Perineal scalding, urinary sludge, and hematuria.
482
What is the most common renal lesion in hamsters?
Amyloidosis
483
What temperature monitoring method had good agreement with digital rectal thermometer readings in ferrets?
Human infrared auricular thermometer on dorsal skin
484
What depth of rectal insertion is required to get an accurate rectal temperature in chinchillas?
2 cm
485
What species of salmonella have been diagnosed in APH?
S. typhimurium, tilene, and enteritica ser. Stanley
486
What percentage of fecal samples in wild APH are positive for salmonella?
96%
487
What was the most common cause of death in a captive population of adult Pygmy rabbits in the Pacific Northwest? A) Francisella tularensis B) Mycobacterium avium C) Pasteurella multocida
B) Mycobacterium avium Prolonged illness characterized by weight loss, anemia, and dyspnea secondary to granulomatous pneumonia. ***lactation was seen in non-pregnant does - unique clinical sign!
488
What unique clinical sign was seen in adult Pygmy rabbits infected with Mycobacterium avium?
Lactation in non-pregnant does
489
The modified Glasgow Coma Scale is used to prognosticate outcomes initially and serially for animals with traumatic brain injuries. What categories are evaluated?
Motor activity, brainstem reflexes, and level of consciousness (each category scored 1-6, with lower scores indicating more severe neuro disease) Dogs with a score less than or equal to 8 at admission have a 50% probability of survival.
490
One study combined the MGCS, FOUR score, and another coma recovery scale used in human medicine to characterize behavior in rats during coma induction and recovery. What is this scale called?
The Turbingen-Boston Rat Coma Scale Assesses eye blink, motor function (reflexive and purposeful), brainstem reflexes (pupillary, corneal, and pinna), respiration patterns, righting reflex, auditory responses, and whisper movement to track recovery from traumatic injury.
491
What is the impact of hyperglycemia on rat outcomes in models of ischemic brain injury?
Hyperglycemia carries a negative prognosis
492
Why is weight loss not the best way to assess pain in ferrets?
Ferrets undergo seasonal body changes including weight gain of 30-40% in autumn and winter
493
In a study of behavioral responses associated with tooth pulp inflammation in ferrets, what was the most significant behavioral change indicative of pain?
Ipsilateral tongue protrusion towards the affected side
494
Why is food consumption not always a good marker of whether or not pain is occurring?
Some analgesics can reduce food consumption and some can cause pica
495
What is the nest consolidation test?
Measures a mouse’s ability to retrieve 4 pieces of nesting material, consolidate them, and shred them to build a nest. Measures natural behavior expresssion, mobility, and neurologic capacity.
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