1
Q
When Imaging the kidneys in lpo and RPO which kidney is parallel and which kidney is perpendicular and are they supine or prone
A
They would be supine, and the kidney closest is perpendicular and the kidney farthest is parallel
2
Q
Which of the following conditions is seen primarily in children?
Polycystic kidney disease, renal calculus, wilms tumor, renal cysts
A
Wilms tumor
3
Q
The procedure used to evaluate biliary and pancreatic pathologic conditions with an endoscope is called what
A
ERCP
4
Q
What is ulcerative colitis
A
A severe inflammation of the colon and rectum with loss of mucosal lining
5
Q
A
6
Q
What is pyloric stenosis
A
Narrowing of the sphincter at the distal end of the stomach
7
Q
What is diverticula
A
Pouch like herniations of the colonic wall
8
Q
What is adynamic ileus
A
A bowel obstruction caused by immobility of the bowel
9
Q
What procedure do you do so you can visualize pyloric stenosis
A
Upper GI series
10
Q
How does annular carcinoma appear on a barium enema exam
A
An apple core pattern
11
Q
True or false ileus can be adynamic or mechanical
A
True
12
Q
In Crohn’s disease what portions of the bowel are inflamed and is it chronic or acute
A
Anywhere; chronic
13
Q
What does an ileus involve
A
Intestinal obstruction
14
Q
What prohection provides the best study of the paranasal sinuses
A
Upright lateral (keyword sinus not bones)
15
Q
True or false, for the axial lateral oblique projection of the mandible the image receptor needs to be centered half an inch anterior and 1 in inferior to the affected side’s EAM
A
True
16
Q
What is the positioning of the MSP and oml in relation to the IR during the parietocanthiel Waters protection
A
Msp is perpendicular to the ir, the headrests on the chin, and the oml forms a 37° angle with the plane of the image receptor
17
Q
For direct PA projection of the school where is the central ray directed
A
Perpendicular to the ir, exiting the nazion when the oml is perpendicular to the IR
18
Q
What type of patients is osteoporosis most often seen in
A
female and elderly patients
19
Q
What is Paget disease
A
Causes bone deconstruction and unorganized bone repair and is difficult to penetrate
20
Q
What is the characterizations of rickets disease
A
Soft bones resulting from deficiency of vitamin D and sunlight
21
Q
What type of breathing should be used for The Rao position of the sternum, and what type of generator should be avoided
A
Shallow breathing, and falling load generator
22
Q
Where is the IR placed and the central Ray directed for an AP projection of the ribs above the diaphragm
A
The IR is placed one to two inches above the shoulders, and the central Ray is directed to t7
23
Q
What Progressive condition is marked by diminished capabilities of inspiration and expiration
A
COPD
24
Q
What condition should not be imaged using aec
Emphysema, copd, atelectasis, bronchiogenic carcinoma
A
Emphysema
25
Why is emphysema easier for x-rays to penetrate
Because air is trapped in the alveoli
26
What is atelectasis and is it easier or hard to penetrate
Harder to penetrate, and is a collapse of lung tissue
27
What lung conditions are easy to penetrate, and what are hard?
Easy - emphysema
Hard- atelectasis, bronchogenic carcinoma, COPD
28
What type of cone device can be used to reduce the production of scatter radiation in a lateral projection of L5 to S1
Cylinder cone
29
Where is the CR for a lateral projection of L5 to S1 and are the knees and hips extended or flexed
The CR is centered on a coronal plane 2 in posterior to the Asis and one and a half inches inferior to the iliac crest
The hips and knees are extended
30
What is the Jefferson fracture
fracture of the Ring of the atlas that involves both anterior and posterior arches and causes displacement of the fragments
31
What is spondylolysis
The defect in the pars articularus
32
What is spina bifida
A defect of the posterior aspect of the spinal canal caused by failure of the vertebral Arch to form properly
33
What is the hangman fracture caused by
Hyperextension of the head on the neck and a fracture of the arch of C2
34
The hangman fracture is commonly seen in what type of injury
Motor vehicle accidents
35
What is the central Ray for an AP production of the hip
Directed 2.5 in distal on a line drawn perpendicular to the midpoint of a line between the symphys and the Asis
36
How far medially is the lower leg rotated for an AP projection of the femur
15°
37
For tangential projection of the patella what of the following statements are true:
The patient is prone
The affected knee is flexed so that the tibia and fibula form a 50 to 60° angle with the table
The central Ray is directed 45° cephalid through the patella femoral joint
The tangential patella projection may also be performed with the patient's supine
All of the above
38
Where does the central ray enter for a lateral knee projection
The knee joint inferior to the medial epicondyle
39
True or false, the tibia and fibula should be superimposed for a lateral tip FIB x-ray
False
40
True or false the tib FIB x-ray can be performed tabletop or Bucky
True
41
True or false the base of the third metatarsal is the same as saying the head of the metatarsal
False
42
What is a trimaleolar fracture
A condition that involves the posterior portion of the tibia and the medial and lateral malleoli
43
What is the pott fracture
The medial and lateral malleoli of the ankle are fractured with ankle joint dislocation
44
In a PA axial projection of the clavicle what is the angle
20 to 30 degrees caudad
45
For an AP projection of the AC joints how do you show separation properly?
Separate images must be acquired with equal weights attached to both wrists and images taken without weights as well
46
True or false, the patient continue shallow breathing during exposure for a scapular y
False
47
True or false, the anterior surface of the affected shoulder is centered to the IR during a scap y
True
48
For an AP projection of the elbow the central Ray is directed perpendicular to the Joint true or false
True
49
True or false for an AP projection of the elbow the hand must be pronated
False
50
True or false the patient may have to lean laterally to ensure AP alignment for an AP elbow
True
51
True or false the four arm and humorous should be parallel to the table in an AP projection of the elbow
True
52
True or false the humeral epicondies are placed perpendicular to the IR in a lateral projection of the humerus
True
53
True or false the central Ray is directed perpendicular to the midshaft of the humerus in a humerous lateral projection
True
54
True or false in a lateral projection of the forearm the elbow should be flexed 45°
False
55
True or false for lateral projection of the forearm the thumb should be relaxed
False
56
Intravenous urography is being replaced by what Imaging modality
CT
57
True or false, indications for myelography include herniated introverbial discs, space occupying lesions, and degenerative diseases of the CNS
True
58
True or false, in mylography injection is always performed at the L3 to L4 interspace
False
59
True or false, spinal fluid maybe withdrawn for laboratory analysis during a myelography
True
60
Which of the following statements are true regarding contrast arthrography?
Asepsis is required
The exam may be performed on me, shoulder, tmj, hip, and wrist
Indications include trauma, capsular damage, meniscal tears, rupture of ligaments, and arthritis
The joint is manipulated by hand to distribute contrast medium
All of the above
61
Which body habit is considered an average build, present in about 35% of the population?
Hyposthenic
62
What is the Hypersthenic body type
Massive build,
represents 5% of the population,
thorax is Broad and deep,
ribs are almost horizontal,
thoracic cavity is shallow
, lungs are short and narrow,
hardest short and wide, diaphragm is high,
stomach and gallbladder are high and horizontal
63
What is the sthenic body type, and how much of the population does it represent
Slight modification of hypersthenic
Most common body habitus
Present in 50% of the population
64
Hyposthenic body type
Between asthenic and sthenic,
Present in 35% of the population
(Not fat but not skinny=me)
65
Asthenic body type and percent of the population
Slender build
Present in 10% of population
Thorax is narrow and shallow
Ribs slope sharply downward
Colon is low, at median position
Stomach and gallbladder are low, vertical, and near the midline
Thoracic cavity is long
Diaphragm is low, and abdominal cavity is short
Heart is long and narrow
66
What factors require exposure modification
Age, pathology, Imaging conditions such as mobile and cross table, and body habitus
67
What is a fossa
A pit
68
What is a Groove
A furrow
69
What is a sulcus
Synonymous with Groove
70
What is a sinus depression
Cavity within a bone
71
What is a foramen
Opening
72
What is a meatus
Tube like
73
What is a process
The prominence or projection
74
What is a spine projection
Sharp prominence
75
What is a tubercle
Rounded projection
76
What is a tuberosity
Larger rounded protection
77
What is a trochanter
Very large bony prominence
78
What is a crest
The ridge
79
What is a condyle
Round process of an articulating bone
80
What is the head projection
Enlargement at end of bone
81
What are the nine regions of the abdomen
The upper regions are the right and left hypochondrium with the middle being the epigastrium
The middle regions are the right and left lumbar, and the middle being the umbilical
The inferior regions are the right iliac and left iliac and the hypogastrium is in the middle
82
What is the diaphysis and epiphysis
Central shaft is the diaphysis
and the epiphysis is located at both ends of the diaphysis
83
What bones is red bone marrow found in
Spongy bones of adults or the sternum, ribs, vertebrae, proximal epiphysis of long bones
84
What does bone marrow contain
Blood vessels and blood cells and it fills the spaces of spongy bone
85
What is fatty marrow
It replaces red bone marrow in adults except in areas already mentioned
86
What are the different types of bones with examples
Long bones - femur humerus
Short - wrist ankle
Flat - ribs scapula
Irregular - vertebrae sesamoids
87
How many bones are in the human body and how many do infants start with
206, infants start with 270 but they fuse together as
88
How many bones are in the axial and appendicular skeleton
The axial skeleton is composed of 74 bones and is made of the school, hyoid bone, vertebral column, sternum and ribs
The appendicular skeleton is made of 126 bones and is everything attached to the axial skeleton and the six bones in the auditory ossicles
89
What type of joints are synarthrosis
Fibrous and they are almost indirect contact with limited movement (skull)
90
91
What is a cartilaginous joint
Amphiarthrosis, no joint cavity, bones United by cartilage and ligaments, slightly movable, and example is the pubic symphys and interval discs
92
What are diarthritic joints
Synovial joints, freely movable, bone surface is covered with cartilage, with a capsule examples are
Hinge, pivot, saddle, ball and socket, gliding, condyloid
93
What is a condyloid joint
Permits movement in two directions at right angles to one another, circumduction occurs but rotation does not
Example would be the radiocarpal joints
94
What is a saddle joint
Opposing surfaces are concable or convex allowing flexion, extension, adduction and abduction
95
What are the three types of skull morphologies
Mesocephalic skull - petrous ridge 47° angle with MSP, typical
Brachycephalic skull - Petrus ridge forms a 54° angle with the MSP, short from front to back, brought from side to side, shallow from vertex to base
Delichocephalic skull - Petrus ridge forms a 40° angle with msp, long from front to back, narrow from side to side, deep from vertex to base
96
What is club foot
Congenital malformation of the foot that causes the foot to turn in at the ankle
97
What is acromegaly
Endocrine disorder that causes bones to become thick and coarse
98
What is ankylosing spondylitis
Inflammatory disease of the spine and adjacent structures that causes severe pain and fusion of the joints
99
What is a callus
New bony deposit surrounding healing fractures and is harder to penetrate
100
Congenital hip anomaly
Caused by malformation of the acetabulum in which the femoral head displaces superiorly and posteriorly
101
Disc herniation
Protrusion of an intervertebral disc
102
Ewing's sarcoma
Malignant, destructive tumor of bone marrow which makes it easier to penetrate
103
What is a complete fracture
Discontinuity between two or more fragments
104
What is an incomplete fracture
Partial discontinuity
105
What is a closed fracture
Overlying skin is intact
106
What is a compound fracture
Overlying skin is broken, bony fragments
107
What is a transverse fracture
Runs at right angle to the long axis of the bone
108
What is an oblique fracture
Runs at approximately at 45° angle to the long axis of the bone
109
What is a spiral fracture
Circles the shaft of the bone
110
What is an avulsion fracture
Small fragments of bone torn off bony prominences
111
What is a comminuted fracture
Produces more than two fragments
112
What is the compression fracture
Causes compaction of the bone, resulting in decreased length or width
113
What is the stress fracture
Results from repeated stress is placed on the bone
114
What is a pathologic fracture
Fracture from disease
115
What is a Bowing fracture
Occurs when stress is applied to the Bone causes the bone to Bow but not fracture completely
116
What is an undisplaced fracture
Lack of angulation or separation of fractured bone
117
What is angulation of a fracture
Deformity of the axis of major fragments of bone
118
What is subluxation
Partial loss of continuity in a joint
119
What is fracture healing seen as in a radiograph
Calcium deposits across the fracture line that unites the fracture fragments
120
What is battered child syndrome
Multiple fractures at various stages of healing located in the long bones in the skull also characterized by fractures at unusual sites
121
What is a Colles fracture
Transverse fracture through the distal radius with posterior angulation and overriding of the distal fracture fragment
122
What is a boxer fracture
Transverse fracture of neck of the fifth metacarpal with Palmer angulation of the distal fragment
123
What is an elbow
In addition to bony involvement, image shows dislocation of elbow fat pads
124
Pot fracture definition
Fracture of medial and lateral malleoli of the ankle with ankle joint dislocation
125
What is a bimalleolar fracture
Fracture of both medial and lateral malleoli
126
What is a tri-malleolar fracture
Fracture of the posterior portion of the tibia and the medial and lateral malleoli
127
What is a seat belt fracture
Transverse fracture of lumbar vertebrae in addition to substantial abdominal injuries
128
What is a hangman fracture
Fracture of the arch of C2 and anterior subluxation of C2 onto C3
129
What is what is giant cell myeloma
Benign or malignant tumor arising on bone with large bubble appearance that is easier to penetrate
130
Is gout harder or easier to penetrate
Harder
131
132
What is multiple myeloma
Malignancy of plasma cells resulting in destruction of bone, failure of bone marrow, and impairment of renal function and is easier to penetrate
133
What is osteoblastic metastases
Dense, sclerotic tumors in bone
134
What is osteochondroma
Benign projection of bone in the Young
135
What is osteogenic sarcoma
Destructive cancer at the end of long bones that is easier to penetrate unless it's in a sclerotic area
136
What is osteoma and is it easy to penetrate
It is hard to penetrate and is a benign small round tumor
137
What is osteogenesis imperfecta
Inherited condition causing poor development of connective tissue and brittle, easily fractured bones
138
What is osteomyelitis and is it easier to penetrate
It is easier to penetrate and it is an infection of the bone and bone marrow
139
What is osteolytic metastases
Arise in medullary canal l to destroy bone that is easier to penetrate
140
What is osteomalacia
Abnormal softening of bone
141
What is osteopetrosis
Inherited condition causing increased bone density
142
What is rheumatoid arthritis
Destructive collagen disease with inflammation and joint swelling that is harder to penetrate
143
What is spondylolisthesis
Spondylosis with displacement
144
How many pairs of ribs are there and how many are floating or false
12 pairs, 8 9 and 10 are false and 11 and 12 are floating
145
What skull xray is best for nasal bones
Caldwell
146
What skull xrays show all sinuses
waters open mouth and lateral skull
147
eval criteria for townes view and CR angle
foramen magnum has the posterior clinoid, dorsm sellae, and petrous pyramids within
30 degrees caudad
148
where are the petrous ridges in a caldwell view and what is the CR for caldwell
15 degrees
petrous pyramids 1/3 bottom of orbits
149
where is CR and petrous ridges in AP / PA skull
horizontal, and filling orbits
150
Cr and petrous ridges for Waters
CR horizontal exiting acanthion
petrous ridges immediately below maxillary sinus
151
SMV CR and what it's for or what should be seen
CR entering MSP 1 in anterior to EAM with IOML parallel to board
zygomatic arches free of superimposition
152
tangential zygomatic bone positioning
| what other positions can be used for zygo
MSP perpendicular to IR (LIKE SMV) and chin tilted 15 degrees toward the side of interest
CR and IR centered to arch of interest
| towne and waters
153
mandible CR and positioning
| PA body/rami axiolateral oblique body/rami/symphysis
PA body/rami - nose and chin to board / nose and forehead to board *cr exit lips*
axiolateral oblique - ramus (head in true lat, CR angle 25 deg ceph) Body (rotate face down so MSP is 30 degrees toward IR, 25 deg ceph) Symphysis (MSP 45 degrees with IR, 25 deg ceph)
154
TMJ schuller method
| what can this and Law also be used to see?
25-30 deg caudad exiting dependant TMJ and entering 1inch anterior and 2 in superior to elevated EAM
do one image with jaw closed and another with jaw open
| mastoid cells
155
TMJ law method
| what 3rd view usually used for skull can be used for TMJ?
center at effected TMJ 1/2 in anterior to EAM with effected TMJ against board
second image with mouth open
CR 15 degrees caudad
| Townes
156
What skull xray is best for orbits
waters and caldwell, have them ove eyes around to see if something is in them
157
describe pharynx, larynx, epiglottis, nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx
larynx is voicebox in trachea, eppiglottis is the blocker of food into trachea, pharnyx is made of naso, oro, and laryngo
158
CR for lordotic chest xray and what degree do they lean back
15-20 degrees
3-4 inches below jug notch
159
for lateral views, should the marker be placed anterior or posterior to the patient
anterior
160
pleaural effusion
plueral effusion is when fluid collects in the pleural space
161
ap/lateral soft tissue neck SID
72 in
162
in the lungs, do the vascular portion of the lungs appear thinner in the superior or inferior portion of the lungs
superior
163
What is the recommended Sid for a lateral erect radiograph of the sternum
72 in
164
Dorsal decubitus xray position and cr
Cr 2 in superior to crest, position supine cr horizontal
165
What would you use a sponge for in a lateral decubitus
Prop pt up above IR bottom
166
Ulnar/radius deviation rotates hand toward or away from uln/raf
Toward, deviated TOWARD uln/rad
No angle on these xrays
167
Gaynor hart xray of the wrist is what angle and position and what doez it demonstrate
Carpal tunnel
25-30°
Cr base of 3rd metacarp/center palm
Hand flexed back with anter of wrist on ir and them holding their own fingers back
168
Partial flexion humerus AP (rock horse)
Cr at elbow joint
Take one picture with arm as extended and AP as possible and humerus flat on IR, then same with Forearm flat on IR
No angle on CR
169
Coil method trauma axial lateral of the radial head (elbow)
Position and eval crit
Cr angled 45° toward elbow and centered at elbow
Arm bent to 90° with hand NOT on its side
Demonstrates radial head and capitulum free of superimposition and open joint and trochlea
170
Trauma axiolateral elbow for the coronoid process positioning angle and what it sees
45° angle away from elbow center at elbow
Same positioing for radial head, arm 90° and hand pronated
Will see coronoid and trochlea and humeroulnar joint open
171
In PA finger does the entire metacarpal need be included
No
172
Transthoracic lat humerus position and CR and eval crit
Stand/lying down with affect side closest arm up over head that is not effected
Cr 0° centered to coronal plane at surgical neck of injured arm (use uninjured arm to center while doing exam)
Breathe normally to blur
Proximal humerus only in xray and greater trochanter in profile
173
When internally rotated, is the Lesser or greater trochanter seen in profile on the humerus
Lesser
174
Callmation for an exam of the forearm must be adjusted to include what parts of the humerus and the wrist
The first row of carpals and the distal humerus
175
In lateral wrist what is the eval crit
Radius and ulna superimposed distally, and the bases of the second through 5th metacarpals should be superimposed
176
What is the angulation for a scaphoid view of the wrist
15 to 20° towards the elbow
177
What is the difference in flexion and extension of the wrist
Extension is when the fingers go posterior and flexion is when the fingers come anterior
178
Eval crit for scap y SHOULDER and cR and pt angle
Pt body oblique body 45-60° so scap is perpendic
CR 0° at scapular humeral joint
Shoulder scap Y has humeral shaft and scap body sumperimposed, humeral head and glenoid superimposed
179
Inferosuperior axial shoulder (Lawrence) Radiograph
CR 30-15° angle with horizontal angle
Pt lying supine and arm abducted 90° and hand supinated
10×12
Centered at axilla like axial
Eval - scaphumero joint open and lesser tubercle in profile, and coracoid point anteriorly
180
Clements nakayama view trauma hip inferior superior
Supine pt NO MOVE LEG KEEP LEGS STRAIGHT AND FLAT
15° posterior view, horizontal beam, CR at femoral neck
Eval- hip joint, head, neck, and trochanters
181
Centering for bilat AC joint and SID
72"in
Center at jug notch
17×6 in
182
Center and position and eval for scapula AP
Arm up and over head ontop of cranium after hand is anatomically positioned
CR 2 in infer to coracoid/top IR 2in above shoulder
Lateral border of scap free of ribs
Acromion and inferior angle visualized
183
Center and position and eval for lat scapula
Injured closest to IR
Turn body 45-60° so scapyla is 90° to IR
CR at medial scapula (if pa, if ap lateral)
Arm up so hand is ob opposite shoulder
Eval- humeral shaft not on scapula, lat and medial scap borders superimposed not superimposed by ribs
184
If there's a Hypershenic patient getting a clavicle x-ray, and you are getting the axial clavicle radiograph how far would you angle the beam?
15°
185
Axiolateral trauma hip danelius miller xray
Supine pt uninjured leg up, xray shot medial-lateral
horizontal beam perpendicular to fem neck, CR at femoral neck
Eval- hip joint, acetabulum head, neck, and trochanters
186
Outlet pelvis angle and CR
20-35 for men
30-45 for women
Cephalic
1-2 inches superior to pubic symphysis superior border
187
Inlet pelvis cr and angle
40° caudal
Center at ASIS
SID 40"
188
What is the ilium and the ischium and the pubis
Iliac crest inside = ilium
Ichium = sits bone or bottom ob foramen
Pubis = top obturator foramen
189
A technologist is taking a radiograph of an Antero posterior projection of the hip. Using the center point of the a interior superior iliac spine and pubic symphysis as landmarks to create an imaginary plane, how far distally is the central ray directed?
2.5 in
190
What are Savannah articulates with the third metatarsal
Lateral cuneiform
191
What is the proper procedure for turning a disabled patient on an X-ray table
Turn the patient toward you
192
Out of the lungs, soft tissue, and Bone which areas are most likely to be saturated on a digital image
Lungs and soft tissue
193
In order for the computer accurately locate the appropriate anatomy, the part must be centered to the cassette and at least how many sides of collimation must be detected
3
194
A bankart lesion is associated with what Anatomy
Glenoid cavity
195
What is log rolling
A method that moving patients with a suspected vertebral column injury that maintains spinal alignment
196
Ap oblique judet method of the acetabulum how is the pt positioned
Angled 45° affected side down supine
197
What is the functional tissue of the lungs
The alveoli
198
What is the order of blood flow in the heart
199
What is varicella and what is its procedures for transmission
Airborne and contact procedures, varicella is chicken pox
200
If a patient holds their breath during an L spine x-ray should they hold it on inspiration or expiration
Expiration
201
What type of bones are phalanges
Long bones
202
Review bone Anatomy and types
Please
203
Review fracture types and Joint types don't forget fractures in children including the fractures of the growth plate
204
If you were to remove it and stretch it out how long would the average adult small intestine be
22 to 23 ft
205
What type of shock could result from a pulmonary embolus
Obstructive
206
What part of the inner ear is responsible for equilibrium
Semicircular canals
207
What medication is used to treat nausea and vomiting called
Antiemetic
208
What anatomic structures are retroperitoneal
S – Suprarenal gland (Adrenal glands)
A – Abdominal aorta
D – Duodenum (2nd–4th parts)
P – Pancreas (except the tail)
U – Ureters
C – Colon (ascending & descending)
K – Kidneys
E – Esophagus (abdominal portion)
R – Rectum
Xray School Cards
flashcards
Decks in class (30)
# Cards
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Patient Care138
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Pre Fall 2025394
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1+2 Radiobiology63
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Alimentary Canal A&P157
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Computerized imaging34
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3+4 Radiobiology73
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HESI Practice Questions0
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Anatomy Exam 246
-
Physics 5 + 6103
-
Anatomy Exam 393
-
Physics 7+8111
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Biliary system test23
-
Urinary system test81
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Chapter 9 + 1060
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Section 2 Computed Imaging29
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Section 3 Computed Imaging61
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Chapter 11+12 Study55
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Chapter 15 + 16125
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reproductive unit22
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Anatomy Final25
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physics radiobio final prep cards67
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Total REVIEW65
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Quality53
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Quality SECTION 26
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Patient Care REVIEW83
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Safety REVIEW104
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Image Production Review215
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Medical Terms77
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Review COVERAGE273
