Xray School Cards > Review COVERAGE > Flashcards

Review COVERAGE Flashcards

(273 cards)

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1
Q

Pixel size equation

A

Fov/matrix length

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2
Q

DEL components

A

Capture area, storage capacitator, tft gate

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3
Q

Capture area components

A

Top electrode (-)
Detector area (amporphous selenium/silicon)
Bottom electrode (+)

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4
Q

What charge on a DEL does the storage capacitator store

A

Positive

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5
Q

Direct imaging uses what chemical for detecting

A

Amorphous selenium

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6
Q

Highest to lowest DQE ratings for Dr direct, indirect, and CR imaging order

A

Amorphouse sel (direct) -> ces iodide (indirect) -> brium flourohalides with europium activators (cr)

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7
Q

Indirect imaging uses what for the scintillation layer

A

Cesium iodide or gadolinium

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8
Q

Indirect imaging uses what 2 different plate arrangements

A

CCD with lens/fiber optics connecting

TFT with photodiode

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9
Q

Spatial frequency equation

A

0.5 x pixel size

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10
Q

Filler factor goes up…. dose, contrast, resolution goes…

A

Dose down
Con and reso up

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11
Q

Bit depth equation

A

2^x (bit)

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12
Q

During imaging where does quantization take place

A

ADC

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13
Q

Histogram x and y axis

A

X - specific exposure values
Y - number of times that exposure occurs

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14
Q

What is rescaling

A

Correction of slight under or over exposure errors

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15
Q

LUT Adjustments applied when and what r they

A

Brightness and contrast adjustments after rescaling for display with ideal contrast and brightness

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16
Q

Cr plate uses what chemical to detect

A

Barium flouraldihides with europium detectors

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17
Q

KVP goes up, DQE…

A

Goes down

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18
Q

Capture efficiency

A

% of photons absorbed by plate to contribute to DQE

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19
Q

SF goes up, DQE goes

A

Down

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20
Q

Exposure lat define

A

Acceptable exposure values that make good images and good/acceptable pt dose

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21
Q

Dynamic range

A

All range of xrays caught by plate

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22
Q

MTF goes up, SF goes…

A

Down

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23
Q

If a image is zoomed in for smaller objects, does the MTF go up or down

A

Down

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24
Q

MTF score range

A

1-0

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25
Mtf means...
Object compared to image made
26
What is it called when an image is captured above exposure lattitude
Saturation artifact
27
MIMPS was previous PACS, but what changed PACS to MIMPS says the FDA no longer regulates it?
21st century cures act
28
MIMPS consists of what?
Imaging equipment Display workstations Archive servers Database Network (highway for info)
29
EMR is for what
Electronic medical record that documents all health information. Allows dr. Office to track all pt medical information digitally
30
EHR is for what
EHR is a health record shared between different providers like epic or cerner
31
Network Switch types and things they do
Hub - passive - no identifying data Bridge - active - identifies data and filters Router - examines and filters all data, limits scope of data
32
Server MIMPS system vs Cloud MIMPS system
Server has one server, all exams are available to the radiologist, only 1 rad at a time can view, but if server fails the whole system dies Cloud - slow data can suck, if the wifi goes out the pics r gone, all computers can access images but not all computers are diagnostic quality Cloud connects- imaging station server, and rad station Server connects -server and rad station
33
Intranet Extranet Internet
Intra - connect inside organization Extra - organization and a few outside (patients) Inter - connect computers around the world
34
Normal BUN range
7-21 Above 50 = renal failure Above 21 = kidney in danger
35
Creatinine normal and can ift fluctuate?
Normal 0.7-1.5 1.5+ means kidneys cant have contrast Can fluctuate with age, gender, hydration levels
36
GFR levels
Normal 90-120 Below 90 means no good kidneys Can fluctuate with age, gender, or hydration
37
PT test range and what it's for
Normal 11-13.5 sec Normal time to clot measure, high is bad Prothrombin
38
PTT norm lav
Partial thrombo plastin time Norm: 25-35 sec Time to clot
39
INR norm lab
Norm: 0.8-1.2 High is bad for interventional procedures For clotting
40
Platelets
Norm: 150k-400k Low platelets means no invasive procedures Per clotting
41
T/F high BUN and creatinine levels are associated with a low glomerular filtration rate
True
42
Hypoxic o2 levels
Less than 90% o2
43
Heart rate normal range
100-60 bpm
44
Systolic normal range
100-120
45
Diastolic normal range
60-80
46
Whats happening during systolic and diastolic
Systolic is contraction of left ventricle Diastolic is pressure during left vent relaxation
47
Best pulse location options inemergency
Femoral Carotid
48
Heart contraction sequence
Blood pumps to right atrium through sup and inf vena cava Then to L atrium blood comes from pulmonary veins R and L atrium push blood too... R and L ventricles... L ventricle pumps blood to the aorta R ventricle pumps blood to pulmonary arteries
49
What is pruritus
Itchy skin
50
Mild contr reactions Most common | 4
Scattered hives (most common) Itchy skin Runny nose / rhinorrhea Coughing
51
Moderate reactions to contrast | 4
Difuse hives Persistent hives Swelling throat tachycardia
52
Severe contr react | 4
Altered mental status Swelling throat BAD (anaphylaxis) Tachycardia Pulmonary edema (heart attack)
53
Cr indicator must align to the actual center of the X-ray field within what percentage
1% SID
54
SID distance must represent tge actual SID within...
Plus or minus 2% of the SID
55
The lightfield must correspond to the actual exposure field within what tolerance
Plus or minus 2%
56
What does coincidence testing evaluate in the X-ray tube
Light field accuracy
57
Actual exposure time must be within what percentage of indicated exposure time
Plus or minus 5%
58
The actual exposure time must be accurate within what range when the assigned exposure time is 80 ms
4.0 milliseconds
59
If the actual exposure time is 60 milliseconds what is the actual exposure time not supposed to be more than
63 milliseconds
60
If a medical physicist is testing an automatic exposure control system, and an exposure through 10 cm of aluminum results in a receptor exposure of 100 micro gray, and exposure through 5 cm of aluminum should result in how much receptor exposure?
100 micro gray because the purpose of automatic exposure control is to maintain the receptor exposure even when there are variables changing.
61
The actual kvp of an x-ray exposure must correspond to the selected kvp within a tolerance of what percentage
Plus or minus 5%
62
X-ray systems must demonstrate consistent exposure reproducibility within what tolerance percentage?
Plus or minus 5%
63
The X-ray tube output for identical technical parameters should not vary by more than what percentage
Plus or minus 5%
64
The milligram or mass measurement between adjacent and mA stations should not vary more than...
Plus or minus 10%
65
X-ray systems must demonstrate exposure linearity between adjacent Miliamperage stations within a tolerance of what percentage
Plus or minus 10%
66
A x-ray system with unreliable reproducibility may cause what two problems
Unnecessary patient dose Inadequate receptor exposure
67
Exposure of a small lead block is a technique used to evaluate what
Erasure thoroughness of a reader
68
What is detector calibration and reader calibration
Routine image receptor calibration ensures that the image receptor maintains an accurate and reliable exposure response Reader calibration ensures that the image plate reader maintains an accurate and reliable reading response
69
What is the Deviation index used for
Exposing different detectors to ensure callibration and they all have the same response or DI index number
70
What types of patterns are used to evaluate what aspects of a proper radiography computer monitor display
Blind pairs patterns or thin lines are used to evaluate spatial resolution Grids and specific shapes that may be filled or not filled in a grid represent geometric distortion evaluation Different squares with different levels of contrast and brightness are used to evaluate the brightness and contrast of the monitor
71
Dicom PS3.14 is a standard that controls what on a monitor...
LUT of the monitor display This intern prescribes the brightness and contrast for radiographic images when viewing on a Pacs monitor
72
3P 6Pulse ripple %
14%
73
Single phase ripple %
100%
74
3p 12pulse ripple percent
4%
75
Voltage Ripple in pulse and phase waves for the circuit is what
The % the voltage drops between peaks of voltage
76
Definition of phase
Number of wave Cycles
77
Definition of pulse
Number of pulses per cycle
78
Definition of frequency
Number of pulses
79
What does the kVp waveform look like
Should look like a top hat, flat across the top for entire exposure Represents proper KV being generated and used for the entirety of the exposure
80
What should the waveform for Ma look like
Like a top hat but on the left side there is a slight Spike before it levels out for the rest of the procedure This spike is called a rotor Spike and is normal as it is the sudden start of rays being made Normalizing and flattening out is necessary for the ma to be constant for the whole exposure
81
Is kvp associated with quality or quantity
Quality
82
What can incorrect waveforms cause
Saturation, model, excessive dose, generator faults
83
What can flat wave forms Ensure
Correct x-ray output, correct x-ray energy, ideal image quality and ideal patient dose
84
Why must mA waveforms be updated as tube's age
Because tube properties change over time
85
Rhoestat adjusts what
Tube current, heat, mA selector
86
Step down increases what
Current
87
Amount of Amperes in filament current
3-6 Amps
88
Can the tech change the current of the filament?
No, only the tube current
89
What is the transformer ratio
Secondary:primary #of coil turns
90
Moat xrays at the anode are made through what interaction
Bremstrauhlung
91
What is the average beam energy called
Beam quality
92
What is beam quantity also called
Intensity
93
What is velocity of xrays
Speed of light
94
What is an isotropic xray beam
A beam that diverges equally in all directions
95
Air kerma and exposure describe quantity or quality of xray beam
Quantity
96
Increasing tube current does what for quantity and electron flow
Increases both
97
What term is synonymous with quality of xray beam
Penetrability
98
Will high or low energy photons add to patient dose but not to diagnostic quality of the xray
Low
99
Grids are recommended when a body part reaches how thick in centimeters
10 cm
100
Beam intensity is directly proportional to kvp true or false
False, beam intensity is directly proportional to the square of kvp
101
Lead aprons require how much lead equiv?
0.5
102
Lead glasses require how much elad equiv?
0.35
103
Lead gloves require how much lead equiv?
0.25 mm
104
Bucky slot requires how much lead equiv?
0.25 mm
105
What is the name describing what the xray beam does as it travels through space
Divergent
106
What is positive beam limitation
Collimation auto that ensure the collimation doesnt exceed the detector size
107
What is a benefit of increasing collimation? Decrease of skin dose Decrease of effective dose
Decrease of effective dose
108
The thickness od inherent filtration within gen use xray tube is equal to how much aluminum
0.5 mm
109
Thickness of added filtration with general use tube assembluez is equal to...
2 mm aluminum
110
NCRP recommends total filtration of tube to be what (inherent and added) in which report
Report 102 2.5 mm alum
111
Added filtration is how much
2.0 mm aluminum
112
Inherent filtration is how much
0.5 mm alum
113
What types of detectors are ionization chambers
Personal dosimeters Geiger mueller counters
114
What is measured during gamma spectroscopy
Photon energies
115
Layers or parts of a scintillation detector
1. Scintillation layer 2. Photocathode (light to electrons) 3. PMT (electrons multiplied) 4. Scintillation detector/reader
116
What is rhe scintillation detector layer made of
Light emitting crystals
117
Wholebody rad limit
50 msv 5 msv
118
Eye lens limit dose occupationa and public
150 msv 15 msv
119
Skin and extremities dose limit occupational and public
500 msv 50 msv
120
TLD is made of what
Lithium flouride crystal Holds electrons till exposed to heat and then light is released that is proportional to dose
121
TLD cons And pro
Fades in heat/light Can only be read 1 time Cheaper than OSL
122
OSL made of what and how does it work
Made of aluminum oxide crystal Reader exposes it to laser light and visible light is produced proportional to exposurr
123
Pros and Cons of OSL
More expensive Will not fade in heat or light Can be read more than once More sensitive to exposure
124
In bremstrauhlung radiation interactions, what does the electron interact with to slow down
The electric field of the atom
125
In brems radiation, tube potential is the same as _____ of the photin
Max energy
126
How to find brems photon energy
Income kev - outcome kev
127
What interaction is the main way photons are made
Bremstaulung
128
Hair loss is possuble due to radiation exposure after what threshold dose
3000 milgy
129
Decreased sperm count as possible due to radiation exposure after receiving a threshold of at least
100 mg
130
If a dose to a patient is still less than all threshold doses, what risk is still an adverse effect of the radiation?
Cancer is always a risk with any level of radiation
131
What is the most common effective DNA molecule damage from exposure to ionizing radiation
Small base pair lesions
132
The most common means of DNA damage is due to indirect or direct action?
Indirect
133
The indirect action of DNA damage is a result of a DNA molecule interaction with what?
A free radical
134
What is the process of radiolysis
Ionization of a water molecule that creates an ion pair and these charged particles turn into free radicals that can cause indirect damage to DNA
135
What type of cancer has the shortest latency period
Leukemia
136
What are some late effects of radiation
Bone cancer, cataracts, leukemia
137
What are some early effects of radiation
Acute radiation syndrome, hair loss, diminished sperm count, skin burns
138
What are the two types of deterministic effects
Late and early
139
Phases of ARS
Prodromal initial onset Latent false subsiding (loner with less dose) Manifest illness Die or recover
140
3 types of ARS and dose
Hematopoeitic (1 gy) Gastrointestinal (10 gy) Cerebrovascular (50 gy)
141
Teratogenic effects in pregnancy effects
Carcinogenic Lethal Malformations Cerebral effects
142
LD5060 means what
50% of population will die without med intervention in 60 days (The dose to reach this is 3-5 Gy)
143
3 baby phases
Pre implant (1-10 days) Organogenesis (10 days-6 weeks) Fetal period (6 weeks-birth)
144
Leukemia latency period
5-7 years
145
What is also known as the biological harm of a radiation type compared to a 250 Kev x-ray beam
Relative biological effectiveness
146
Is a cell's sensitivity to densely ionizing radiation Changed by oxygenation
No, it is not changed by oxygenation because densely ionizing radiation like alpha particles is not affected by oxygenation
147
What is the oxygen enhancement ratio of x-rays
Three Meaning oxygenated cells are 3x more sensitive than unoxygenated
148
Least area where there will be scatter relative to pt during fluoto
90° horizontal to pt (lead curtain)
149
DAP is also...
Air kerma striking pt Also KAP or Kerma air product
150
Skin redness can occur after how much gy...
2-5 Gy
151
Sentinel event of exposure at what minimum dose
15 Gy
152
Best standing place during portable flouro when possible is...
Behind the image intesifier/flat panel
153
Function of the image intesifier
Brighten image
154
Order of imahe intesifier components and order of conversion
Input phos (cesium iodide) Photo cathode Electrostatic lenses (neg) Anode (positive) Output phos Video cam/CCD ADC Xray Light Photoelectrons Light Analog/electric Digital
155
Flux gain definition
Kinetic energy gained in image intesifier during acceleration from photocathode to output phospor
156
Flat panel detector components in flouro
Same as indirect Scintillation layer Photodiode TFT Gate/arry
157
Minification gain define
Concentration of electrons from input to output
158
Where is the grid in flouro
Infront of the input phos on the image intensifier
159
Flouro grids have a higher or lower grid ratio than imaging gridz?
Lower
160
Grid type in flouro (linear, crossed, s shaped)
Linear
161
Interventional flourp uses what type of grid that is different from conventional flouro
Crossed
162
Are flouro grid ratios different from normal radiographic grids?
No
163
Brightness gain equation
Flux gain × min gain
164
Minification gain equation
Diamter input squared / diameter output squared
165
Conversion factor equation fluoro
Candela per meter squared / mg per sec OR 1% of brightness gain
166
Define conversion factor
% that measures the efficiency of the image intesifier
167
Brightness gain define
Measure of the ability of image intesifier to increase brightness level of the image
168
Abc other namr
Aerc or auto exposure rate control Adrc auto dose rate control
169
AGC is what in fluoro
Auto gain control Controls amplification of flouro images so bright or high dense images arent too bright
170
What two things help ABC work correcrly in flouro
Good centering on area of interest and good collimation
171
Peripheral fall off of image brightness with image intesifier flouro machines is due to...
The concave curved shape of input phosphor
172
What minimizes flouro image blooming
Precise positioning
173
What is s shaped distortion in fluoro
Image is bent in a S pattern Potentially caused by magnetic fields
174
What is pincushioning in fluoro
Curved or bent areas at center of image
175
What is blooming in fluoro
Loss of image sharpness due to part of image being whited out
176
What is veiling glare
When xray light and electron energies scatter within the image intensifier and result in contrast reducing haze
177
Purpose of a tft arry
Store signal and release once it is reached a certain charge
178
Magnification factor equation for fluoro and multifield intesification
Full size input phosphor / Selected in put phosphor
179
Input phosphor common diameters
12 cm 17 cm 25 cm
180
4 modes of fluoro and what they r for
Conventional *fed limit 100 mg/min* *uses pedal* Pulsed *decrease dose* High Level control (boost mode) *up to 200 mg/min* *increased image quality* Digital Subtract Angiography *increase vessel visibility*
181
Continuous fluoro pulse per sec
30
182
Pulsed flouro pulse per sec range
1.5-30
183
Flouro frame averaging explain what is it and how it effects inage quality
Averages contrast and quality over all frames into one so that the image quality increases due to decreased noise overall
184
What is beneficience
Doing whats best for the patient
185
Emergency medical Treatment and Labor Act does what
Mandates that hosptials provide emergency medical screening and stabilizing treatment regardless of a patient's ability to pay
186
3 types of consent
Informed - formal process, must be documented Express - requires active verbal/non indicators Implied - given by action/inference
187
Elements of malpractice (4)
1. Duty 2. Breach 3. Cause 4. Damage
188
Malpractice vs negligence
Malpractice is actual harm (legal effects) Negligence is potential harm (professional effects like liscense loss)
189
What principle did tarasoff v. Regents of University of California say
Duty to protect and warn 3rd parties can override confidentiality
190
Bob east case shows what principle
Labelling all vials is mandatory
191
Miller v. Rhode island hosp establishes what principle
When to provide cate in emergencied without consent
192
Cruzan v. Director of missouri department of health case shows what
Right to refuse treatment
193
Case law does what
Uses cases to help GUIDE ethical choices by people and buisnesses
194
Criminal law involves...
Offenses against society (hippqa, battery, theft)
195
What is a polst vs. A living will
Both are Advanced directives, but a POLST is specifically end of life care that is established by a specific provider and moves with the patient from place to place, this happens specifically in California
196
Durable vs medical power of attorney
Durable has a wide range like financial and medical and familial while medicaa is ONLY medical
197
3 components of mental competency
They understand Can weigh options Can communicate descision
198
Minors dont need parental consent in what cases
Life in immediate danger if wait till parents are consulted Seeking contraception Consenting to STI diagnosis and treatment Reporting abuse/neglect through med exams
199
Why is iodinated contrast media useful if perforation is suspected?
Easily removeable Readily absorbed by the kidneys from the peritoneum
200
Omnibus rule HIPAA
Extends hippa responsibilities to buisness associates Happened in 2013 and it was a change
201
Privacy // security // health care access protability and renewability // mean what in hipaa
Privacy - discussed in private pla ces Security - protocol for breaches and safeguarding information HCAPAR - ensures people who are changing jobs or getting laid off keep insurance during the changes
202
What is hippq minimum necessary rule
Only give minimal amount of pt info needed for the exam
203
Enforcement rule in hippa
Outlines procedures for data breaches
204
Admin simple provisions in HIPAA
Standard for electronic transmissions Mandates for national identifiers (used for providers to identify breaches n such)
205
Pt bill of rights was founded on what document in 1970
AhA document
206
What is pt bill of rights
Discusses patient rights but is not a law and states what should be ethically allowed to and given to patients
207
Standard of care factors (3)
Age Medical history Technology available
208
What is standard of care
What a reasonable person would do in the same situation used in court
209
What does PDART stand for
Patient Drug Amount Route time
210
What does veracity mean
Truth telling
211
What does fidelity mean
Commitment keeping
212
Contrast water soluble used when
Surgery/post and with perforations
213
Contrast thin barium made how
Barium mixed with water to thin Harder to remove than water soluble
214
Entero VY 24% contrast properties
Thickest contrast enhances small bowle mucosal patterns
215
Small bowel flouro position time and CR and how do u see the terminal ileim
Prone 2-5 hours (ends when contrast in cecum) CR at L2 or iliac crests PA position may compress intestines Terminal ileum seen by using a compression paddle to move intestine out of the way
216
Enterocyclis is what
Contrast through nasal or oral gastric tube placed at the ligament of treitz, skips the stomach
217
Small intestine parts in order and which one is feathery
Duodenum Jejunum (feather) Ileum
218
Oblique and transverse fx properties
Complete Caused by falls Long bones Transv = transverse across the bone Oblique = obliquely across the bone
219
Longitudinal fx properties
Long bones Trauma or stress usually Parallel with msp of bone
220
Fx types not in a straight line
Comminuted (1 break with segments and shatter looking) Greenstick (1 break with bend) Segmental (two breaks taking off a chunk) Spiral (twist around)
221
Severe trauma fx
Comminuted Segemental
222
Stress vs avulsion vs buckle fx
Stress = overuse sometimes called hairline fx , small break in bones surface Avulsion = tendon pulls off bone common in young athletes Buckle/torus = impacted. Compression fx that does not go through the bone and is common in children under 12, looks like a bulge in bone
223
Name the 5 location named fractures in the wrist/hand
Colles and smith (distal radius usually from catching self) Chauffer (radial styloid area) Barton (distal medial radius fx) Metacarpals Scaphoid Barton's is a fracture-dislocation (volar or dorsal rim) usually from high-energy trauma, while Chauffeur’s is a shear fracture of the radial styloid process often caused by direct impact
224
Name all the synovial joint types and what movements they do
Hinge/ginglymus - 180° movement Pivot/trochoid - axis and atlas Ball and socket/spheroid - multiaxial Saddle/sellar - biaxial movement; saddle shaped articular point (trapezium and 1st meta) Gliding /planar - slight unixial movement (intercarpals) Condyloid/ellipsoid - biaxial movement at right angles to each other. (Metacarpalphalangeal joint)
225
Feet and ankle fx with fun names (4)
Trimalleolar (breaks in all three malleoli: the lateral (fibula), medial (tibia), and posterior (tibia)) Lisfranc (damage to the lisfranc joint at top of foot which is in the proximal metatarsals) Jones (5th tuberosity) Pilon (a severe, high-energy injury breaking the lower tibia (shinbone) at the ankle joint, often involving multiple fragments (comminution))
226
3 joint types categories functional
Synarthrodial - immovable Diarthrosis - free moveable Amphiarthrosis - semi-moveable
227
3 joint types structural
Fibrous - syndemoses/slightly move, sutures/immoveable, gomphoses/limited movement Synovial - freemovement with synovial fluid Cartilaginous - symphases / slightly /vertebrae , syncondroses /immovable
228
Synovial bones pneumonic
Healthy - hing Skeletons - sadd Protect -pivot Cartilage and -condylloid Bones - ball and socket Perfectly -planar
229
What portion of the vertebral arch is situated between the body and transverse process of a lumbar vertebra
Pedicle
230
What software program is used for digital documentation of all patient health information
Electronic medical record
231
To place the right kidney parallel to the IR during Renal tomography what position is the patient placed in
30° left posterior oblique
232
For mobile or portable florescopic equipment (c-arm) inherent Provisions must be made so the machine cannot be operated at less than what
15 inch SSD
233
What anatomical structure of the humerus is most likely to be affected by trauma
Surgical neck
234
Kerma air is expressed in units of
Gray
235
The belief that there is a correlation between behavior and illness is common in what age range
Young children ages 4 to 11
236
Off focus error occurs when the grid does what
Is used at the wrong Sid
237
The most Superior portion of the iliac crest is approximately at the same level as what
Interspace between L4 and L5
238
What anatomical structure is located at the level of the interspace between T4 and T5
Sternal angle
239
The purpose of adding phases and rectifiers in the X-ray circuit is what
To maintain high voltage
240
Would a cumulative dose timer or a cumulative timer alert a technologist during a fluoroscopic x-ray production after a preset amount of time
Cumulative timer
241
Children develop a fear of illness and Death Around what age
4-11
242
What is the largest carpal bone in the adult hand
Capitate
243
In the axialateral OR cross table lateral projection of the hip the IR is placed where
In the crease above the iliac crest and parallel to the long axis of the femoral neck
244
Where is the proper Central Ray entrance point for an AP projection of the thumb
First metacarpal phalangeal joint
245
When disposing of used contrast media contrast media is classified as what
Hazardous waste
246
The apple core lesion is related to what pathology
Colon cancer
247
What term refers to an acute infection of the lung parenchyma or supportive tissue
Pneumonia
248
What is considered a secondary barrier
Control booth walls, and the viewing window NOT floor, ceiling, the walls of the room that are not control Booth walls
249
Dress images of the ankle are ordered to evaluate what pathologic condition
Inversion or eversion injury
250
The burden of proof for medical negligence rests with the defendant or the plaintiff?
Plaintiff
251
What lateral decubitus position is best demonstrating small amounts of fluid in the plural cavity? Affected side up or affected side down?
Affected side down
252
SSD source to skin distance and fixed fluoro equipment has to be at least what
15 in
253
RAO for an esophagram has the patient rotated how many degrees
35 to 40° from prone
254
What demographics are an increased risk of developing sensory perception alterations that cause them to respond abnormally to stimuli
Elderly patients, immobilized patients, patients in isolation Not postpartum patients
255
What occurs during the embryonic period of prenatal development from 3 to 8 weeks post-conception
Organogenesis
256
Secondary barrier walls should consist of how much lead thickness
0.8 mm or 1/32-in of lead thickness
257
Professional ethics can be defined as what
Expectation set by members of a group and abided by each member of that group
258
A technologist can identify an image produced with excessively high mass based on which of the following
An exposure indicator outside of the acceptable range Not the appearance of excessive image contrast
259
During an injection of iodine of the contrast media your patient states she feels hot and notices a bad metallic taste. You notice the patient is slightly flushed. What is the best response to this situation? Stop the injection and call a code Slow the injection rate and observe the patient Stop the injection immediately and get the physician
Slow the injection rate and observe the patient
260
What is the primary purpose of performing a daily quality control check on digital radiography systems
To check the system's ability to reproduce image contrast
261
When performing a PA oblique projection of the wrist how much rotation is normally required?
45°
262
What age group of children may have unpredictable reactions during an x-ray sometimes behaving in a mature fashion and other times in a more childlike manner Ages 1 to 3, ages 4 to 11, ages 12 to 17, ages 0 to 1
Ages 12 to 17
263
In order to demonstrate the IP joints of the toes how is the central Ray directed for an AP axial projection
10 to 15° toward the calcaneus
264
The thickness of half value layer is dependent on what
Energy of the X-ray beam, and filter material
265
If the distance between the Asis and the tabletop is 22 cm what is Central right angle and direction should be used for an AP radiograph?
Zero degrees
266
How are medially do the feet need to be rotated for the femoral necks to be parallel to the IR
15 to 20° medially
267
Which of the following position Maneuvers would place the greater tubercle of the humerus in profile laterally Flex the elbow 90° Place the humeral epicondyle's parallel to the IR
Place the humeral epicondyle's parallel to the IR
268
For an axolateral projection of the hip the image receptor should be parallel or perpendicular to the femoral neck
Parallel
269
If you find a person unconscious and the collapse was not witnessed, what rescue action should be performed first? Call for help, establish responsiveness, determine if there is a pulse, check if the person is breathing
Call for help
270
An ambulatory patient is one who can do what
Walk
271
What is the difference between a vector and fomite
A vector is a bug, and a fomite is a inanimate object that carries a disease A vehicle is a medium that carries a disease like water or air
272
Gout most commonly affects what area of the lower extremity
Base of the first toe
273
Medial oblique projection of the elbow What anatomic structure is demonstrated in profile
The coronoid process
Xray School Cards
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