Master deck Flashcards

(525 cards)

1
Q

What is the core idea of structuralism

A

Conscious experience can be broken into basic elements (sensations/feelings) using trained introspection

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2
Q

Who founded structuralism?

A

Wilhelm Wundt

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3
Q

What method did structuralists use to study the mind

A

introspection – systematic self-observation of conscious experience

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4
Q

What is a major criticism of introspection

A

It has low objectivity and low reproducibility

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5
Q

What is the main idea of functionalism

A

Psychology should study the purpose and function of consciousness, not its structure

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6
Q

Who is associated with functionalism

A

William James

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7
Q

What metaphor did William James use for consciousness

A

A “Stream of consciousness” that flows continuously

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8
Q

How did Darwin influence Functionalism

A

Functionalists believed psychological traits must serve adaptive purposes

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9
Q

What is the main principle of Gestalt psychology

A

“The whole is more than the sum of its parts.” We perceive organised wholes, not isolated elements

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10
Q

Who founded Gestalt psychology

A

Max Wertheimer

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11
Q

What is the phi phenomenon

A

The illusion of motion when stimuli appear rapidly in sequence

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12
Q

What did Watson argue psychology should study

A

Only observable behavior – objective, measurable, no introspection

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13
Q

What is the goal of psychology according to behaviorism

A

Prediction and control of behavior

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14
Q

How do behaviorists view human vs animal behavior

A

Differences are quantitative, not qualitative. The same principles apply

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15
Q

What does the psychophysiological model propose

A

Psychological phenomena can be explained through physical and biochemical brain processes (reductionism)

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16
Q

What is reductioism

A

Explaining complex behavior by breaking it down into simpler biological components

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17
Q

What is the core idea of the psychodynamic model

A

Behavior is driven by unconscious forces, desires, and conflicts

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18
Q

What are the three parts of Freud’s structural model of the mind?

A

Id (pleasure), Ego (reality), Superego (morality).

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19
Q

What is the goal of psychoanalysis?

A

Make the unconscious conscious.

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20
Q

What does the cognitive model study?

A

Mental processes (perception, thinking, memory, problem solving).

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21
Q

Why did cognitive psychology rise?

A

Behaviourism couldn’t explain complex phenomena like language acquisition.

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22
Q

How do cognitive psychologists study the mind?

A

By analyzing information processing through behavioural responses.

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23
Q

What is the humanistic approach focused on?

A

Human potential, personal growth, and self-actualization (Maslow’s hierarchy).

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24
Q

How would each model explain aggressive behaviour?

A

Physiological: Brain circuits and biological causes.

Psychodynamic: Frustration of drives → conflict.

Behaviourism: Reinforcement history + antecedents.

Cognitive: Thoughts and interpretations causing aggression.

Humanistic: Blocked personal growth or unmet needs.

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25
Why do scientists use animal research?
It allows causal tests — you can stimulate, lesion, or manipulate genes to see direct behavioural effects
26
One disadvantage of animal research?
Species differences — animals aren’t humans.
27
What did the case of H.M. show?
The hippocampus is necessary for forming new long-term episodic memories; procedural learning is preserved.
28
What does fMRI measure?
Blood-oxygen-level changes (indirect measure of neural activity).
29
What did Golgi discover?
The silver stain that labels ~1% of neurons
30
What did Ramon y Cajal conclude using the Golgi stain?
Neurons are separate cells (neuron doctrine).
31
What did Hodgkin & Huxley discover?
How action potentials work electrically using the squid giant axon.
32
What are the two main divisions of the nervous system?
CNS (brain + spinal cord) and PNS (somatic + autonomic).
33
What does the somatic nervous system do?
Controls voluntary movement + sensory input to CNS.
34
What does the autonomic nervous system control?
Automatic bodily functions (heart rate, digestion).
35
Sympathetic vs parasympathetic?
Sympathetic = fight/flight. Parasympathetic = rest/digest.
36
What are the three major brain divisions?
Cerebrum, cerebellum, brainstem
37
What is the primary motor cortex responsible for?
Voluntary movement; mapped via motor homunculus.
38
What is contralateral organization?
Left hemisphere controls right body & vice versa.
39
What did split-brain studies show?
The left hemisphere is specialized for language
40
Name three key functions of glial cells.
Myelin production (oligodendrocytes) Immune defence (microglia) Linking neurons to blood vessels (astrocytes)
41
What triggers an action potential?
Depolarization to threshold at the axon hillock.
42
What ions are involved in action potentials?
Na+ influx = depolarization; K+ efflux = repolarization/hyperpolarization
43
What maintains the resting potential (~–70 mV)?
Sodium–potassium pump (Na+ out, K+ in).
44
What increases the speed of action potential propagation?
Myelination + larger axon diameter.
45
What happens when an action potential reaches the terminal?
Neurotransmitters are released into the synapse.
46
What is reuptake?
Transporters return neurotransmitters back into the presynaptic neuron.
47
What is degradation?
Enzymes break neurotransmitters down in the synapse.
48
Ionotropic vs metabotropic receptors?
Ionotropic = fast, include ion channels. Metabotropic = slow, activate signalling cascades.
49
What is a monoamine neurotransmitter?
A class including dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin.
50
What is a receptor agonist?
A drug that binds and activates a receptor (e.g., morphine).
51
What is a receptor antagonist?
A drug that binds but blocks activation (e.g., naloxone).
52
What is evolution?
Change in the heritable traits of a population across generations.
53
What is natural selection?
Differential reproductive success due to trait variation; the environment “selects” advantageous traits.
54
What is fitness in evolutionary biology?
An organism’s reproductive success relative to others. Not strength → number of surviving offspring.
55
What is an adaptation?
A trait shaped by natural selection because it increased ancestral reproductive success.
56
: What key evidence supports evolution?
Fossil record Anatomical homologies (similar bone structures) Embryological homologies Vestigial traits Genetic evidence
57
What are homologous structures?
Structures similar due to shared ancestry
58
: What are vestigial traits?
Features with reduced or no function (e.g., human appendix).
59
When did the earliest Homo species appear?
~2.5 million years ago. (From early Homo fossils referenced in lecture timeline.)
60
When did anatomically modern humans (Homo sapiens) arise?
~300,000 years ago (fossil evidence)
61
What species coexisted with Homo sapiens?
Neanderthals (Homo neanderthalensis).
62
Did humans and Neanderthals interbreed?
Yes — most non-African populations have 1–4% Neanderthal DNA.
63
Why is bipedalism important in human evolution?
Frees hands, improves long-distance walking efficiency, better thermoregulation standing upright
64
Why do humans have large brains?
Associated with tool use, social complexity, and problem-solving.
65
What is the "expensive tissue hypothesis"?
: Large brains require lots of energy → compensated by dietary changes (rich foods, cooked foods).
66
What is sexual dimorphism?
Physical differences between sexes; humans show moderate dimorphism
67
What do primate social structures tell us?
Social behaviour (alliances, dominance, cooperation) has evolutionary roots.
68
What is kin selection?
Helping relatives increases your inclusive fitness (shared genes).
69
What is reciprocal altruism?
Helping non-kin when help is likely to be returned later.
70
Does evolution have a goal?
No — natural selection has no direction or purpose
71
: If a trait increases survival but decreases reproduction, is it adaptive?
No — natural selection acts on reproductive success, not survival alone.
72
A group shows cooperation among non-relatives. What concept explains this?
Reciprocal altruism.
73
A fossil shows bipedal pelvis structure. What does that imply?
It belongs to an early hominin adapted to upright walking.
74
What is the fundamental goal of studying consciousness?
To understand what it means to be human — our subjective awareness of the world.
75
What is the mind-body problem?
How physical matter (brain) gives rise to subjective experience (mind)
76
What is dualism?
The belief that mind and body are separate substances.
77
What is materialist monism?
Only physical matter exists; consciousness arises from brain activity.
78
What is idealist monism?
Mind is the fundamental substance; physical world is secondary.
79
What is neutral monism?
Mind and body are two ways of describing the same underlying reality
80
What is the “hard problem” of consciousness?
Explaining how physical brain processes produce subjective experience
81
What are the “easy problems”?
Perception, attention, memory, learning, sleep/wake states. (Mechanistic functions that can be measured)
82
What is the explanatory gap?
The gap between objective physical processes and private subjective experience.
83
What are qualia?
The private, subjective qualities of experience (e.g., “redness of red”).
84
Why do qualia matter for the mind-body problem?
They reveal that subjective experience cannot be fully reduced to physical processes.
85
What does Nagel’s “What is it like to be a bat?” argue?
Consciousness is subjective, and we cannot access another organism’s perspective fully.
86
What does the Tracy colour experiment show?
Even perfect physical knowledge of a system cannot fully reveal subjective experience. There is “something left out.”
87
How is consciousness generally defined in psychology?
Awareness of internal and external stimuli, including self-awareness and wakeful states.
88
What is self-consciousness?
Awareness of one’s own awareness — the ability to reflect on one’s own mental states.
89
What is the Ego Theory?
A single, unified “self” (Ego) binds experience across time.
90
What is Bundle Theory?
There is no persistent self — only a collection (“bundle”) of changing experiences. Inspired by Buddhism.
91
What is the “I” vs “me” distinction (William James)?
“I”: the knower (subject); “me”: the known (object—body, personality, memories).
92
What is the Narrative Self?
The autobiographical story we construct; relies on memory and continuity.
93
What is the Minimal Self?
The sense of agency and ownership in the present moment
94
What is the Dynamic Self Concept (Markus & Wurf 1987)?
The self is fluid, context-dependent, and continuously reconstructed. No fixed “trait profile
95
What does EEG measure?
Electrical activity of the brain (beta, alpha, theta, delta waves).
96
Which EEG waves correspond to wakefulness?
Beta (alert, active thinking) and alpha (relaxed)
97
What waves appear during deep sleep
Delta waves (slow-wave sleep).
98
What happens during REM sleep?
Brain activity resembles wakefulness; vivid dreaming; longer REM cycles later in the night.
99
Which stage has sleep spindles and K-complexes?
Stage 2 NREM sleep.
100
What is the average sleep cycle length?
90 minutes. (We cycle through Stages 1–5)
101
: What is one biological function of sleep?
Restoration — sleep deficits impair cognition; severe deprivation can be fatal.
102
Possible functions of REM sleep?
Memory consolidation, forgetting, or insight. (Still unclear).
103
What is the DEC2 mutation?
A rare mutation allowing people to function on <6 hours of sleep. (<1% of population)
104
What is the circadian rhythm?
Biological processes cycling on a ~24-hour schedule (e.g., melatonin, temperature, alertness).
105
What brain region controls circadian rhythm?
The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) in the hypothalamus.
106
What light-sensitive cells regulate circadian entrainment?
Photosensitive retinal ganglion cells (pRGCs), most sensitive to blue light (470–480 nm).
107
What hormone does the SCN regulate?
Melatonin — suppressed by light, especially blue light.
108
What is a variable?
A measurable condition, event, characteristic, or behaviour that can vary.
109
What is an independent variable (IV)?
: The variable manipulated by the experimenter. It causes change. Example from slides: IV = gender.
110
What is a dependent variable (DV)
The variable that is measured. It is affected by the IV. Example: DV = height.
111
What are operational definitions?
Specific descriptions of how variables are measured or manipulated. Required for replication.
112
What is a descriptive study?
A study that describes behaviour without manipulating anything. No causation. Includes case studies, surveys, naturalistic observation.
113
What are the disadvantages of surveys?
Social desirability bias and sampling bias
114
What is naturalistic observation?
Observing behaviour in natural settings without intervention. Risk: reactivity.
115
What is a case study?
In-depth analysis of one individual; useful for rare phenomena; low generalizability.
116
What does a correlation measure?
The direction and strength of the relationship between two variables. No causation.
117
What is the range of correlation coefficients?
From –1.0 to +1.0. Zero = no relationship.
118
Why doesn’t correlation imply causation? (two reasons)
Directionality problem Third-variable problem
119
What is the only research method that can show causation?
Experiments. They involve manipulation + random assignment.
120
What are confounding variables?
Variables other than the IV that systematically vary with it and affect the results.
121
What does random assignment do?
Equalizes groups and reduces confounds, increasing internal validity.
122
What is a between-subjects design?
Different participants in each condition.
123
What is a within-subjects design?
Same participants exposed to all conditions. More power but risk of order effects.
124
: What is sampling bias?
Non-representative samples that limit generalizability.
125
What is WEIRD bias?
Most psych samples are Western, Educated, Industrialized, Rich, Democratic → limits generalization.
126
What is external validity?
The extent to which findings generalize to real-world populations/settings
127
What is experimenter bias?
Researcher expectations influence outcomes. Prevented by double-blind procedures.
128
What is the placebo effect?
Changes in behaviour caused by expectations rather than the treatment.
129
What is demand characteristics?
Participants guess the hypothesis and change their behaviour.
130
What are the core ethical principles in research?
Respect for persons Concern for welfare Justice (From TCPS-2 framework used in Canadian research.)
131
When is informed consent required?
Whenever participants are exposed to risks or deception is used. Must be fully debriefed after.
132
What is deception and when is it allowed?
Intentionally misleading participants; permitted only when no alternatives exist and risk is minimal. Must be followed by debriefing.
133
What is reliability?
Consistency of measurement (same results each time).
134
What is validity?
Whether a test measures what it claims to measure.
135
Can something be reliable but not valid?
Yes — consistent but wrong (e.g., a broken scale always off by 5 lbs).
136
What is statistical significance?
The probability that results are not due to chance (p < .05 typically). Does NOT measure effect size.
137
What is effect size?
A measure of the magnitude/strength of the effect (important for interpretation).
138
What is sensation?
The process where sensory organs receive stimulus energy and transduce it into neural signals.
139
What is transduction?
Converting environmental energy (light, sound, etc.) into neural impulses.
140
What is perception?
Neural processing that creates an internal mental representation of the external world.
141
What are qualia?
Subjective, first-person sensory experiences
142
What is the inverted spectrum?
A thought experiment where people make identical colour discriminations but experience different qualia
143
What is wavelength?
Distance between peaks of a wave; determines perceived colour
144
What is frequency?
Number of cycles per second.
145
What is amplitude?
Height of the wave; relates to brightness.
146
What is the visible light range?
About 390–750 nm.
147
What is the pupil?
The opening in the iris where light enters
148
What is the iris?
The coloured muscle controlling pupil size
149
What is the lens?
Structure that focuses light onto the retina
150
What is accommodation?
Lens thickness adjusts to bend light differently for focusing.
151
What is the retina?
Layer at the back of the eye containing photoreceptors.
152
What is the fovea?
Central retinal region densely packed with cones → sharpest vision.
153
What are rods?
Photoreceptors for low-light, nighttime vision.
154
What are cones?
Photoreceptors for colour and high-resolution vision.
155
What is the blind spot?
Region with no photoreceptors where the optic nerve exits the eye.
156
What is the optic nerve?
Bundle of axons carrying signals from the retina to the brain
157
What is the trichromatic theory?
Colour vision depends on three cone types (S, M, L), each sensitive to different wavelengths. S ≈ 420 nm M ≈ 530 nm L ≈ 560 nm
158
What is additive colour mixing?
Combining wavelengths (RGB) to create colours; full intensity → white.
159
What is the opponent process theory?
Cone outputs are processed into opponent channels: red–green and blue–yellow.
160
What causes colour aftereffects?
Neural adaptation from overstimulation → perception swings opposite.
161
What is dichromacy?
Missing one cone type → reduced colour discrimination.
162
Types of dichromacy?
Deuteranopia → missing M-cones (green) Protanopia → missing L-cones (red) Tritanopia → missing S-cones (blue)
163
What is monochromacy?
Only one or no cone type; complete colour blindness.
164
What is colour constancy?
Ability to perceive object colours as stable despite changes in lighting.
165
What is “discounting the illuminant”?
The visual system subtracts the lighting effects to infer true object colour
166
What is blindsight?
Patients with V1 (primary visual cortex) damage respond to visual stimuli without conscious awareness.
167
What does blindsight reveal?
V1 is required for conscious vision, but other pathways still process movement & location.
168
What are feature detectors?
Neurons in primary visual cortex that respond to specific features (lines, edges, angles).
169
Who discovered feature detectors?
Hubel & Wiesel.
170
What is the ventral stream (“what” pathway)?
V1 → inferotemporal cortex; processes form, colour, and object identity.
171
What is the dorsal stream (“where/how” pathway)?
V1 → posterior parietal cortex; processes spatial location, movement, visually guided action
172
What are visual association cortices?
Regions where feature information is combined using prior knowledge to construct whole objects
173
What is visual agnosia?
: Failure to recognize objects despite normal vision
174
What is apperceptive agnosia?
Cannot form a coherent percept; sees features but cannot integrate them; lesion near V1; cannot copy.
175
What is associative agnosia?
Percept is intact but meaning is lost; can copy but cannot identify; can recognize object in another modality; lesion farther from V1.
176
What is prosopagnosia?
Inability to recognize faces despite normal intelligence and vision.
177
What is the face inversion effect?
Faces are harder to recognize upside down → shows holistic face processing
178
What does Gestalt psychology argue?
Perception is more than the sum of parts; the mind organizes elements into unified wholes
179
What is figure-ground analysis?
The mind separates objects (figure) from background (ground)
180
What is connectedness?
Elements linked together are grouped as one unit
181
What is closure?
We fill in gaps to perceive complete objects
182
What is continuity?
We perceive smooth, continuous patterns rather than abrupt changes.
183
What is similarity?
We group objects that look alike
184
What is proximity?
Elements close together are grouped together.
185
What is synchrony?
Elements that change or move together are grouped together
186
What are binocular cues?
Depth cues based on the separation of the two eyes
187
What is binocular disparity?
Differences between the images in each eye; greater disparity = closer object
188
What is relative size?
Smaller retinal image = object is farther away.
189
What is relative height?
Objects higher in the visual field appear farther away
190
What is interposition?
If one object blocks another, the blocker is closer
191
What is linear perspective?
Parallel lines appear to converge with distance.
192
What is motion parallax (relative motion)?
As you move, closer objects move faster across your retina than distant ones
193
What is size constancy?
Objects are perceived as the same size despite changes in retinal size.
194
What is the phi phenomenon?
Rapid flashing of separate images appears as continuous motion.
195
What is the motion aftereffect?
After looking at motion in one direction, stationary objects appear to move opposite.
196
What is pitch?
Perceptual experience of sound frequency (high vs low).
197
What is amplitude?
Energy of the sound wave; corresponds to loudness.
198
What is the middle ear?
Area with eardrum + ossicles
199
What are the ossicles?
Hammer, anvil, stirrup—amplify sound waves
200
What is the cochlea?
Spiral inner ear structure containing the basilar membrane and sensory neurons.
201
What is the basilar membrane?
Membrane with auditory sensory neurons
202
What is frequency theory?
Pitch is encoded by the firing rate of auditory neurons.
203
: What is place theory?
Pitch depends on which place along the basilar membrane is stimulated
204
What is tonotopic organization?
Auditory cortex is arranged so nearby frequencies are processed near each other
205
What is interaural time difference (ITD)?
: Differences in sound arrival time at each ear; used to locate sound direction.
206
What does the somatosensory system do?
Provides information about touch, pain, temperature, vibration
207
What is the primary somatosensory cortex?
Brain region for processing touch
208
What is the somatosensory homunculus?
Map of body parts proportional to cortical representation
209
What is encoding?
Forming a new memory trace.
210
What is storage?
Maintaining a memory trace/neural code
211
What is retrieval?
: Activating a memory using a cue
212
What is consolidation?
Processes that stabilize a memory trace over time
213
What is sensory memory?
Automatic, short-lived store for each sense. (p.9) Echoic: ~3 seconds Iconic: milliseconds
214
How long does short-term memory last?
~20–30 seconds unless rehearsed
215
What is STM capacity?
7 ± 2 items.
216
How can STM capacity be increased?
Chunking — grouping items meaningfully
217
: What is implicit memory?
Non-conscious memory influencing behaviour without awareness (procedural, priming, fear).
218
What is explicit memory?
Conscious, intentional recollection (episodic + semantic). (p.14)
219
What is episodic memory?
Memory for specific events with a time and place (“what, where, when”).
220
What is semantic memory?
Knowledge about the world independent of time/place.
221
: What did Ebbinghaus discover about forgetting?
Forgetting is exponential: most is lost early, then levels off
222
What reduces forgetting?
The spacing effect — learning distributed over time.
223
What is the encoding specificity hypothesis?
Memory is best when encoding and retrieval contexts match
224
What is decay theory?
Memories fade with time and disuse.
225
What is interference theory?
Forgetting occurs because memories compete
226
What is proactive interference?
Old memories interfere with new learning
227
What is retroactive interference?
New information disrupts old memories
228
What is constructive memory?
We rebuild memories using stored traces + current knowledge
229
What is the false memory effect?
People can recall events that never happened; ~20% formed false childhood memories in the study
230
What is adaptive future thinking?
The brain systems used to remember the past also help imagine the future
231
What is the Stroop effect?
Slower responses to incongruent stimuli because reading words is automatic and conflicts with colour-naming.
232
Why does Stroop interference occur?
Conflict between automatic word-reading and controlled colour-naming; inhibition is required
233
What is a representation?
A symbol/mental structure that stands for something else.
234
Why are categories useful?
Classification (treat different things as same) Communication Conserve mental space
235
What are the three category levels?
Superordinate, basic (preferred), subordinate.
236
What does the analogy effect show?
Prior knowledge of an analogous problem greatly improves problem solving (20% → 80%). (p.18)
237
What is the automatic system?
Fast, unconscious, effortless, intuitive, error-prone
238
What is the controlled system?
Slow, conscious, effortful, deliberate, more accurate.
239
What is the availability heuristic?
Judging probability based on how easily examples come to mind.
240
What is the representativeness heuristic?
Judging likelihood based on similarity to stereotypes rather than statistics.
241
What is the framing effect?
Choices differ depending on whether identical outcomes are framed as gains or losses
242
How do people behave under gain vs. loss frames?
Gains → risk-averse Losses → risk-seeking
243
What is choice overload?
Too many options → more sampling but less buying and lower satisfaction.
244
: What is regret?
Negative emotion when comparing outcomes to alternatives; wishing one could undo a decision.
245
Actions vs. inactions: who regrets more?
Short-term → regret actions more (e.g., Jim transferring) Long-term → regret inaction more (Dave staying) (pp.36–39)
246
What is status quo bias?
Preference for staying with the current situation (default option)
247
why does status quo bias occur
Regret avoidance — actions produce more regret than inactions.
248
What is confirmation bias?
Tendency to seek, interpret, and remember information that confirms existing beliefs.
249
What is crystallized intelligence?
Accumulated knowledge (vocabulary, facts). Increases with age.
250
What is fluid intelligence?
Problem-solving and abstract reasoning; decreases with age.
251
Three criteria for a good intelligence test?
Standardization Reliability Validity
252
What is standardization?
Comparing scores to a pretested population; normal distribution (IQ mean = 100). (p.51)
253
Types of reliability?
Test–retest Split–half
254
Types of validity?
Predictive: predicts real-world outcomes Content: measures relevant behaviours
255
: What is the textbook definition of language?
: A shared system of symbols (spoken, written, signed) and rules for combining them to communicate meaning.
256
What else is language?
A social act for interpersonal goals Neurocognitive processes for producing/understanding symbols
257
What are the core features of human language?
Symbols convey meaning Arbitrary symbol–referent relationship Structured (rule-governed) Multilayered (levels of representation) Productive (generative) Evolutionary (changes over time)
258
What are examples of levels of representation?
Phoneme Morpheme Word Phrase Sentence
259
What is pragmatics?
Rules for real-life language use: turn-taking, intonation, gestures, addressing different audiences
260
: How does language relate to perception and sensorimotor control
It relies on speech perception, mouth/tongue motor control.
261
How does language relate to memory?
Vocabulary = semantic memory; grammar = procedural learning.
262
How does language relate to development, attention, and social psychology?
Children acquire categories & grammar Automatic vs controlled processing affects language Sociocultural context shapes language
263
When do infants start babbling?
6–7 months; repeated consonant-vowel combinations.
264
Key milestones in speaking?
10 months: babbling matches home language 12 months: single words 2 years: two-word combos 3 years: simple grammar 5 years: adult-like vocabulary & grammar
265
What is overregularization?
Applying grammatical rules to irregular forms (“I goed”). Shows rule learning.
266
When do infants recognize phoneme differences?
By 1–2 months.
267
What is perceptual narrowing?
Infants discriminate all phonemes at birth; by 12 months only relevant ones
268
How do babies detect words in fluent speech?
Statistical learning—tracking which syllables co-occur.
269
When do babies know common nouns?
6–9 months; use eye-gaze to infer referent
270
When do children use grammar to infer meaning?
By 3 years
271
What are two major theories of language acquisition?
Language acquisition device (innate) Statistical learning (“less is more”)
272
What anatomical adaptation supports human speech?
Lowered larynx → more sounds, higher choking risk.
273
What makes human language unique?
Infinite recombination of units Displacement (talk about things not present) Theory of mind (intent to alter others’ mental states)
274
Why is language processing largely automatic?
Most interpretation happens below awareness
275
What is semantic priming?
Faster recognition of a word when preceded by a related word.
276
How does context affect language processing?
Local and global context automatically trigger interpretations → vulnerable to illusions, misinformation
277
What is the McGurk effect?
Visual speech alters auditory perception
278
What are comprehension illusions?
Errors like “Moses illusion” or misremembering facts because of contextual cues.
279
How does multilingualism affect processing?
: Increases controlled processing to manage cross-language activation.
280
What are interlingual homographs?
Same spelling, different meaning across languages
281
What are cognates?
Words with similar form + meaning across languages.
282
Does context modulate cross-language activation?
Yes—high constraint reduces interference or facilitation.
283
What factors shape bilingual processing?
Age of acquisition, proficiency, usage %, code-switching, identity, immigration status, sociocultural experience
284
How does experience affect brain development?
Neural blooming & pruning in frontal lobe influenced by language exposure.
285
What is aphasia?
Loss of language following brain injury
286
What about bilingual aphasia?
Patterns vary—depends on proficiency, age of acquisition, brain networks
287
What do psychologists study in personality?
Stable characteristics that describe how people typically think, feel, and behave.
288
What are the two main evolutionary tasks related to personality?
To Get Along To Get Ahead
289
What are cardinal traits?
Traits that dominate a person’s personality.
290
What are central traits?
General dispositions describing a person
291
What are secondary traits?
Traits relevant only in certain contexts
292
What are “functionally equivalent situations”?
Situations that cue similar responses because of stable traits.
293
What is the lexical hypothesis?
Important personality differences become encoded in language.
294
What statistical method did Cattell use to reduce thousands of trait words?
Factor analysis — identifies clusters of correlated traits
295
What are self-report measures?
People rate their own personality traits
296
What are informant reports?
Ratings made by friends/family
297
What are the Big Five personality dimensions?
Openness Conscientiousness Extraversion Agreeableness Neuroticism
298
Give one example facet from each Big Five trait.
Openness: Intellectual curiosity Conscientiousness: Organization Extraversion: Sociability Agreeableness: Compassion Neuroticism: Anxiety
299
What are common misconceptions about Big Five scores?
Traits are bipolar (you lie on a continuum). People cluster near the mean. Socially desirable traits do not automatically go together. Big Five dimensions are independent.
300
Are personality traits stable over time?
Yes—relative rankings stay stable, but average levels shift with age
301
How does neuroticism change across the lifespan?
Decreases from adolescence into adulthood
302
How does extraversion change?
Social vitality: stays stable Social dominance: increases into adulthood
303
How do agreeableness and conscientiousness change?
Both increase with age
304
What life factors can change personality?
Love, work, and formal counselling
305
How does culture affect personality?
Countries differ in average trait levels People’s beliefs about their culture’s personality can be inaccurate Some cultures emphasize changing one’s personality more
306
What research method is used to estimate heritability?
Twin studies (MZ share 100% genes; DZ share 50%)
307
What is the typical heritability estimate for Big Five traits?
About 50% of trait variation is due to genetic factors
308
What is the non-shared environment?
Experiences that make siblings different
309
What important things does the Big Five not capture?
Big 3 motives Values Attachment style Narrative identity (your life story)
310
What is the nature vs. nurture debate?
Whether traits are shaped mainly by heredity (Galton) or environment (Watson)
311
What is continuity vs. discontinuity?
Continuous: gradual quantitative change Discontinuous: qualitative stage-like shifts
312
What is stability vs. change?
Whether traits stay consistent or shift with experience
313
What are risk and resilience?
Factors increasing vulnerability vs. those helping individuals adapt to adversity
314
What is plasticity?
Capacity for change in response to experience. Neuroplasticity = brain’s ability to reorganize.
315
What are sensitive periods?
Developmental windows where certain skills (vision, language, emotion regulation) are especially shaped by experience
316
What is a longitudinal study?
Following individuals over time; strong for measuring development. Cons: slow, period effects.
317
What is a cross-sectional study?
Compares people of different ages at one time. Cons: age differences confounded with cohort effects
318
What is a sequential design?
Combines cross-sectional + longitudinal by following several age groups over time. Reduces age vs cohort confusion
319
What is a period effect?
When an event affects an entire cohort
320
What ethical principle is most important when studying children?
Child welfare takes precedence over scientific goals.
321
Who provides consent for child participants?
Parents/guardians; older children may provide assent.
322
What are Piaget’s four stages?
Sensorimotor (0–2): object permanence Preoperational (2–7): symbolic thinking, language, no conservation Concrete operational (7–11): logical but concrete; conservation; theory of mind Formal operational (12+): abstract, hypothetical reasoning
323
What is object permanence?
Understanding that objects continue to exist when out of sight.
324
What is conservation?
Awareness that quantity remains the same despite shape changes; emerges in concrete operational stage.
325
What is theory of mind?
Understanding that others have different beliefs, perspectives, and knowledge
326
Major criticisms of Piaget?
Underestimated children Too stage-based Ignored culture Small samples Neglected adolescence & adulthood Ignored emotion/motivation
327
What does Erikson propose?
8 lifelong psychosocial crises shaping identity
328
What are the 8 stages? erik ericson
Trust vs mistrust → Hope Autonomy vs shame/doubt → Will Initiative vs guilt → Purpose Industry vs inferiority → Competence Identity vs role confusion → Fidelity Intimacy vs isolation → Love Generativity vs stagnation → Care Integrity vs despair → Wisdom
329
What are Kohlberg’s three levels of moral reasoning?
Preconventional: punishment, self-interest Conventional: social approval, law/order Postconventional: social contract, universal ethics
330
What is the Zone of Proximal Development
Range between what a child can do alone and with guidance
331
What is scaffolding?
Support given by a more knowledgeable other (MKO) to help a child learn new skills.
332
What is Bandura’s social learning theory?
Learning occurs through observation, imitation, and modeling
333
What is intrinsic reinforcement?
Internal rewards (e.g., pride) that motivate behaviour.
334
What was Bowlby’s main idea?
: Infants form emotional bonds with responsive caregivers, used as a secure base
335
What is the Strange Situation?
Ainsworth’s procedure coding child behaviour during separation & reunion to classify attachment.
336
What is secure attachment?
Distressed at separation, easily comforted at reunion.
337
What is insecure-avoidant?
Child avoids caregiver; little distress or interest on return.
338
What is insecure-resistant (ambivalent)?
Clingy, very distressed, not easily comforted.
339
What is disorganized attachment?
Confused/contradictory behaviour; fear toward caregiver.
340
How does secure attachment affect adulthood?
Better emotional regulation, healthier relationships, higher self-esteem.
341
How does insecure attachment affect outcomes?
Difficulty with trust, intimacy, emotion regulation; higher mental-health risks.
342
What 2 dimensions define Baumrind’s parenting styles?
Warmth and control.
343
What are the 4 parenting styles?
Authoritative → high warmth, high control Authoritarian → low warmth, high control Permissive/Indulgent → high warmth, low control Neglectful → low warmth, low control
344
Effects of authoritative parenting?
High self-esteem, better social skills, strong academics.
345
Effects of authoritarian parenting?
Low self-esteem, poor social skills
346
Effects of permissive parenting?
Impulsive, difficulty following rules; egocentrism.
347
Effects of neglectful parenting?
Emotional dysregulation, higher mental-health risk.
348
What is the ecological systems theory?
Development is shaped by nested environmental systems interacting over time
349
Name the 5 systems. Bronfenbrenners
Microsystem: family, school, peers Mesosystem: interactions between microsystems Exosystem: indirect influences (parent’s workplace) Macrosystem: culture, values, laws Chronosystem: time, life events
350
What are the new forms of adolescent egocentrism?
Imaginary audience (everyone is watching me) Personal fable (I am unique; invulnerable)
351
Why is adolescent risk-taking high?
Limbic system develops earlier than prefrontal cortex → emotion > control.
352
What else develops in adolescence?
Identity formation (gender, ethnicity, race) Postconventional moral reasoning Peer influence increases Emotion regulation still inconsistent
353
Why is adolescent health important?
Health and wellbeing track into adulthood, yet adolescence is neglected in policy
354
How does food insecurity relate to adolescent wellbeing?
Higher food insecurity = higher risk of poor health, low life satisfaction, emotional symptoms.
355
What is the relation between food insecurity and youth suicide behaviours?
Suicide ideation, attempts, and mood disorders all increase sharply with severity of food insecurity.
356
What predicts youth bullying across 79 countries?
Structural determinants
357
How do corporal punishment bans affect youth fighting?
Countries with full bans show much lower rates of frequent physical fighting.
358
What global trend appears in adolescent emotional distress?
Higher distress in lower-income countries
359
What are social determinants of healthy development?
Socioeconomic, cultural, environmental, and community conditions shaping development
360
What is an attitude?
An evaluation (positive, negative, or mixed) of an object, person, or behaviour
361
What is self-esteem?
Attitudes toward the self.
362
What is prejudice?
Attitudes toward others (typically negative)
363
Why do we have attitudes?
Cognitive heuristics—quick judgments that help us decide what to approach or avoid
364
What are self-reports useful for?
Simple and direct measurement of attitudes.
365
What are limitations of self-report?
People can lie; questions may oversimplify attitudes
366
What are indirect measures?
Measures harder to control—reaction time, tone of voice, facial expressions, IAT, fMRI/EEG
367
Genetic influences on attitudes?
Twin studies suggest some attitudes (political ideology, religiosity, sexual behaviour) have heritable components
368
Environmental influences?
Attitudes shift during adolescence/university when exposed to new norms
369
According to Ajzen & Fishbein (2005), what predicts behaviour?
Intentions, shaped by: Attitudes Subjective norms Perceived behavioural control
370
What are stereotypes?
Cognitive associations with groups—can be positive, negative, or neutral.
371
What is prejudice?
Negative judgments toward a group
372
What is discrimination?
Behaviour—differential treatment of groups.
373
What is ingroup favouritism?
Preferring people who belong to our own group
374
Can ingroup/outgroup status shift across domains?
Yes—one may be ingroup by race but outgroup by gender,
375
Why did humans evolve to distrust outsiders?
Historically, outsiders posed threats—disease, resource theft, violence.
376
Is race biological?
No—race has no coherent genetic basis; more variation exists within groups than between them.
377
What were the three phases? Groups
Ingroup formation—kids unaware of other group Friction—competition → hostility Integration—superordinate goals reduced conflict
378
What resolved intergroup hostility?
Superordinate goals requiring cooperation
379
What does realistic conflict theory propose
Competition over actual resources causes hostility
380
Relative Deprivation Theory Q: What matters?
Perceived resource disparities—not actual inequality
381
Social Identity Theory (Tajfel & Turner, 1979) Q: What does it propose?
We derive self-esteem from group memberships → want our group to be superior.
382
What did Tajfel show with minimal groups?
Even arbitrary groups (overestimators vs. underestimators) produce ingroup favouritism.
383
What is explicit prejudice?
Conscious, deliberate negative attitudes; measured by self-report.
384
What characterizes modern racism?
Subtle beliefs denying ongoing discrimination
385
What is implicit bias?
Automatic associations between groups and positivity/negativity; based on spreading activation
386
What tool measures implicit bias?
The Implicit Association Test (IAT)
387
Do most people show implicit bias?
Yes—biases develop automatically via culture and experience
388
What’s the relationship between explicit and implicit bias?
Not perfectly correlated; debated in the field
389
What is social psychology?
The study of how immediate social context and the broader cultural environment influence thoughts, feelings, behaviours.
390
How does social psychology differ from personality psychology?
Social psychology → situations Personality psychology → stable traits Both explain behaviour, just different levels
391
What are the 3 basic psychological needs in Self-Determination Theory?
Autonomy (choice, volition) Competence (feeling effective) Relatedness (connection, belonging)
392
What supports intrinsic motivation and well-being?
Autonomy support Structure & positive feedback Warmth & inclusion
393
What is an attribution?
A causal explanation for an event, action, or outcome
394
What are the two main types of attributions?
Internal (traits, motives) External (situations)
395
How quickly do we form attributions?
Both automatically and through deliberate reasoning.
396
What are the three components of attitudes?
Affective (feelings) Cognitive (beliefs) Behavioural (approach/avoid)
397
When do attitudes predict behaviour best?
When attitudes are specific When we have experience with the issue
398
What is intrinsic motivation (IM)?
The natural drive to engage interests and exercise capacities.
399
When are rewards MOST likely to undermine IM?
When rewards are: Expected Salient Tangible (not symbolic) Task is interesting
400
: What OTHER things also undermine IM?
Threats Surveillance Deadlines Evaluation Goal imposition Competition
401
According to CET, IM varies with what two perceptions?
Perceived autonomy Perceived competence
402
What 3 meanings can external events have?
Informational → increases IM Controlling → decreases IM Amotivating → kills IM
403
What did Harter measure?
Children’s interest/curiosity vs desire to please teacher/get grades
404
What instructional practices increase motivation & comprehension?
Encouraging choice Providing interesting texts Social interaction about books Hands-on activities
405
What is required for a schizophrenia diagnosis?
≥2 symptoms, at least 1 positive, with impaired functioning for 6 months
406
Difference between positive vs negative symptoms?
Positive = added abnormal behaviours Negative = absence of normal behaviours
407
Which sex has earlier and more severe onset? schizo
men
408
Examples of delusions?
Grandiosity -- feeling of power Persecution -- being spyed on Reference -- distorts perception Thought broadcasting -- hearing thoughts
409
What are hallucinations?
Sensory experiences without input: auditory (most common), tactile, visual, olfactory, gustatory.
410
Examples of disorganized behaviour?
Incoherent speech, agitation, inappropriate laughter, inappropriate sexual behaviour
411
List the four major negative symptoms.
Affective flattening Motor slowing/catatonia Anhedonia Social withdrawal
412
How does risk relate to genetic closeness?
Risk increases with relatedness;
413
Environmental risk factors?
Prenatal: maternal illness, malnutrition, stress Birth: oxygen deprivation Living env: urban living, low SES, migration Behavioural: marijuana use
414
Does most schizophrenia have a family history?
No — 90% have no affected first-degree relative.
415
What do all antipsychotics block?
D2 dopamine receptors.
416
Why do dopamine-increasing drugs cause psychosis?
They raise synaptic DA, triggering psychotic episodes
417
What dopamine pattern causes positive symptoms?
Excess subcortical dopamine due to reduced frontal inhibition
418
What dopamine pattern causes negative symptoms?
Reduced frontal dopamine activity
419
Life stress risk factors? sucicide
Recent relationship conflict, legal problems, social isolation
420
Protective factors?
Religious affiliation, being married
421
What percent of people who die by suicide have a psychological disorder?
90%
422
Disorders with highest suicide risk?
Major depression, bipolar disorder, borderline PD, schizophrenia, substance-use disorders
423
Definition of specific phobia?
Marked fear of a specific object/situation causing avoidance
424
Lifetime prevalence in Canada? phobia
10%
425
What is social anxiety disorder?
Extreme fear of being watched or judged by others
426
Lifetime prevalence? social anxiety
13%
427
Common triggers? social anxiety
Public speaking, eating in public, bathrooms, social events.
428
What is a panic attack?
Sudden, intense anxiety with physical symptoms (choking, dizziness, trembling)
429
What is agoraphobia?
Fear of being in places where escape/help may be difficult.
430
Duration requirement for GAD?
Excessive anxiety ≥6 months.
431
Common cognitive symptoms? of GAD
Worry, indecision, difficulty concentrating
432
Common physical symptoms GAD
Tension, fatigue, high heart rate, insomnia
433
Which factor has the strongest association with anxiety disorders?
Low self-esteem
434
What is an obsession?
Unwanted intrusive thought
435
What is a compulsion?
Ritual done to reduce distress from an obsession.
436
Diagnosis requirements? OCD
Both obsessions + compulsions, >1 hr/day, distress/impairment
437
What events qualify as trauma?
Threatened or actual death, serious injury, or sexual assault
438
Five PTSD symptom clusters?
Dissociation Intrusion Arousal Avoidance Negative mood/cognition
439
PTSD rates?PTSD rates?
Combat vets: <30% Sexual assault: 20–25% (with 66% ASD)
440
Main symptom clusters? ADHD
Inattention (6+) Hyperactivity/Impulsivity (6+)
441
Diagnostic requirement? ADHD
Symptoms in 2+ settings, clinically significant
442
What is a psychological disorder?
A clinically significant disturbance in emotional regulation, cognition, or behaviour, causing distress or impairment in social/occupational functioning.
443
What is a symptom?
A deviation from norms in emotion, thoughts, or behaviour (e.g., persistent sadness, interrupting others, significant weight loss). Norms may be personal or societal
444
Why can diagnosis vary across cultures?
Western diagnostic systems may not apply equally to non-Western groups; symptoms can appear differently
445
What is point prevalence?
% of population with disorder at a single point in time
446
What is 12-month prevalence?
% who meet criteria within the past year.
447
What is lifetime prevalence?
% who will meet criteria at any time in life. ~1 in 3 Canadians will have a mental illness.
448
What is incidence?
Rate of new cases in a period among those previously undiagnosed.
449
Required component of clinical assessment?
Clinical interview
450
Advantages of diagnostic labels?
Enables research Improves treatment targeting Reduces confusion for patients Allows access to care/accommodations Facilitates advocacy
451
Disadvantages? of diagnostic levels
Can obscure symptom overlap Encourages rigid categories Stigma + self-stigma Hard to get help for subsyndromal symptoms
452
Examples of true known causes? mental illnes
Huntington’s disease (genetic) Wernicke–Korsakoff (thiamine deficiency) Neurosyphilis (infection)
453
Why are causes rare in psychiatry?
Most mental illnesses arise from multiple contributing factors (biological, psychological, social)
454
What does the diathesis–stress model propose?
A disorder appears when a vulnerability interacts with stress
455
Examples of diathesis?
Genetics, prenatal/perinatal injury, childhood experiences, cognitive style, personality
456
Examples of stressors?
Drug use, infection, hormonal changes, job loss, relationship loss, financial stress, illness
457
What does the biopsychosocial model emphasize?
Mental health arises from interacting biological, psychological, and social factors—no domain has primacy
458
One of two required symptoms for diagnosis?
Depressed mood, OR Anhedonia (loss of pleasure)
459
Duration requirement? MDD
Most of the day, more days than not, ≥2 weeks
460
Co-morbid with? MDD
Anxiety disorders, psychotic disorders, substance use, eating disorders.
461
Can depression include psychotic symptoms?
Yes—~18% may present with delusions or voices
462
What defines mania in Bipolar Disorder?
A distinct 7-day period of hyperenergy/euphoria OR extreme irritability.
463
: Key manic symptoms?
Feeling powerful Little sleep Never tired Racing thoughts Pressured speech Risky behaviour Excessive spending Hypersexuality
464
Psychosis in bipolar?
Yes—61% lifetime incidence
465
Bipolar I vs Bipolar II?
Bipolar I: ≥1 manic episode Bipolar II: ≥1 hypomanic episode (≥4 days, less impairment) + depressive episodes
466
Does bipolar require depression?
No—only manic episodes are required for Bipolar I
467
What is a negative cognitive schema?
Habitual negative interpretation of events.
468
What explanatory style increases depression risk?
Internal, global, stable attributions.
469
MOOD DISORDERS RISK FACTORS
Early parental loss Depressed caregiver Childhood maltreatment Low income Racism/discrimination Chronic illness Recent stressful life events
470
Genetic contribution? mood disorder
~30% for depression; 60–85% for bipolar
471
Other biological factors? mood disorder
Hormonal changes (e.g., postpartum depression at 13%) Sleep deprivation / circadian disruption Substance use Withdrawal effects
472
What is trephination?
Cutting holes into skulls to release “humors”; used in Neolithic times → 15th century for melancholy.
473
Why was syphilis important for therapy history?
Discovering general paresis was caused by syphilis proved psychological disorders can have medical causes.
474
What did Freud introduce?
The first formal psychological therapy → “talking cure”
475
What did Freud believe about symptoms?
They come from repressed traumatic memories
476
Goal of psychoanalysis?
Bring unconscious conflicts into consciousness
477
psychoanalysis techniques
Free association Resistance Transference Slips Dream interpretation
478
PSYCHODYNAMIC THERAPY (MODERN) Q: How is it different from Freud’s analytic therapy?
Once/week, not daily Face-to-face Conscious thoughts emphasized Focus on current functioning, not just past
479
What does IPT assume? interpersonal thearpy
Mood is tied to relationship quality & life events.
480
IPT targets?
Life transitions, grief, interpersonal disputes, interpersonal deficits
481
IPT format?
12–16 weeks; interpersonal inventory; role-playing; between-session work.
482
Focus of humanistic therapy?
Growth, meaning, self-actualization, present & future
483
What does it criticize psychoanalysis for? humanistic therapy
Being too focused on past & primitive urges
484
Core therapist qualities?
Genuineness Unconditional positive regard Empathic understanding
485
Motivational Interviewing Q: What is MI used for?
Substance use, SMI; increases motivation by reducing ambivalence.
486
What is exposure therapy?
Repeated exposure to feared stimulus → reduces anxiety.
487
types of behavioral thearpies
Systematic desensitization In vivo exposure (incl. VR) Exposure + Response Prevention (OCD)
488
ABC model?
A = activating event B = beliefs C = consequences → Therapist disputes irrational beliefs.
489
cognitive therapy goal
Change dysfunctional thinking about self, world, future
490
What is the Negative Cognitive Triad?
Negative views of self, world, future.
491
What is cognitive restructuring?
Identifying & modifying maladaptive beliefs.
492
COGNITIVE-BEHAVIOURAL THERAPY (CBT) Key features
Present-focused Problem-solving Structured sessions Homework Collaborative goal-setting
493
Acceptance and Commitment Therapy (ACT):
Awareness & acceptance of thoughts Defusion Pursuing valued goals despite discomfort
494
Mindfulness-Based Stress Reduction (MBSR):
Observing thoughts/feelings non-judgmentally Breathing practices
495
Dialectical Behaviour Therapy (DBT)
Combines CBT + psychodynamic + humanistic Core dialectic = acceptance and change Used for BPD Includes group skills training
496
Matched-Treatment Eclecticism
Therapist chooses method by disorder (e.g., ERP for OCD, CBT for depression).
497
Benefits of group therapy?
More clients served; observe interactions; peer learning; support & belonging.
498
Self-help groups?
Shared advice & support
499
What predicts therapy success?
Therapeutic alliance = strongest predictor (even stronger than medication reliability).
500
ANTIPSYCHOTICS Typical (1st Gen) Mechanism:
Block D2 receptors.
501
antipyschotics imrpove 1st gen
positive symptoms
502
antphyschotics side effects 1st gen
Weight gain, fatigue, restlessness Hyperprolactinemia Orthostatic drops Arrhythmias Tardive dyskinesia (long-term)
503
Atypical (2nd Gen) — Clozapine prototype Mechanism:
D2 blockade but fast unbinding Also affects serotonin & adrenergic receptors
504
2nd gen benefits
Works on positive AND negative symptoms Reduces suicidality
505
2nd gen side effects
Big weight gain Diabetes Hypersalivation Agranulocytosis (requires blood tests)
506
What were the earliest antidepressants?
MAOIs & Tricyclics — effective but dangerous side effects.
507
How do SSRIs work?
Block serotonin reuptake → ↑ serotonin in synapse.
508
Examples of SSRIs?
Prozac, Zoloft, Paxil.
509
Common SSRI side effects?
Nausea, insomnia, sexual dysfunction.
510
How do SNRIs differ from SSRIs?
Increase serotonin AND norepinephrine.
511
Examples of SNRIs?
Effexor, Pristiq.
512
Limitations of antidepressants overall?
Take ~1 month to work Trial-and-error Placebo effects Weight gain, insomnia, ↓ libido
513
First-line mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder?
Lithium.
514
Lithium:
60–70% effective Better for mania Toxic at high doses SE: sedation, weight gain, tremors, dry mouth
515
Carbamazepine:
Anti-seizure drug also used as mood stabilizer
516
Anti Anxiety meds
Benzodiazepines (Xanax, Ativan):
517
Benzodiazepines (Xanax, Ativan):
Enhance GABA → neuronal inhibition Short-term only
518
anti anxiety meds risks
High addiction Dangerous with alcohol Rebound anxiety Fetal risks Doesn’t fix root caus
519
Beta-blockers:
Useful for physical symptoms
520
ADHD MEDICATIONS
Stimulants (methylphenidate, amphetamine):
521
Stimulants (methylphenidate, amphetamine):
Block DAT & NET → ↑ dopamine + norepinephrine Help 70–80% of kids; ~70% adults High discontinuation due to mood changes, irritability, anxiety, personality changes
522
PSYCHOTROPIC MEDICATIONS pros
Reduce suffering Allow community living, prevent hospitalization
523
PSYCHOTROPIC MEDICATIONS cons
Guesswork with dosing Not effective for everyone No skills learned → relapse when stopped Side effects → stopping meds Rebound symptoms
524
Examples of regulated therapy providers?
Clinical psychologists, counsellors, social workers, mental-health nurses.
525