Module 1

Question 1

What are the primary components of the plasma membrane, and what are their respective roles in cellular function?

Answer 1

Phospholipid Bilayer- makes the membrane
transfer proteins- allows specific things in/out

Question 2

What does the golgi apparatus do

Answer 2

processes and packages proteins into vesicles

Question 3

What does the mitochondria do

Answer 3

Mitochondria: energy storage

Question 4

What is a Lysosome

Answer 4

membrane enclosed pockets of acidity, breaks down debris/foregin substances

Question 5

Ribosomes

Answer 5

made of rRNA, they make proteins in the cells

Question 6

what does a Nucleus do

Answer 6

contains the bodys genetic material, the DNA, which regulates all cell structure and function

Question 7

What does a Vesicle do

Answer 7

hold proteins and wastes products that are being carried to the cell wall to be released

Question 8

How does the sodium-potassium pump contribute to cellular homeostasis?

Answer 8

regulates the amount of K+ and Na in a cell–> pH

Question 9

What are glycoproteins, and why are they important in the immune response?

Answer 9

glycoprotein is a specific carb attached to cells that are surface markers–> AKA antigen

Question 10

What is the difference between aerobic and anaerobic metabolism in terms of ATP production?

Answer 10

areobic: with O2
Anaerobic: without O2

Question 11

How can free radicals damage mitochondria, and what are the potential consequences of such damage?

Answer 11

by making them unstable, free radicals takes molecules to stablize themselves leaving others unstable

Question 12

Define etiology and explain its importance in understanding disease processes.

Answer 12

Etiology is the original cause of something; the cause of cellular alteration or disease

Question 13

What are the main types of cellular adaptation, and how do they differ from each other (e.g., atrophy vs. hypertrophy)?

Answer 13

Atrophy: cell gets smaller
Hypertrophy: cel gets larger
Dysplasia: a change in cell growth (cell loses size, shape, organization)
Hyperplasia: increase in number of cells in organ
Metaplasia: replacing one type of cell for another type
Neoplasia: uncontrolled cell growth/cancer

Question 14

Define: Dysplasia

Answer 14

a change in cell growth (cell loses size, shape, organization)

Question 15

Define: Metaplasia

Answer 15

replacing one type of cell for another type

Question 16

Define: Hyperplasia

Answer 16

increase in number of cells in organ

Question 17

Define: Neoplasia

Answer 17

uncontrolled cell growth/cancer

Question 18

What are pathognomonic changes, and how do they indicate disease?

Answer 18

• cellular level visible tissue changes that represent disease processes
• The changes are always adaptive and initially assist with cell function but then end up worsening cell function

Question 19

Describe common causes of cellular injury and provide examples of each type.

Answer 19

hypoxia (Lack of O2)
Trauma, temp, radiation
genetic defects
aging
infections

Question 20

Compare and contrast apoptosis and necrosis in terms of process and effects on the body.

Answer 20

Apoptosis: NORMAL, programmed cell death (cell bursts) that eliminates cells that are bleh

Necrosis: ABNORMAL cell death, from injury, followed by gangrene (rotting) due to infection

Question 21

What are alleles, and how do they influence phenotypic traits?

Answer 21

Allele- parts of a gene at a specific locus
Influence by how they interact or are expressed (Dom vs Recessive)

Question 22

Explain the difference between dominant and recessive inheritance patterns with examples.

Answer 22

Dom: Shows up with just one copy of the gene (Brown/Bb)

Recessive: Need two copies of the gene to show up (Blue/b)

Question 23

Mendels Law

Answer 23

• Discovered the basic patterns of inheritance
• Observable traits of single gene inheritance are inherited by the offspring from the parents

Question 24

What is BNP

Answer 24

B-type naturetic peptide; hormone released by the ventricles when the ventricle walls stretch too much due to too much fluid/blood in the heart

Question 25

What does a high BNP indicate

Answer 25

heart failure

Question 26

What are Mendels 3 laws of segregation

Answer 26

1. Law of segregation 2. Law of independant assortment 3. Law of dominance

Question 27

What is a karyotype, and what information can it provide about an individual’s genetic health?

Answer 27

Karotype: arrangement of all chromosomes of a cell, organized by number - Norma human has 22 autosomes and set of chromosome but you can have too many/little

Question 28

Describe the role of mutations in genetic diseases, and differentiate between single point and large-scale mutations.

Answer 28

single pt: mutation of single nucleotide (substution, deletion and insertion) large scale: mutation of larger portion of chromosomes

Question 29

What is the difference between therapeutic and pharmacologic classifications of drugs?

Answer 29

Therapeutic: class of meds based on the therapeutic effects in body (whyd you take it) Pharmacologic: class of meds based on the way the drug works at the molecular, cellular and tissue level (mech of action)

Question 30

How do chemical, generic, and trade names differ in drug nomenclature?

Answer 30

Chemical: Moleules (Sodium chloride) Generic: Ibuprofen/acetometaphen Trade: motrin/tylenol

Question 31

What factors influence the bioavailability of a medication?

Answer 31

Bioavailability- the percentage of the administered dose that enters bloodstream Factors that decrease: destroyed in gut, not absorbed, destroyed by gut wall/liver

Question 32

Why is the FDA’s role critical in drug safety and efficacy?

Answer 32

nensures safety of humans, monitors meds to make sure bo bad side effects and does what it is supposed to do

Question 33

What are the key steps in the drug approval process, and what happens during each phase?

Answer 33

1. Preclinical Investigation- Where the target is refined until they can ID a compound. Drug is tests on cells and tissues 2. Clinical Phase- Establishes safety and efficacy in humans Phase 1: Safety Phase 2: Efficacy (doing what it says it will) Phase 3: Looking at adverse reactions Phase 4: Post marketing surveillance

Question 34

What are the "Five Rights" of medication administration, and why are they important?

Answer 34

route, time, med, dose, patient

Question 35

How do abbreviations like "tid," "prn," and "stat" inform drug administration schedules?

Answer 35

amount of times a day

Question 36

Enteral routes of drug administration- what it is and Advantages/Disadvantages

Answer 36

- Enteral: anything absorbed through the gut - Comes in forms of tablet/capsule, liquid - Adv: easy and available - Dis: May not be available, absorption can vary based on age, meal, illnesses. - first pass effect also can effect absorption

Question 37

Explain Topical routes of drug administration- what it is and Advantages/Disadvantages

Answer 37

- Topical: dermatologic preparations - Things that go into eyes, ears, vag, nose, rectum - Adv: localized treatment (w/out systemic effects), good for if they have poor circulation - Dis: Challenging to get to admin spot sometimes, uneven distribution

Question 38

Explain Parenteral routes of drug administration- what it is and Advantages/Disadvantages

Answer 38

Parenteral- Anything not topical or oral, Involves a needle Adv: very fast admin and onset Dis: can be dangerous (minimal room for error)

Question 39

What are some sites for Parenteral medication administration

Answer 39

Intradermal: into upper layers of skin Subcutaneous: into deeper tissues of the skin Intramuscular: into the muscle Intravenous: into the vein

Question 40

What are some common reasons patients may fail to adhere to prescribed medication regimens?

Answer 40

ran out, too expensive, forgot to take, concerning side effects, heard bad stories, pharmacy was closed

Question 41

How can healthcare providers ensure safe medication administration and patient compliance?

Answer 41

By setting up meetings to talk about the regimens and performing medication remediation everytime they are seen.

Question 42

What are the Schedules for Controlled Substances

Answer 42

Schedule I Schedule II Schedule III Schedule IV Schedule V Schedule VI

Question 43

What are schedule I drugs

Answer 43

- Highest abuse potential, no current medical use in US Ex: herion, weed, LSD

Question 44

What are schedule II drugs

Answer 44

- Have high abuse potential which can lead to psychological and physical dependence - Oxy, Percocet, hydromorphine

Question 45

What are schedule III drugs

Answer 45

Potential for abuse but less then I/II can lead to moderate physical dep but high psychological dep. Ex: ketamin, anabolic steroids

Question 46

What are schedule IV drugs

Answer 46

Low abuse potential relative to substances in schedule III ex: xanax

Question 47

What are schedule V drugs

Answer 47

Low abuse potential compared to schedule IV and has preparations containing limited narcotic quantities. Ex: cough syrup

Question 48

What are Schedule VI drugs

Answer 48

no abuse potential, everything that is not a narcotic ex:l heart meds, motrin, antibotics

Question 49

What are the three medication checks

Answer 49

1. Check the med with the MAR when removing it from the drawer 2. Check the med when preparing/pouring/hanging it 3. Check the med before administering it to the pt

Question 50

What is pharmacokinetics

Answer 50

- What your body does to the drug - movement of the drug (half life/bioavaliable) - Barriers to receptors

Question 51

What is pharmaodynamics

Answer 51

What the drug does to your body (why did you take it) Barriers from receptors and getting out

Question 52

What has ADME

Answer 52

- Pharmacokinetics - A: Absorption - D: Distribution - M: Metabolism - E: Excretion

Question 53

What is the most important protein in the body

Answer 53

Albumin

Question 54

What us Cytochrome P450

Answer 54

- CYP450 - Family of liver enzymes that does medication metabolism CYP: helps the body clean up chemicals